

Applied Cryptography Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Applied Cryptography delves into the practical aspects of cryptographic techniques and their implementation in modern computer systems and networks. The course covers fundamental concepts such as symmetric and asymmetric encryption, hash functions, digital signatures, and key exchange protocols. Students will explore real-world applications including secure communication protocols, digital authentication, privacy-enhancing technologies, and blockchain. Emphasis is placed on understanding both theoretical foundations and practical considerations, with hands-on experience in designing, analyzing, and deploying cryptographic solutions. By the end of the course, students will be equipped to assess cryptographic needs and implement robust security measures in diverse computing environments.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Information Security 5th Edition by Michael E. Whitman
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696 Verified Questions
696 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Management of Information Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following functions of Information Security Management seeks to dictate certain behavior within the organization through a set of organizational guidelines?
A) planning
B) policy
C) programs
D) people
Answer: B
Q2) A worm may be able to deposit copies of itself onto all Web servers that the infected system can reach,so that users who subsequently visit those sites become infected.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A ____________ overflow is an application error that occurs when the system can't handle the amount of data that is sent.
Answer: buffer
Q4) ESD is the acronym for ____________________ discharge.
Answer: electrostatic

Page 3
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Chapter 2: Compliance: Law and Ethics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organizations put forth a code of ethics designed primarily for InfoSec professionals who have earned their certifications?The code includes the canon: Provide diligent and competent service to principals.
A) (ISC)2
B) ACM
C) SANS
D) ISACA
Answer: A
Q2) Which law requires mandatory periodic training in computer security awareness and accepted computer security practice for all employees who are involved with the management,use,or operation of each federal computer system?
A) The Telecommunications Deregulation and Competition Act
B) National Information Infrastructure Protection Act
C) Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
D) The Computer Security Act
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Governance and Strategic Planning for Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) A clearly directed strategy flows from top to bottom rather than from bottom to top.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) According to the Corporate Governance Task Force (CGTF),during which phase in the IDEAL model and framework does the organization plan the specifics of how it will reach its destination?
A) Initiating
B) Establishing
C) Acting
D) Learning
Answer: B
Q3) Enterprise<U> risk management </U>is a valuable approach that can better align security functions with the business mission while offering opportunities to lower costs.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Information Security Policy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The high-level information security policy thatsets the strategic direction,scope,and tone for all of an organization's security efforts
A)capability table
B)statement of purpose
C)Bull's eye model
D)SysSP
E)procedures
F)InfoSec policy
G)standard
H)access control lists
I)systems management
J)ISSP
Q2) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the individual policy approach to creating and managing ISSPs?
A) can suffer from poor policy dissemintation, enforcement, and review
B) may skip vulnerabilities otherwise reported
C) may be more expensive than necessary
D) implementation can be less difficult to manage
Q3) What are configuration rules?Provide examples.
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Page 6

Chapter 5: Developing the Security Program
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Sample Questions
Q1) The project planner should describe the skills or personnel needed for a task,often referred to as a(n)____________________,needed to accomplish a task.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of the one-on-one method of training?
A) Trainees can learn from each other
B) Very cost-effective
C) Customized
D) Maximizes use of company resources
Q3) Planners need to estimate the effort required to complete each task,subtask,or action step.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a step in the process of implementing training?
A) administer the program
B) hire expert consultants
C) motivate management and employees
D) identify target audiences
Q5) A(n)____________________ is a specific point in the project plan when a task that has a noticeable impact on plan's the progress is complete.
Q6) What is the role of help desk personnel in the InfoSec team?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Risk Management: Identifying and Assessing Risk
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Sample Questions
Q1) An approach to combining risk identification,risk assessment,and risk appetiteinto a single strategy.is known as risk <U>protection</U>.___________
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following attributes does NOT apply to software information assets?
A) Serial number
B) Controlling entity
C) Manufacturer name
D) Product dimensions
Q3) Each manager in the organization should focus on reducing risk.This is often done within the context of one of the three communities of interest,which includes all but which of the following?
A) General management must structure the IT and InfoSec functions
B) IT management must serve the IT needs of the broader organization
C) Legal management must develop corporate-wide standards
D) InfoSec management must lead the way with skill, professionalism, and flexibility
Q4) As each information asset is identified,categorized,and classified,a ________ value must also be assigned to it.
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Chapter 7: Risk Management: Controlling Risk
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a vulnerability (flaw or weakness)exists in an important asset,implement security controls to reduce the likelihood of a vulnerability being ___________.
Q2) Risks can be avoided by countering the threats facing an asset or by eliminating the exposure of an asset.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the followingdescribes the financial savings from using the defense risk control strategy to implement a control and eliminate the financial ramifications of an incident?
A) feasibility analysis
B) asset valuation
C) cost avoidance
D) cost-benefit analysis
Q4) In a cost-benefit analysis,the expected frequency of an attack,expressed on a per-year basis is known astheannualized<U> risk </U> of occurrence.____________
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the four stages of a basic FAIR analysis?
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Chapter 8: Security Management Models
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Sample Questions
Q1) Requires that significant tasks be split up in such a way that more than one individual is responsible for their completion.
A)blueprint
B)DAC
C)content-dependent access controls
D)rule-based access controls
E)separation of duties
F)sensitivity levels
G)storage channels
H)task-based controls
I)timing channels
J)TCB
Q2) The data access principle that ensures no unnecessary access to data exists byregulating members so they can perform only the minimum data manipulation necessary is known as <U>minimal</U> privilege.____________
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are seven access controls methodologies categorized by their inherent characteristics.List and briefly define them.
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Page 10

Chapter 9: Security Management Practices
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Sample Questions
Q1) A <U>performance measure </U>is an an assessment of the performanceof some action or process against which futureperformance is assessed._____________
A)True
B)False
Q2) Organizations must consider all but which of the following during development and implementation of an InfoSec measurement program?
A) Measurements must yield quantifiable information
B) Data that supports the measures needs to be readily obtainable
C) Only repeatable InfoSec processes should be considered for measurement
D) Measurements must be useful for tracking non-compliance by internal personnel
Q3) What are the two major activities into which the InfoSec measurement development process recommended by NIST is divided?
Q4) Which of the following is the last phase in the NIST process for performance measures implementation?
A) Apply corrective actions
B) Obtain resources
C) Document the process
D) Develop the business case
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Chapter 10: Planning for Contingencies
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Q1) What is the final stage of the business impact analysis when using the NIST SP 800-34 approach?
A) Identify resource requirements
B) Identify business processes
C) Determine mission/business processes and recovery criticality
D) Identify recovery priorities for system resources
Q2) When performing simlation testing,normal operations of the business are not impacted.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Patch and <U> proceed</U> is anorganizational CP philosophy that focuses on the defense ofinformation assets and preventing reoccurrence rather than the attacker's identification andprosecution.____________
A)True
B)False
Q4) A(n)____________________ occurs when an attack affects information resources and/or assets,causing actual damage or other disruptions.
Q5) Describe the methodology an organization should follow in an investigation.
Q6) List four of the eight key components of a typical IR policy.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Personnel and Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) a technically qualified individual who may configure firewalls and IDPSs, implement security software,diagnose and troubleshoot problems,and coordinate with systems and network administrators to ensure that security technical controls are properly implemented
A)definers
B)builders
C)security manager
D)security technician
E)systems programmer
F)ethics officer
G)CISSP
H)SSCP
I)SANS
J)CCE
Q2) Ideally,a candidate for the CISO position should have experience in what other InfoSec position?
A) Security officer
B) Security consultant
C) Security technician
D) Security manager
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Page 13

Chapter 12: Protection Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ is the determination of actions that an entity can perform in a physical or logical area.
Q2) ____________is a technology in which multiple real,routable external IP addresses are converted to special ranges of internal IP addresses,usually on a one-to-one basis.
Q3) Public key container files that allow PKI system components and end usersto validate a public key and identify its owner.
A)VPN
B)transport mode
C)SSL
D)PKI
E)digital certificate
F)asymmetric encryption
G)Vernam cipher
H)transposition cipher
I)content filter
J)footprinting
Q4) What is WEP and why is it no longer in favor?
Q5) What should you look for when selecting a firewall for your network?
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