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Application Development Methodologies explores the structured approaches used in the design, development, and deployment of software applications. The course covers various models such as Waterfall, Agile, Scrum, DevOps, and Rapid Application Development (RAD), highlighting their strengths, limitations, and appropriate use cases. Students will learn the key phases of software development life cycles, project management fundamentals, and best practices for team collaboration and documentation. Emphasis is placed on practical application, enabling students to evaluate, select, and implement methodologies tailored to specific project requirements to ensure efficient and high-quality software delivery.
Recommended Textbook
Modern Systems Analysis and Design 7th Edition by Jeffrey A. Hoffer
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2076 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a systems development methodology created to radically decrease the time needed to design and implement information systems?
A)eXtreme Programming
B)OOAD
C)RAD
D)JAD
Answer: C
Q2) The particular processes that an analyst will follow to help ensure that his work is complete,well-done,and understood by project team members best defines:
A)techniques
B)tools
C)methodologies
D)data flows
Answer: A
Q3) What is object-oriented analysis and design?
Answer: Object-oriented analysis and design refers to systems development methodologies and techniques based on objects rather than data or processes.The goal of OOAD is to make systems elements reusable.
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Q1) Identify the most common criteria for choosing off-the-shelf software.Which two criteria would be among the most important?
Answer: The most common criteria are cost,functionality,vendor support,vendor viability,flexibility,documentation,response time,and ease of installation.Cost involves comparing the cost of developing the same system in-house to the cost of purchasing or licensing the software package.Functionality refers to the tasks the software can perform and the mandatory,essential,and desired system features.While vendor support identifies the amount of support the vendor can be expected to provide,vendor viability examines the vendor's marketplace strength.Flexibility refers to the flexibility of customizing the software.The documentation criterion examines issues relating to the user's manual,technical documentation,and cost of acquiring additional copies of the documentation.Response time questions the length of time it takes the software package to respond to the user's requests in an interactive session and how long it takes the software to complete running a job.The ease of installation criterion examines the difficulty of loading the software and making it operational.Vendor support and viability will be among the most important.
Q2) Together,SAP and Oracle control about 42 percent of the ________ market. Answer: ERP
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the estimated time for completion if time estimates for installation are as follows: optimistic = 1 week;pessimistic = 1 week;realistic = 1 week?
A)5 weeks
B)6 weeks
C)3 weeks
D)1 week
Answer: D
Q2) ________ is the amount of time that an activity can be delayed without delaying the project.
Answer: Slack time
Q3) Establishing the project initiation plan involves organizing an initial core of project team members to assist in accomplishing the project initiation activities.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) ________ is the process of dividing the project into manageable tasks and logically ordering them to ensure a smooth evolution between tasks.
Answer: Work breakdown structure
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Q1) The systems identification and selection process for an Internet-based electronic commerce application is no different than the process followed for other applications.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If Kia Motors is attempting to achieve its mission and objectives by providing a low-priced line of cars,this is referred to as its:
A)competitive strategy
B)business policy
C)information systems plan
D)objective statement
Q3) Requirements structuring is the first activity of the project identification and selection phase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When determining how to allocate IS resources,organizations have traditionally used a systematic planning process.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The Systems Service Request reflects the best estimate of the project's scope,benefits,costs,risks,and resource requirements,given the current understanding of the project.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is a Project Scope Statement and Baseline Project Plan? How are they different?
Q3) A ________ is a benefit derived from the creation of an information system that can be measured in dollars and with certainty.
Q4) Application software maintenance,new software and hardware leases,and incremental communications are examples of:
A)recurring costs
B)one-time costs
C)incremental costs
D)frequent costs
Q5) Describe the differences between tangible and intangible benefits and costs,and between one-time and recurring benefits and costs.
Q6) Briefly define walkthrough and describe the role of each participant.
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Q7) ________ are costs resulting from the ongoing evolution and use of a system.

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Q1) What is the Nominal Group Technique? How is it beneficial to requirements determination?
Q2) Referencing eXtreme programming,which of the following is the final phase of the Planning Game?
A)exploration
B)design
C)commitment
D)steering
Q3) Finding the best solution to a business problem or opportunity describes the attention to details characteristic that a systems analyst should exhibit during the requirements determination phase.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When comparing observations and document analysis,the chances for follow-up and probing with document analysis are rated high to excellent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly identify several characteristics for a good systems analyst to have during requirements determination.
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Q1) Assume condition one has two values,condition two has five values,condition three has three values,and condition four has two values;the number of rules required for the decision table is sixty.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ________ represents data at rest,which may take the form of many different physical representations.
Q3) Condition stubs are that part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for a given set of conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Referencing a decision table,an action is provided for each rule. A)True
B)False
Q5) Double-ended arrows are used to represent data flowing in both directions. A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ are the part of a decision table that specifies which actions are to be followed for a given set of conditions.
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Q1) A faculty identification number can serve as an identifier.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A deliverable from conceptual data modeling is a set of entries about data objects to be stored in the project dictionary or repository.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Triggering operations are other business rules that protect the validity of attribute values.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A ternary relationship is a relationship between the instances of one entity type.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If each employee can have more than one skill,then SKILL is referred to as a: A)gerund
B)multivalued attribute
C)nonexclusive attribute
D)repeating attribute
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Q1) A data model that represents data in the form of tables or relations is called a:
A)hierarchical database model
B)network database model
C)relational database model
D)hybrid database model
Q2) When each nonprimary key attribute is identified by the whole key,the relation is said to be in at least:
A)second normal form
B)third normal form
C)fourth normal form
D)fifth normal form
Q3) Data security can be built into a file through encryption,passwords,or prohibiting users from directly manipulating a file.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ uses an algorithm to determine the address for each row.
Q5) ________ refers to a particular relationship between two attributes.
Q6) A ________ is an attribute whose value is unique across all occurrences of a relation.
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Q1) The three usability characteristics are ________,________,and ________.
Q2) Referencing form and report usability,the consistency guideline means that formatting should be designed with an understanding of the task being performed and the intended user.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where possible,text should appear in all upper case on forms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Research conducted on highlighting suggests:
A)highlighting should be used conservatively
B)highlighting methods should be consistently used and selected based on the level of importance of the emphasized information
C)blinking and audible tones should only be used to highlight critical information that requires an immediate response from the user
D)all of the above
Q5) When designing the layout of Web pages,making sure your site is continuously updated so that users feel that the site is regularly maintained and updated is the recommendation for the ________ error.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a rule for structuring data entry fields?
A)Never require the user to enter information that is already available within the system.
B)Users should not be required to enter information that can be easily computed by the system.
C)Require users to specify the dimensional units of a particular value.
D)All data entered onto a screen should automatically justify in a standard format.
Q2) A ________ validation test checks for the existence of data items in all fields of a record.
Q3) Error messages should appear in roughly the same format and placement each time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The selection of devices users will use for interaction is made during implementation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ________ refers to a human-computer interaction method where a list of system options is provided and a specific command is invoked by user selection of a menu option.
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Q1) XML refers to software building blocks that are used to ensure that common system capabilities,such as user interfaces and printing,as well as modules are standardized to facilitate data exchange between clients and servers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a file server environment,each PC stores a copy of the database.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A centralized,integrated data warehouse that is the control point and single source of all data made available to end users for decision-support applications throughout the entire organization best describes a(n):
A)information desk
B)enterprise data warehouse
C)centralized data mart
D)data center
Q4) In a typical client/server architecture,all database recovery,security,and access management is localized at the client.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Internal documentation is system documentation that includes the outcome of structured diagramming techniques such as data flow and entity-relationship diagrams.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The purpose of acceptance testing is to:
A)determine if new requirements must be added to the newly completed system
B)determine if the system meets user requirements
C)determine if the system meets its objectives
D)none of the above
Q3) The type of testing responsible for determining what the code does is:
A)walkthrough
B)inspection
C)system testing
D)syntax checking
Q4) The development of a new version of the software and new versions of all design documents are the major deliverables associated with the coding,testing,and installation stage.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) All of the following are major activities that occur during maintenance except:
A)transforming requests into changes
B)designing changes
C)implementing changes
D)structuring requirements
Q2) Both perfective and preventive maintenance typically have a much higher priority than corrective maintenance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To measure maintenance effectiveness,what three factors must be measured?
Q4) When maintaining Web sites,________,________,________,________,and ________ are issues and procedures to consider.
Q5) Effective management of systems maintenance requires:
A)managing maintenance personnel
B)measuring maintenance effectiveness
C)controlling maintenance requests
D)all of the above
Q6) ________ refers to changes made to a system to evolve its functionality to changing business needs or technologies.
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Q1) A ________ is a depiction of a system's behavior or functionality under various conditions as the system responds to requests from users.
Q2) There are 4 different levels of detail.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Preconditions are things that must be true before a use case can:
A)end
B)be written
C)start
D)be shown to the user
Q4) The Process boundary is represented as a box that includes all of the relevant use cases.
A)True B)False
Q5) Postconditions are things that must be true before a use case can start. A)True B)False
Q6) An extension initiates a use case. A)True B)False Page 17
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Q1) A(n)________ clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
Q2) An activity diagram cannot be used to show the logic of a use case.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In an activity diagram,the fast lane represents the organizational unit responsible for a certain action.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss when it is appropriate to use activity diagrams in a project.
Q5) A(n)________ shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
Q6) An activity diagram shows the conditional logic for the sequence of system activities needed to accomplish a business process.
A)True B)False
Q7) An activity diagram clearly shows parallel and alternative behaviors.
A)True B)False
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Q1) A simple message is a message in which the sender does not have to wait for the recipient to handle the message.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A ________ depicts the interactions among objects during a certain period of time.
Q3) ________ is a type of interaction diagrams.
Q4) An object is ________ at the point marked by X.
Q5) Sequence is a type of interaction diagrams.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Sequence diagrams can be presented in:
A)instance or generic form
B)logical or physical form
C)sequential or nonsequential form
D)specific or nonspecific form
Q7) What is meant by activation? How is it shown on a sequence diagram?
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Q8) In UML,a ________ represents dynamic models of interactions between objects.
Q9) Define sequence diagram.
Q10) Briefly define a type of interaction diagrams.
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Q1) Gateways are typically ________.
Q2) A flow shows the ________ of action in a process.
Q3) In business process modeling,a trigger that initiates the start of a project is called an
Q4) In business process modeling,a gateway is a decision point.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Business process modeling is much more ________ than data flow diagram notation.
Q6) In business process modeling,a way to encapsulate a process is called a(n):
A)swimlane
B)fastlane
C)lane
D)none of the above
Q7) In business process modeling,a decision point is called a(n):
A)activity
B)gateway
C)terminal
D)loop

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Q8) In business process modeling,an action that must take place for a process to be completed is called an ________.
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Q1) Multiplicity indicates how many objects participate in a given relationship.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An aggregation expresses a Part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________ is an indication of how many objects participate in a given relationship.
Q4) Which of the following encompasses an object's properties and the values those properties have?
A)behavior
B)class
C)state
D)encapsulation
Q5) An ________ is a class that has no direct instances,but whose descendants may have direct instances.
Q6) An ________ is a relationship between object classes.
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Q7) ________ is a part-of relationship between a component object and an aggregate object.