AP Biology Exam Review
Course Introduction
AP Biology is a college-level course designed to provide students with a deep understanding of fundamental biological concepts. The curriculum covers a range of topics including molecular biology, cellular processes, genetics, evolution, ecology, and organismal biology. Students engage in inquiry-based labs and data analysis to develop scientific reasoning and critical thinking skills. Emphasis is placed on applying biological principles to real-world problems and understanding the interconnectedness of life, preparing students for further study in the life sciences and success on the AP Biology exam.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Biology 11th Edition by Urry
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56 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry
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Sample Questions
Q1) When your body temperature rises on a hot day, the neural and hormonal mechanisms activate sweating. Evaporation of sweat leads to cooling of the body surface. This is an example of ________.
A) positive feedback regulation
B) negative feedback regulation
C) chemical cycling
D) emergent properties
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following best describes a model organism?
A) It is often pictured in textbooks and is easy for students to imagine.
B) It is well studied, it is easy to grow, and results are widely applicable.
C) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time.
D) It has been chosen for study by early biologists.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Context of Life
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Q1) How many electrons are present in a Phosphorus 3+ atom?
A) 16
B) 12
C) 19
D) 34
Answer: B
Q2) When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of bond results?
A) an ionic bond
B) a hydrogen bond
C) a nonpolar covalent bond
D) a polar covalent bond
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Water and Life
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Q1) Which of the following is considered to be a strong base (alkali)?
A) HCl H + Cl
B) NH + H NH
C) H CO HCO - + H
D) NaOH Na + OH
Answer: D
Q2) A solution with a pH of 2 has how many more protons in it than a solution with a pH of 4?
A) 5 times more
B) 10 times more
C) 100 times more
D) 1000 times more
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life
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Q1) A carbon atom has 6 electrons however, its valency is 4. This is because the carbon atom ________.
A) donates its 2 electrons to another atom
B) shares its 2 electrons and bonds with another atom
C) has 4 electrons in its first shell and 2 in the second shell
D) has only 2 electrons in its first shell and 4 in the second shell
Q2) Testosterone and estradiol are male and female sex hormones, respectively, in many vertebrates. In what way(s) do these molecules differ from each other? Testosterone and estradiol ________.
A) are structural isomers but have the same molecular formula
B) are cis-trans isomers but have the same molecular formula
C) have different functional groups attached to the same carbon skeleton D) are enantiomers of the same organic molecule
Q3) In an ethane (C H ) molecule, each carbon atom is bonded to ________ hydrogen atoms.
A) two
B) three
C) four
D) six
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Structure and Function of Large Biological
Molecules
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Q1) Starch and cellulose ________.
A) are polymers of glucose
B) are cis and trans isomers of each other
C) are used for energy storage in plants and animals
D) are structural components of the plant cell wall
Q2) Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because ________.
A) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the -glycosidic linkages of starch but not the -glycosidic linkages of cellulose
B) starch monomers are joined by covalent bonds, and cellulose monomers are joined by ionic bonds
C) the monomer of starch is glucose, while the monomer of cellulose is galactose
D) Starch is softer than cellulose
Q3) What is the major structural difference between starch and glycogen?
A) the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules
B) the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
C) whether glucose is in the or form
D) the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
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Page 7
Chapter 6: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Which structure below is independent of the endomembrane system?
A) nuclear envelope
B) chloroplast
C) Golgi apparatus
D) plasma membrane
Q2) The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved ________.
A) endosymbiosis of an oxygen-using bacterium in a larger bacterial host cell-the endosymbiont evolved into chloroplasts
B) endosymbiosis of a photosynthetic archaeal cell in a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen-the anaerobic archaea evolved into chloroplasts
C) endosymbiosis of an oxygen-using bacterium in a larger bacterial host cell-the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria
D) evolution of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
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Chapter 7: Membrane Structure and Function
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Q1) The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that
A) pinocytosis brings only water molecules into the cell, but receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well
B) pinocytosis increases the surface area of the plasma membrane, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis decreases the plasma membrane surface area
C) pinocytosis is nonselective in the molecules it brings into the cell, whereas receptor-mediated endocytosis offers more selectivity
D) pinocytosis can concentrate substances from the extracellular fluid, but receptor-mediated endocytosis cannot
Q2) Which of the following molecules dramatically increases the rate of diffusion of water across cell membranes?
A) the sodium-potassium pump
B) aquaporins
C) gated ion channels
D) ATP
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9
Chapter 8: An Introduction to Metabolism
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Q1) During a laboratory experiment, you discover that an enzyme-catalyzed reaction has a G of -20 kcal/mol. If you double the amount of enzyme in the reaction, what will be the G for the new reaction?
A) -40 kcal/mol
B) -20 kcal/mol
C) -10 kcal/mol
D) +20 kcal/mol
Q2) What is the name of the thermodynamic barrier that must be overcome before products are formed in a spontaneous reaction?
A) entropy
B) activation energy
C) the equilibrium point
D) free energy
Q3) Why do hydrolysis reactions occur more readily in solution than dehydration reactions?
A) Hydrolysis reactions increase G, or Gibbs free energy of the system.
B) Hydrolysis reactions are endergonic and increase entropy of the system.
C) Hydrolysis reactions are exergonic and decrease entropy of the system.
D) Hydrolysis reactions are exergonic and increase entropy of the system.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Cellular Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Which electron carrier(s) function in the citric acid cycle?
A) NAD only
B) NADH and FADH
C) the electron transport chain
D) ADP and ATP
Q2) Which kind of metabolic poison would most directly interfere with glycolysis?
A) an agent that reacts with oxygen and depletes its concentration in the cell
B) an agent that binds to pyruvate and inactivates it
C) an agent that closely mimics the structure of glucose but is not metabolized
D) an agent that reacts with NADH and oxidizes it to NAD
Q3) When a molecule of NAD (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) gains a hydrogen atom (not a proton), the molecule becomes ________.
A) dehydrogenated
B) oxidized
C) reduced
D) redoxed
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11
Chapter 10: Photosynthesis
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Q1) What happens to the free energy released as electrons are passed from photosystem II to photosystem I through a series of electron carriers?
A) It excites electrons of the reaction center in photosystem I.
B) It is used to establish and maintain a proton gradient.
C) It is used to synthesize ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation.
D) It is used to phosphorylate NAD to NADPH.
Q2) Compared to C plants, C plants ________.
A) can continue to fix CO even at lower CO concentrations and higher oxygen concentrations
B) have higher rates of photorespiration
C) do not use rubisco for carbon fixation
D) make a four-carbon compound, oxaloacetate, which is then delivered to the citric acid cycle in mitochondria
Q3) Carbon dioxide is split to form oxygen gas and carbon compounds in which of the following metabolic pathways?
A) only photosynthesis
B) only respiration
C) photosynthesis and respiration
D) neither photosynthesis nor respiration
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Cell Communication
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Q1) Which of the following provides the best evidence that cell-signaling pathways evolved early in the history of life?
A) Cell-signaling pathways are seen in "primitive" cells such as bacteria and yeast.
B) Bacteria and yeast cells signal each other in a process called quorum sensing.
C) Signal transduction molecules identified in distantly related organisms are similar.
D) Most signals in all types of cells are received by cell surface receptors.
Q2) Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for why an animal cell would be unable to reduce the Ca² concentration in its cytosol compared with the extracellular fluid?
A) inactivation of calcium-gated ion channels in the cell membrane
B) excessive transport of calcium from the cytosol into the endoplasmic reticulum
C) insufficient ATP levels in the cytosol
D) insufficient levels of protein kinase in the cell
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Chapter 12: The Cell Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following molecules is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex?
A) PDGF
B) MPF
C) cyclin
D) Cdk
Q2) G is associated with which of the following cellular events?
A) normal growth and cell function
B) DNA replication
C) the beginning of mitosis
D) break down of the nuclear membrane
Q3) Cell A has half as much DNA as cells B, C, and D in a mitotically active tissue. Cell A is most likely in
A) G .
B) G .
C) prophase.
D) metaphase.
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Chapter 13: Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles
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Q1) At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) interphase
Q2) A female with a paternal set of one orange and one long gene chromosome and a maternal set comprised of one blue and one short gene chromosome would be expected to produce which of the following types of eggs after meiosis?
A) All eggs will have maternal types of gene combinations.
B) All eggs will have paternal types of gene combinations.
C) Half the eggs will have maternal and half will have paternal combinations.
D) Each egg has a one-fourth chance of having either blue long, blue short, orange long, or orange short combinations.
Q3) Which of the following processes occur during meiosis but not mitosis?
A) Haploid cells fuse to form diploid cells.
B) Haploid cells multiply into more haploid cells.
C) Diploid cells form haploid cells.
D) A diploid cell combines with a haploid cell.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Mendel and the Gene Idea
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Q1) In some parts of Africa, the frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this reduces the frequency of malaria. Such a relationship is related to which of the following?
A) Mendel's law of independent assortment
B) Mendel's law of segregation
C) Darwin's explanation of natural selection
D) the malarial parasite changing the allele
Q2) Skin color in a certain species of fish is inherited via a single gene with four different alleles. One fish of this type has alleles 1 and 3 (S S ), and its mate has alleles 2 and 4 (S S ). If each allele confers a unit of color darkness such that S has one unit, S has two units, and so on, then what proportion of their offspring would be expected to have five units of color?
A) 1/4
B) 1/8
C) 1/2
D) 0
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Chapter 15: The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) When Thomas Hunt Morgan crossed his red-eyed F generation flies to each other, the F generation included both red- and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What was the explanation for this result?
A) The gene involved is located on the Y chromosome.
B) The gene involved is located on the X chromosome.
C) The gene involved is located on an autosome, but only in males.
D) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly describes the reason that closely linked genes are typically inherited together?
A) They are located close together on the same chromosome.
B) The number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C) Alleles are paired together during meiosis.
D) Genes align that way during metaphase I of meiosis.
Q3) What does a recombination frequency of 50% indicate?
A) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.
B) All of the offspring have combinations of traits that match one of the two parents.
C) The genes are located on sex chromosomes.
D) Abnormal meiosis has occurred.
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17
Chapter 16: The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
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Q1) Why does a new DNA strand elongate only in the 5' to 3' direction during DNA replication?
A) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the 5' end of the template.
B) The polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the 3' end.
C) Replication must progress toward the replication fork.
D) DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free 3' end.
Q2) In his transformation experiments, what phenomenon did Griffith observe?
A) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
B) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.
C) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains.
D) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.
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18
Chapter 17: Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) Which of the following processes occurs in eukaryotic gene expression?
A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are translated.
B) RNA polymerase binds to the terminator sequence.
C) A cap is added to the 5 end of the mRNA.
D) RNA polymerase requires tRNA to elongate the molecule.
Q2) A single base substitution mutation is likely to have a less deleterious effect when the base change exhibits which of the following results?
A) a stop codon
B) a codon that specifies the same amino acid as the original codon
C) an amino acid substitution that alters the tertiary structure of the protein
D) an amino acid substitution at the active site of an enzyme
Q3) Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following molecules in addition to RNA polymerase?
A) anticodons
B) ribosomes and tRNA
C) several transcription factors
D) aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
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Chapter 18: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Suppose an experimenter becomes proficient with a technique that allows her to move DNA sequences within a prokaryotic genome. If a researcher moves the repressor gene (lacI), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, which of the following results would be expected?
A) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator.
B) The repressor will no longer bind to the inducer.
C) The lac operon will be expressed continuously.
D) The lac operon will function normally.
Q2) For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following conditions must occur?
A) A corepressor must be present.
B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present.
C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
D) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
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Chapter 19: Viruses
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Q1) HIV is inactivated in the laboratory after a few minutes of sitting at room temperature, but the flu virus is still active after sitting for several hours. What are the practical consequences of these findings?
A) HIV can be transmitted more easily from person to person than the flu virus.
B) The flu virus can be transmitted more easily from person to person than HIV.
C) This property of HIV makes it more likely to be a pandemic than the flu virus.
D) Disinfecting surfaces is more important to reduce the spread of HIV than the flu.
Q2) A population of viruses with similar characteristics is called a ________.
A) class
B) species
C) type
D) genome
Q3) Which of the following characteristics, structures, or processes is common to both bacteria and viruses?
A) metabolism
B) ribosomes
C) genetic material composed of nucleic acid
D) cell division
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21
Chapter 20: DNA Tools and Biotechnology
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Q1) A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following findings is likely from this comparison?
A) The cells from the two sources exhibit different patterns of DNA methylation.
B) Adult stem cells have more DNA nucleotides than their counterparts.
C) The two kinds of cells have virtually identical gene expression patterns in microarrays.
D) The non-stem cells have fewer repressed genes.
Q2) Which of the following characteristics of Taq polymerase make it useful in the PCR process?
A) It is heat stable and can withstand the heating step of PCR.
B) Only minute amounts are needed for each cycle of PCR.
C) It binds more readily than other polymerases to the primers.
D) It has regions that are complementary to the primers.
Q3) Which of the following enzymes is required to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?
A) restriction enzymes (endonucleases)
B) helicase
C) DNA ligase
D) reverse transcriptase
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Chapter 21: Genomes and Their Evolution
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Q1) When gene duplication occurs to its ultimate extent by doubling all genes in a genome, which of the following results has occurred?
A) pseudogene creation
B) creation of a gene cluster
C) creation of a polyploid
D) creation of a diploid
Q2) Which of the following statements is a correct representation of gene density?
A) Humans have 1,000 Mb per genome.
B) C. elegans has ~20,000 genes.
C) Humans have ~20,000 protein-encoding genes in a 3,000 Mb.
D) Saccharomyces has a genome 40 times the size of a human genome.
Q3) Which of the following conclusions has led to the comparison between the number of human genes and those of other animal species?
A) The density of the human genome is far higher than in most other animals.
B) The number of proteins expressed by the human genome is far greater than the number of its genes.
C) Most human DNA consists of genes for protein, tRNA, rRNA, and miRNA.
D) The genomes of most other organisms are significantly smaller than the human genome.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life
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Q1) Fossils of Thrinaxodon, a species that lived during the Triassic period, have been found in both South Africa and Antarctica. Thrinaxodon had a reptile-like skeleton and laid eggs, but small depressions on the front of its skull suggest it had whiskers and, therefore, fur. Thrinaxodon may have been warm-blooded. The fossils of Thrinaxodon are consistent with the hypothesis that ________.
A) fossils found in a given area look like the modern species in that same area
B) the environment where it lived was very warm
C) mammals evolved from a reptilian ancestor
D) Antarctica and South Africa separated after Thrinaxodon went extinct
Q2) How many distinct species, both living and extinct, are depicted in this tree?
A) five
B) six
C) nine
D) eleven
Q3) Which species is most closely related to species W?
A) V is most closely related to species W.
B) X is most closely related to species W.
C) Y and Z are equally closely related to W.
D) It is not possible to say from this tree.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Evolution of Populations
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Q1) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s. They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies, at many loci, from all other populations including those in their original homeland. Which of the following mechanisms likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?
A) population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B) heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection
C) mutation and natural selection
D) founder effect and genetic drift
Q2) Which Hardy-Weinberg condition is affected by population size?
A) selection
B) genetic drift
C) gene flow
D) no mutation
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25
Chapter 24: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have overlapping ranges. Pollen grains (which contain sperm cells) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes on female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species. These two juniper species are kept separate by
A) habitat isolation
B) temporal isolation
C) gametic isolation
D) behavioral isolation
Q2) According to the punctuated equilibria model,
A) given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new species. B) most new species accumulate their unique features relatively rapidly as they come into existence, then change little for the rest of their duration as a species. C) most evolution occurs in sympatric populations. D) speciation is usually due to a single mutation.
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Chapter 25: The History of Life on Earth
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Q1) Bagworm moth caterpillars feed on evergreens and carry a silken case or bag around with them in which they eventually pupate. Adult female bagworm moths are larval in appearance; they lack the wings and other structures of the adult male and instead retain the appearance of a caterpillar even though they are sexually mature and can lay eggs within the bag. This is a good example of ________.
A) allometric growth
B) paedomorphosis
C) sympatric speciation
D) adaptive radiation
Q2) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to form a fossil?
A) a rare worm
B) a common worm
C) a rare squirrel
D) a common squirrel
Q3) If one organ is an exaptation of another organ, then these two organs ________.
A) are homologous
B) are undergoing convergent evolution
C) are found in the same species
D) have the same function
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Phylogeny and the Tree of Life
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Q1) If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms C, D, and E belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?
A) A and D
B) B and D
C) B and C
D) D and E
Q2) Carolus Linnaeus believed that species remained fixed in the form in which they had been created. Linnaeus would have been uncomfortable with ________.
A) a hierarchical classification scheme
B) taxonomy
C) phylogenies
D) nested, increasingly inclusive categories of organisms
Q3) In a comparison of birds and mammals, the condition of having four limbs is
A) a shared ancestral character.
B) a shared derived character.
C) a character useful for distinguishing birds from mammals.
D) an example of analogy rather than homology.
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Bacteria and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following observations about flagella is accurate and is consistent with the scientific conclusion that the flagella from eukaryotes and bacteria evolved independently?
A) The flagella of both eukaryotes and bacteria are made of the same protein, but the configuration is different.
B) The mechanics of movement and protein structure are the same in these flagella, but there are significant genetic differences.
C) Although the mechanism of movement in both flagella is the same, the protein that accomplishes the movement is different.
D) The protein structure and the mechanism of movement in eukaryotes flagella are different from those of bacteria flagella.
Q2) Genetic variation in bacterial populations cannot result from A) transduction.
B) conjugation.
C) mutation.
D) meiosis.
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Chapter 28: Protists
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Q1) Which group is incorrectly paired with its description?
A) diatoms-important producers in aquatic communities
B) red algae-eukaryotes that acquired plastids by secondary endosymbiosis
C) apicomplexans-unicellular parasites with intricate life cycles
D) diplomonads-unicellular eukaryotes with modified mitochondria
Q2) Predict the most likely outcome of fertilizing areas of ocean with iron.
A) an increase in dinoflagellate populations that will eliminate problems caused by red tides
B) an increase in foram populations that will contribute to growth of corals and their symbionts
C) an increase in diatom populations that will contribute to reducing atmospheric CO
D) a decrease in slime mold populations and thus a decrease in decomposition rates
Q3) Green algae differ from land plants in that many green algae ________.
A) are unicellular
B) have plastids
C) have alternation of generations
D) have cell walls containing cellulose
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Chapter 29: Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land
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Q1) Use the following information to answer the question. Big Bend National Park in Texas is mostly Chihuahuan desert, where rainfall averages about 25 centimeters per year. Yet, it is not uncommon when hiking in this extremely arid zone to encounter mosses and ferns. One such plant is called "flower of stone." It is not a flowering plant, nor does it produce seeds. Under arid conditions, its leaflike structures curl up. However, when it rains, it unfurls its leaves, which form a bright green rosette on the desert floor. Consequently, it is sometimes called the "resurrection plant." At first glance, it could be a fern, a true moss, or a spike moss.
In which combination of locations would one who is searching for the gametophytes of "flower of stone" have the best chance of finding them?
A) in moist soil
B) in moist soil and underground, nourished there by symbiotic fungi
C) in shady, moist places and underground, nourished there by symbiotic fungi
D) in shady, moist places, far from any "flower of stone" sporophytes
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Chapter 30: Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants
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Q1) In onions (Allium), cells of the sporophyte have 16 chromosomes within each nucleus. Match the number of chromosomes present in each of the following onion tissues. How many chromosomes should be in an endosperm nucleus?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 24
D) 32
Q2) Within a gymnosperm megasporangium, which of the following developmental sequences is correct, assuming fertilization occurs?
A) megaspore, female gametophyte, egg cell, sporophyte embryo
B) megaspore, sporophyte embryo, female gametophyte, egg cell
C) sporophyte embryo, megaspore, egg cell, female gametophyte
D) sporophyte embryo, megaspore, female gametophyte, egg cell
Q3) Key features of seed plants facilitating life on land include three of the following four traits. Select the exception.
A) homospory
B) pollen
C) reduced gametophytes
D) seeds
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Chapter 31: Fungi
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics would be most helpful in distinguishing among different species of fungi?
A) morphology
B) hyphae structure
C) DNA sequence
D) life cycle
Q2) Chitin is a long-chain polymer derived from glucose. It strengthens cell walls of fungi and the outer covering (exoskeleton) of arthropods (including crabs, shrimps, and insects). The presence of chitin in these groups is likely due to ________.
A) secondary endoparasitism
B) horizontal gene transfer
C) paraphyletic evolution
D) convergent evolution
Q3) Deuteromycetes ________.
A) represent the phylum in which all the fungal components of lichens are classified
B) are the group of fungi that have, at present, no known sexual stage
C) are the group that includes molds, yeasts, and lichens
D) include the imperfect fungi that lack hyphae
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Chapter 32: An Overview of Animal Diversity
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Q1) The larvae of some insects are merely small versions of the adult, whereas the larvae of other insects look completely different from adults, eat different foods, and may live in different habitats. Which of the following is most directly involved in the evolution of these variations in metamorphosis?
A) artificial selection of sexually immature forms of insects
B) changes in the homeobox genes controlling early development
C) the evolution of meiosis
D) the origin of a brain
Q2) The fact that choanoflagellates and collar cells of sponges resemble each other supports the inference that ________.
A) choanoflagellates are animals
B) choanoflagellates are more closely related to sponges than they are to protists
C) choanoflagellates and sponges are sister groups
D) choanoflagellates and sponges evolved similar cell structures through convergent evolution
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Chapter 33: An Introduction to Invertebrates
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Q1) The increase in plant species diversity allowed which of the following events?
A) the evolution of complete metamorphosis in insects
B) the evolution of flight in insects
C) invasion of marine habitats by insects
D) a massive increase in species diversity of insects
Q2) Compared to insects with incomplete metamorphosis, insects with complete metamorphosis ________.
A) grow more slowly in size
B) use a greater variety of food resources
C) have slower population growth rates
D) have better abilities to escape from predators
Q3) Toilets are a modern convenience that people often take for granted. In fact, they are helpful in preventing spread of disease because ________.
A) disease-causing insects die quickly in fecal-contaminated water
B) toilets disinfect human feces
C) many diseases are transmitted by flying insects
D) many parasites release fertilized eggs in the feces of humans and other animals
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Chapter 34: The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates
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Q1) Use the following information to answer the question. Due to its system of air sacs connected to the lungs, the respiratory system of birds is arguably the most effective respiratory system of all air-breathers. Upon inhalation, air first flows into posterior air sacs, then into the lungs, and then into anterior air sacs on the way to being exhaled. Thus, there is one-way flow of air through the lungs, along thousands of tubules called parabronchi.
The one-way flow of air along parabronchi makes what type of gas exchange mechanism possible, at least theoretically?
A) the same as that occurring in fish gills
B) the same as that occurring in insect tracheae
C) the same as that occurring in mammalian lungs
D) the same as that occurring in echinoderm skin gills
Q2) Which of the following statements about human evolution is correct?
A) Modern humans are the only human species to have evolved on Earth.
B) Human ancestors were virtually identical to extant chimpanzees.
C) Human evolution has occurred within an unbranched lineage.
D) The upright posture and enlarged brain of humans evolved separately.
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Chapter 35: Vascular Plant Structure, Growth, and Development
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Q1) The veins of leaves are ________.
I.composed of xylem and phloem
II.continuous, with vascular bundles in the stem and roots
III.finely branched to be in close contact with photosynthesizing cells
A) only I
B) only II
C) only III
D) I, II, and III
Q2) Which of the following arise(s), directly or indirectly, from meristematic activity?
A) secondary xylem
B) leaves
C) dermal tissue
D) all of the above
Q3) Cells produced by lateral meristems are known as ________.
A) dermal and ground tissue
B) lateral tissues
C) pith
D) secondary tissues
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Chapter 36: Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants
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Q1) Plants do not have a circulatory system like that of some animals. If a water molecule in a plant did "circulate" (that is, go from one point in a plant to another and back in the same day), it would require the activity of ________.
A) only the xylem
B) only the phloem
C) only the endodermis
D) both the xylem and the phloem
Q2) Phloem sap can flow ________.
A) from leaves to shoots only
B) from shoots to leaves only
C) from sites of sugar production to storage units only
D) both ways between production and storage sites
Q3) In the pressure-flow mechanism, loading of sucrose from companion cells to sieve-tube elements takes place through ________.
A) plasmodesmata
B) facilitated diffusion
C) sucrose-H symporters
D) sucrose-H antiporters
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Chapter 37: Soil and Plant Nutrition
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Q1) Soil leaching can cause nutrient deficiencies in the soil. Which of the following are symptoms of nutrient deficiency in plants?
I.chlorosis
II.death of meristems
III.excess storage of chlorophyll
IV.small internodes
A) I, II, and III
B) II, III, and IV
C) I, II, and IV
D) I, II, III, and IV
Q2) The specific relationship between a legume and its mutualistic Rhizobium strain probably depends on ________.
A) each legume having a chemical dialogue with a fungus
B) each Rhizobium strain having a form of nitrogenase that works only in the appropriate legume host
C) each legume being found where the soil has only the Rhizobium specific to that legume
D) specific recognition between the chemical signals and signal receptors of the Rhizobium strain and legume species
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Chapter 38: Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about asexual reproduction in plants?
A) Clones of plants do not occur naturally.
B) Cloning, although achieved in animals, has not been demonstrated in plants.
C) Making cuttings of ornamental plants is a form of fragmentation.
D) Reproduction of plants by cloning may be either sexual or asexual.
Q2) "Golden Rice" ________.
A) is resistant to various herbicides, making it practical to weed rice fields with those herbicides
B) includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin that reduces damage from insect pests
C) produces larger, golden grains that increase crop yields
D) contains daffodil genes that increase vitamin A content
Q3) Which of the following is an effective method to produce plants exhibiting hybrid vigor?
A) self-pollination
B) cloning
C) tissue culture
D) genetic engineering
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Chapter 39: Plant Responses to Internal and External
Signals
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Q1) A plant mutant that shows normal gravitropic bending but does not store starch in its plastids would require a reevaluation of the role of ________ in gravitropism.
A) auxin
B) calcium
C) statoliths
D) differential growth
Q2) Experiments on the positive phototropic response of plants indicate that ________.
A) light destroys auxin
B) auxin moves down the plant apoplastically
C) auxin is synthesized in the area where the stem bends
D) auxin can move to the shady side of the stem
Q3) Plants often use changes in day length (photoperiod) to trigger events such as dormancy and flowering. It is logical that plants have evolved this mechanism because photoperiod changes ________.
A) are more predictable than air temperature changes
B) predict moisture availability
C) are modified by soil temperature changes
D) can reset the biological clock
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Chapter 40: Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function
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Q1) An animal's inputs of energy and materials would exceed its outputs
A) if the animal is an endotherm, which must always take in more energy because of its high metabolic rate.
B) if it is actively foraging for food.
C) if it is growing and increasing its mass.
D) never; due to homeostasis, these energy and material budgets always balance.
Q2) The temperature-regulating center of vertebrate animals is located in the ________.
A) thyroid gland
B) hypothalamus
C) subcutaneous layer of the skin
D) liver
Q3) Which of the following would increase the rate of heat exchange between an animal and its environment?
A) feathers or fur
B) vasoconstriction
C) wind blowing across the body surface
D) blubber or fat layer
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Chapter 41: Animal Nutrition
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Q1) Folic acid supplements have become especially important for pregnant women because ________.
A) folic acid supplies vitamins that only pregnant women can use
B) the fetus makes high levels of folic acid
C) folic acid deprivation is associated with neural tube defects in a fetus
D) folic acid deprivation is a cause of heart abnormalities in a newborn
Q2) Which of the following is a difference between vitamins and minerals?
A) Vitamins are involved in regulating enzyme activity, but minerals are not.
B) Vitamins are organic molecules, but minerals are inorganic molecules.
C) Minerals are obtained by an animal through dietary sources, but vitamins are made by the animal.
D) Vitamins and minerals are only obtained by digesting plants.
Q3) If there is a strong genetic link for type II diabetes mellitus in your family, how might you minimize your risk of developing the disorder?
A) monitor your blood glucose levels daily
B) take oral insulin daily
C) maintain a healthy weight, eat a balanced diet, and exercise
D) eat complex carbohydrates like starch instead of sweets
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Chapter 42: Circulation and Gas Exchange
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Q1) Countercurrent exchange in the fish gill helps to maximize ________.
A) blood pressure
B) diffusion
C) active transport
D) osmosis
Q2) Blood cells that function to fight infection are called ________.
A) platelets
B) leukocytes
C) erythrocytes
D) thrombi
Q3) Which of the following conditions would most likely be due to high blood pressure in a mammal?
A) bursting of blood vessels in capillary beds
B) inability of the right ventricle to contract
C) reversal of normal blood flow direction in arteries
D) destruction of red blood cells
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Chapter 43: The Immune System
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Q1) The complement system is ________.
A) a set of proteins involved in innate but not acquired immunity
B) a group of proteins that includes interferons and interleukins
C) a group of proteins that act together in a cascade fashion
D) a set of proteins that act individually to attack and lyse microbes
Q2) Bacteria entering the body through a small cut in the skin ________.
A) inactivate the erythrocytes
B) stimulate apoptosis of nearby body cells
C) stimulate release of interferons
D) activate a group of proteins called complement
Q3) A nonfunctional CD4 protein on a helper T cell would result in the helper T cell being unable to ________.
A) respond to circulating viral antigens
B) lyse tumor cells
C) stimulate a cytotoxic T cell
D) interact with a class II MHC-antigen complex
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Chapter 44: Osmoregulation and Excretion
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Q1) Birds secrete uric acid as their nitrogenous waste because uric acid ________.
A) is readily soluble in water
B) is metabolically less expensive to synthesize than other excretory products
C) requires little water for nitrogenous waste disposal, thus reducing body mass
D) can be reused by birds as a protein source
Q2) The body fluids of an osmoconformer would be ________ with its ________ environment
A) hyperosmotic; freshwater
B) hyperosmotic; seawater
C) isoosmotic; seawater
D) hypoosmotic; seawater
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of juxtamedullary nephrons?
A) large Bowman's capsule
B) absence of proximal tubule
C) limited branching of vasa recta
D) long loop of Henle
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Chapter 45: Hormones and the Endocrine System
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Q1) Aspirin and ibuprofen both ________.
A) inhibit the synthesis of prostaglandins
B) inhibit the release of nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator
C) activate the paracrine signaling pathways that form blood clots
D) stimulate vasoconstriction in the kidneys
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely explanation for hypothyroidism in a patient whose iodine level is normal?
A) greater production of T than of T
B) hyposecretion of TSH
C) hypersecretion of MSH
D) a decrease in the thyroid secretion of calcitonin
Q3) Growth factors are local regulators that ________.
A) are modified fatty acids that stimulate bone and cartilage growth
B) are found on the surface of cancer cells and stimulate abnormal cell division
C) bind to cell-surface receptors and stimulate growth and development of target cells
D) convey messages between nerve cells
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Chapter 46: Animal Reproduction
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Q1) Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows ________.
A) all types of asexual reproduction
B) fission
C) fragmentation
D) parthenogenesis
Q2) Which of the following organisms reproduces by fission?
A) lamprey
B) bluefin tuna
C) whiptail lizards
D) stony corals
Q3) Peaks of LH and FSH production occur during
A) the menstrual flow phase of the uterine cycle.
B) the beginning of the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle.
C) the period just before ovulation.
D) the secretory phase of the uterine cycle.
Q4) Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that they ________.
A) both have the same number of chromosomes
B) are approximately the same size
C) each have a flagellum that provides motility
D) are produced from puberty until death
48
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Chapter 47: Animal Development
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Q1) In all vertebrate animals, development requires ________.
A) a large supply of yolk
B) an aqueous environment
C) extraembryonic membranes
D) a primitive streak
Q2) Which of the following correctly matches the extraembryonic membrane with its function?
A) amnion-waste disposal
B) chorion-nutrient storage
C) allantois-waste storage
D) yolk sac-gas exchange
Q3) What structural adaptation in chickens allows them to lay their eggs in arid environments rather than in water?
A) extraembryonic membranes
B) yolk
C) cleavage
D) gastrulation
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Chapter 48: Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling
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Q1) Suppose a particular neurotransmitter causes an IPSP in postsynaptic cell X and an EPSP in postsynaptic cell Y. A likely explanation is that
A) the threshold value in the postsynaptic membrane is different for cell X and cell Y.
B) the axon of cell X is myelinated, but that of cell Y is not.
C) only cell Y produces an enzyme that terminates the activity of the neurotransmitter.
D) cells X and Y express different receptor molecules for this particular neurotransmitter.
Q2) If excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) are produced nearly simultaneously through two different synapses on the same postsynaptic neuron, the EPSPs can also add together creating ________.
A) a temporal summation
B) a spatial summation
C) a tetanus
D) the refractory state
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Chapter 49: Nervous Systems
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Q1) The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal ________.
A) divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon
B) develops from the midbrain
C) is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates
D) gives rise to the cerebrum
Q2) The central nervous system is lacking in animals that have ________.
A) a complete gut
B) bilateral symmetry
C) radial symmetry
D) a closed circulatory system
Q3) After suffering a stroke, a patient can see objects anywhere in front of him, but pays attention only to objects in his right field of vision. When asked to describe these objects, he has difficulty judging their size and distance. What part of the brain was likely damaged by the stroke?
A) the left frontal lobe
B) the right frontal lobe
C) the left parietal lobe
D) the right parietal lobe
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Chapter 50: Sensory and Motor Mechanisms
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Q1) A given photon of light may trigger an action potential with thousands of times more energy because the signal strength is amplified by ________.
A) the receptor
B) ion channels
C) a signal transduction pathway
D) triggering several receptors at once
Q2) The conversion of a stimulus into an action potential by a receptor cell is called
A) integration
B) transmission
C) transduction
D) amplification
Q3) The 11 pairs of appendages projecting from the rostral area of star-nosed moles are ________.
A) chemosensory structures
B) tactile structures
C) olfactory structures
D) gustatory structures
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Chapter 51: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Feeding behavior with a high-energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called
A) autotrophy
B) heterotrophy
C) search scavenging
D) optimal foraging
Q2) Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating and egg laying, leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may be repeated several times with different males until no available males remain, forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of the following terms best describes this behavior?
A) monogamy
B) polygyny
C) polyandry
D) promiscuity
Q3) Which of the following is true of innate behaviors? Innate behaviors ________.
A) are only weakly influenced by genes
B) occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not mammals
C) are limited to invertebrate animals
D) are expressed in most individuals in a population
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Chapter 52: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) If you are interested in observing a relatively simple community structure in a clear water lake, you would do well to choose diving into ________.
A) an oligotrophic lake
B) a eutrophic lake
C) a relatively shallow lake
D) a nutrient-rich lake
Q2) As climate changes because of global warming, plant species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that ________.
A) have larger, more contiguous established populations to begin with B) produce well-provisioned seeds
C) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire
D) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree
Q3) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is caused by which of the following?
A) warm, less dense water layered at the top
B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C) a distinct thermocline between less dense, warm water and cold, dense water
D) the changes in the density of water as seasonal temperatures change
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Chapter 53: Population Ecology
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Q1) Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to
A) determine a population's carrying capacity.
B) determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population.
C) determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes.
D) determine the factors that affect the size of a population.
Q2) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?
A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories
B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams
C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree
D) lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen
Q3) Suppose researchers marked 800 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size?
A) 200
B) 1,050
C) 1,600
D) 2,100
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Chapter 54: Community Ecology
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Q1) Zoonotic disease ________.
A) is caused by suborganismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions only
B) is caused by pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by direct contact or by means of a vector
C) can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact
D) can only be transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host
Q2) According to the island equilibrium model, species richness would be greatest on an island that is
A) large and remote.
B) small and remote.
C) large and close to a mainland.
D) small and close to a mainland.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?
A) a butterfly that resembles a leaf
B) a nonvenomous larva of a moth that moves like a venomous snake
C) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment
D) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish
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Chapter 55: Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology
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Q1) To recycle nutrients, an ecosystem must have, at a minimum, ________.
A) producers
B) producers and decomposers
C) producers, primary consumers, and decomposers
D) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers
Q2) Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?
A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability
B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine
C) dredging a river bottom to remove contaminated sediments
D) adding fertilizer to soil poor in nutrients to increase plant growth
Q3) Which of the following organisms is correctly paired with its trophic level?
A) cyanobacterium-primary consumer
B) grasshopper-secondary consumer
C) phytoplankton-primary producer
D) fungus-primary consumer
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Chapter 56: Conservation Biology and Global Change
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Q1) The main purpose of movement corridors is to ________.
A) slow down the introduction of new individuals of a species
B) slowly introduce a species to a new reserve
C) create more edge habitat
D) connect two otherwise isolated populations
Q2) The main cause of the increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is ________.
A) increased worldwide primary production
B) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere
C) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels
D) additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population
Q3) Overharvesting encourages extinction and is most likely to affect ________.
A) animals that occupy a broad ecological niche
B) large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates
C) most organisms that live in the oceans' coral reefs
D) edge-adapted species
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