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Applied Child Development explores the principles and theories of child growth, learning, and behavior, focusing on how these insights can be used in real-life settings such as education, healthcare, and family support. The course examines developmental milestones from infancy through adolescence, emphasizing cognitive, emotional, and social development. Students will analyze case studies, apply research findings to practical scenarios, and develop strategies for supporting healthy child development in diverse environments.
Recommended Textbook
Child Development 9th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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1978 Verified Questions
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Q1) The field of child development
A) is devoted to understanding human constancy and change throughout the lifespan.
B) is part of a larger, interdisciplinary field known as developmental science.
C) focuses primarily on children's physical and emotional development.
D) focuses primarily on infants' and children's social and cognitive development.
Answer: B
Q2) Urie Bronfenbrenner's ecological systems theory views the child as
A) a blank slate upon which adults and more experienced peers can write.
B) developing with a complex system of relationships affected by multiple levels of the surrounding environment.
C) resembling our primate relatives in social behavior and emotional expression.
D) a biological organism with a highly plastic brain, especially open to growth and reorganization as a result of experience.
Answer: B
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Q1) A __________ is a prediction of behavior drawn directly from a __________.
A) confirmation; fact
B) hypothesis; theory
C) theory; hypothesis
D) summary; study
Answer: B
Q2) Dr. Story found that the children in two-parent homes had higher reading-test scores than those in one-parent homes. However, the children from two-parent homes had more siblings than those in one-parent homes. What is the confounding variable?
A) number of siblings
B) reading test scores
C) type of reading test used
D) type of home
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about genotypes?
A) They are directly observable characteristics.
B) They always pair up in the same way across the DNA ladder rungs.
C) They are rodlike structures in the cell nucleus that transmit genetic information.
D) They are a complex blend of genetic information that influences all our unique characteristics.
Answer: D
Q2) Individuals who know that genetic problems exist in their families are good candidates for __________ before deciding to conceive.
A) gene therapy
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) genetic counseling
D) amniocentesis
Answer: C
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Q1) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) usually occurs
A) during the day.
B) during the second year of life.
C) in healthy infants with no signs of physical problems.
D) between ages 2 and 4 months.
Q2) The cries of brain-damaged babies and those who have experienced prenatal and birth complications are often __________ than those of healthy infants.
A) quieter
B) longer in duration
C) more shrill and piercing
D) more muffled
Q3) According to dynamic systems theory of motor development, each new skill is a joint product of central nervous system development, the body's movement capacities, the child's goals, and
A) environmental supports for the skill.
B) the child's cognitive development.
C) the child's social relationships.
D) the child's age.
Q4) Describe operant conditioning, reinforcers, and punishment.
Page 6
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Q1) Experience-expectant brain growth
A) occurs throughout the lifespan.
B) consists of additional growth and refinement of established brain structures.
C) refers to the young brain's rapidly developing organization, which depends on ordinary experiences.
D) occurs as a result of specific learning experiences that vary widely across individuals and cultures.
Q2) Parent-adolescent disagreements focus largely on A) long-term goals, such as college or vocational training.
B) substance abuse.
C) early sexual activity.
D) mundane, day-to-day matters, such as driving and curfews.
Q3) Children with damage to the cerebellum usually display __________ deficits. A) motor, but not cognitive, B) cognitive, but not motor, C) both motor and cognitive
D) neither motor nor cognitive
Q4) Discuss the factors that contribute to adolescent moodiness.
Q5) Discuss the factors that influence adolescents' decisions about contraceptive use.
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Q1) When Baby Carissa "stumbles" onto a new experience, such as making a mobile hanging over her crib move by kicking her feet, engaging in that activity repeatedly will A) strengthen Carissa's response and create a new scheme.
B) provide Carissa with entertainment until she is better able to explore her world.
C) lead to the refinement of reflexive schemes.
D) facilitate cognitive equilibrium.
Q2) Preschoolers' understanding that sugar continues to exist when it is dissolved in water is evidence that they
A) can overcome appearances and think logically in familiar contexts.
B) can think logically even about unfamiliar topics.
C) are incapable of logical thought, as Piaget asserted.
D) do not understand cause-and-effect relationships.
Q3) Discuss the limitations of preoperational thought from Piaget's point of view.
Q4) One neo-Piagetian perspective combines Piaget's stage approach with A) ecological systems theory.
B) information processing.
C) behaviorism.
D) the core knowledge perspective.

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Q1) Research on children's eyewitness testimony shows that
A) most preschoolers are unable to disclose forensically relevant details without the use of leading questions.
B) a warm, supportive interview tone fosters accurate recall.
C) preschoolers almost always provide false information in their testimonies.
D) children who go to "court school" are at high risk for being misled by a biased interviewer.
Q2) When children grasp the principle of cardinality, they understand that
A) attainment serves as the basis for more complex understandings.
B) the last word in a counting sequence indicates the quantity of items in a set.
C) adding and subtracting the same number leaves the original quantity unchanged.
D) the most efficient addition strategy is to start with the highest digit and count on.
Q3) Effective self-regulatory skills
A) are weakly correlated with academic success.
B) sometimes interfere with children's task performance.
C) foster a sense of academic self-efficacy.
D) develop rapidly during the preschool years.
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Q1) According to Sternberg's and Lubart's investment theory of creativity, A) high intelligence is the main determinant of creativity.
B) people are born with greater or lesser creativity potential.
C) only a small minority of people have the genetic potential to be highly creative.
D) creativity depends on a person's cognitive, personality, motivational, and environmental resources.
Q2) Binet and Simon's intelligence test was the first to
A) assess the degree of classroom disruptiveness.
B) associate items of increasing difficulty with chronological age.
C) identify children who were gifted.
D) include both verbal and nonverbal items.
Q3) The SAT is an __________ test, whereas a college professor's final exam is a(n) __________ test.
A) achievement; aptitude
B) aptitude; intelligence
C) aptitude; achievement
D) achievement; developmental
Q4) What do adoption studies reveal about the effects of heredity and environment on IQ?
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Q1) Based on her experience with young infants, Maria, a child-care worker, wonders if children are born with a built-in storehouse of rules that are common to all human languages. Maria is pondering the concept of A) linguistic expansions.
B) infant-directed speech.
C) private speech.
D) universal grammar.
Q2) Reuben is a young child with a language impairment. He has difficulty expressing concepts using words and word combinations. Reuben has problems with A) grammar.
B) pragmatics.
C) semantics.
D) phonology.
Q3) __________ are more often produced by Chinese than U.S. babies as their first words.
A) Sound effects
B) Animals
C) Common objects
D) Action words
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Q1) Between ages 3 and 6,
A) anger and fear increase in frequency and intensity.
B) children begin to use language to assist with emotional self-regulation.
C) self-conscious emotions are integrated with inner standards of excellence and good behavior.
D) self-conscious emotions are clearly linked to self-evaluation.
Q2) During Bowlby's "attachment-in-the-making" phase,
A) built-in signals help bring newborns into close contact with other humans.
B) infants respond differently to a familiar caregiver than to a stranger.
C) separation anxiety is evident.
D) separation protests decline.
Q3) Twin comparisons reveal that the heritability of attachment is
A) virtually nil.
B) low to moderate.
C) moderate to high.
D) very high.
Q4) Five-year-old John is afraid of dogs. His grandparents have two small dogs, and his parents ask your advice on how to help John manage his fear. What advice can you give them?
Q5) Discuss the concept of stranger anxiety.
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Q1) In Ms. Ceyner's class, she encourages students to focus on mastering a task for its own sake and she praises individual performance improvement rather than comparisons to other classmates. By doing this, Ms. Ceyner is
A) reducing failures by pointing out where corrective action is needed.
B) showering her students with compliments in order to make them feel better about themselves.
C) emphasizing ability over effort.
D) fostering a mastery-oriented approach.
Q2) Describe how children grapple with false beliefs as they develop a theory of mind.
Q3) During the evening drive home, Mr. Cruz looks at his 4-year-old daughter in the rearview mirror and asks what she is doing. She responds, "I'm thinking inside." Her response indicates an awareness of the __________ self.
A) categorical
B) enduring
C) inner
D) remembered
Q4) How do children use their categorical self in the development of their self-awareness?
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Q1) Research on adolescent aggression shows that late-onset youths
A) first display antisocial behavior around the time of puberty, gradually increasing their involvement.
B) commit more serious crimes and spend more time in prison than early-onset youths.
C) often have deficits in cognitive functioning, as well as a diagnosis of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder.
D) first display antisocial behavior in late adolescence, which then peaks in the mid-twenties.
Q2) When adults use punishment with children, what factors can increase its effectiveness?
Q3) As children's understanding of morality becomes more complex, they regard violations of purposeful conventions
A) as dependent on individuals' intentions.
B) as closer to moral transgressions.
C) to be less important than random convention transgressions.
D) as the linkage to immoral beliefs.
Q4) Describe the biological bases for morality.
Q5) What is moral identity, and why is it important to identify its origins?
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Q1) Twenty-year-old Neil is asked to observe an infant wearing only a diaper, and is told the baby is a girl when in fact it is a boy. What traits will Neil most likely use to describe the baby?
A) firm, strong
B) well-coordinated, hardy
C) delicate, with fine features
D) very alert, perceptive
Q2) Preschool and elementary school teachers tend to reinforce A) "masculine" behavior in boys and "feminine" behavior in girls.
B) assertive behavior in the classroom, particularly between other-sex peers.
C) children of both sexes for "masculine" rather than "feminine" behavior.
D) children of both sexes for "feminine" rather than "masculine" behavior.
Q3) Girls and women whose prenatal androgen levels were abnormally high show __________ spatial rotation tasks.
A) below-average performance on B) superior performance on C) little interest in D) an inability to comprehend
Q4) Explain the observed differences in the emotional sensitivity of girls and boys.
Q5) Describe the development of gender constancy.
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Q1) Explain why many affluent youths are at risk for poor adjustment.
Q2) __________ has the highest divorce rate in the world.
A) Canada
B) New Zealand
C) Italy
D) The United States
Q3) Research on self-care children indicates that the more hours younger school-age children spend at home, the more
A) likely they are to have adjustment difficulties.
B) responsible and independent they are.
C) likely they are to join after-school activities to prevent loneliness. .
D) they turn to peers for advice about day-to-day problems.
Q4) Adjustment difficulties increase dramatically for children in blended families when A) the stepparent has at least one other child.
B) the stepparent attempts to discipline his or her stepchildren.
C) a new baby is born.
D) children are exposed to repeated marital transitions.
Q5) Name and describe the most successful approach to child rearing, noting the benefits of this approach.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding adolescent job commitments?
A) The responsibility required for after-school jobs often translates into a student taking greater responsibility for household chores and schoolwork.
B) Students who have part-time jobs are more likely to finish high school and attend college.
C) The more hours students work, the poorer their school attendance, the lower their grades, and the more likely they are to drop out.
D) The more hours students work, the greater their school attendance, the higher their grades, and the less likely they are to drop out.
Q2) Many rejected-aggressive children
A) are actually well-adjusted and eventually develop favorable peer relationships.
B) are unaware of their poor social skills.
C) take responsibility for their social failures.
D) are only children who had few opportunities to learn appropriate social skills before starting school.
Q3) Describe ways in which parents indirectly influence their children's peer relations.
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