Animal Physiology Final
Exam
Course Introduction
Animal Physiology explores the fundamental mechanisms by which animals regulate their internal environments and interact with their external surroundings. The course covers cellular and systemic processes including nervous and endocrine control, circulation, respiration, digestion, excretion, movement, and reproduction. Emphasis is placed on the comparative study of physiological adaptations across different animal taxa, providing insight into how structure and function are shaped by evolutionary pressures. Laboratory activities and case studies complement theoretical knowledge, fostering a comprehensive understanding of the physiological principles underlying animal life.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 17th Edition by Cleveland P Hickman
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Q1) What is the goal of using the experimental method to investigate proximate causes in biology?
A)To disprove biological principles or theories
B)To test our understanding of a biological system
C)To better mankind by inventing something unique
D)To prove or disprove the existence of God
Answer: B
Q2) What was the major obstacle that Darwin's theory of natural selection faced when first proposed in 1859?
A)It lacked a valid theory of heredity
B)It was unable to explain adaptation
C)It could not explain the origins of new anatomical structures
D)It required unreasonably long periods of time to operate
Answer: A
Q3) A group within an experimental design that is subjected to all the conditions except the experimental variable is called the ______________.
Answer: control
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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Prokaryotic cells are represented by fossils that are dated back as far as _____ billion years ago.
A)1.5
B)2.8
C)3.8
D)4.8
Answer: C
Q2) A molecule of RNA that has enzymatic or catalytic properties is called a
A)deoxyribose
B)nucleotide
C)ribonucleic acid
D)ribozyme
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is a "structural" carbohydrate molecule?
A)Sucrose
B)Glycogen
C)Cellulose
D)Glucose
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Q1) Cyclin-dependent kinases and cyclins are most closely associated with A)maintaining interphase.
B)regulating the cell cycle. C)cytokinesis.
D)programmed cell death.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true about the Cell Theory?
A)It states that all organisms are composed of cells
B)It states that all cells come from preexisting cells
C)It states that small organisms can arise spontaneously
D)It is accepted today by biologists as applying to virtually all forms of life
Answer: C
Q3) The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane by A)facilitated transport.
B)active transport. C)cotransport.
D)endocytosis.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Q1) How specific are enzymes?
A)Many enzymes can "cross over" to catalyze reactions of different substrates in the same chemical family
B)There are 20 amino acids and therefore 20 enzymes that control all protein metabolic reactions
C)An enzyme catalyzes one reaction but it may produce one product one time,another product another time
D)An enzyme catalyzes one reaction and it produces a distinct product
Q2) Can virtually any organic compound be broken down (assuming it is non-toxic)?
Q3) Living organisms contain stored energy in the form of chemical compounds.When organisms die,what happens to this stored energy?
A)All molecules immediately degrade into basic elements
B)All chemicals immediately lose their high-energy bonds
C)Cells lose their organization over time and macromolecules break down because there is no longer an input of energy to maintain an organized state
D)Chemical compounds remain intact and ready to start up again unless digested by a consumer or decomposer
Q4) Outline a hypothetical scenario of the evolution of metabolism.
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Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Q1) What is the anticodon for GCG?
A)AUA
B)UAU
C)CGC
D)AGA
Q2) In the case of tall and dwarf pea plants,if a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype,
A)it can be either TT or Tt.
B)it can be either Tt or tt.
C)it can be only TT.
D)it can be only tt.
Q3) The first control in gene activity is _______ control.
A)translational
B)transcriptional
C)gene rearrangement
D)DNA modification
Q4) Males are said to be ___________ for traits carried on the X chromosome.
Q5) mRNA molecules attach themselves to a _______ for the production of proteins.
Q6) Aneuploidy is the addition or subtraction of a single _____________ to or from a diploid set.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Q1) Lamarck's theory explaining evolution is considered ______ because it ______.
A)variational;involves descent with selection among varieties
B)variational;explains the variations of fossils
C)transformational;claims individuals can change their characteristics to produce evolution
D)transformational;involves descent with selection among varieties
Q2) Neo-Darwinism
A)means the same thing as "modern Darwinism."
B)consists of Darwin's basic principles coupled with an understanding of genetics.
C)adds microevolution to macroevolution.
D)is based on new RNA molecular similarities.
E)brings together biogeography,embryology,systematics,genetics,etc.
Q3) Explain how the earth's rock strata record the irreversible changes we call organic evolution (discuss the processes of fossilization).
Q4) Which condition is NOT among the requirements of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A)No mutations
B)No net migration of alleles into or out of the population
C)Small population with genetic drift
D)No selection of one genotype over another
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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Q1) Detail the sequence of events that lead a human male embryo with a Y chromosome in its cells to differentiate into normal male anatomy.
Q2) The ______ of the sperm is lined with mitochondria and expends the energy to propel the sperm.
A)acrosome
B)head
C)tail
D)middle piece
E)none of the choices is correct
Q3) In mammals,the type of breeding cycle in which the female is receptive to the male only at restricted times of the year is the ________ cycle.
Q4) When an egg is formed without meiosis,merely a mitotic division,it is
A)ameiotic parthenogenesis.
B)meiotic parthenogenesis.
C)anti-parthenogenesis.
D)hermaphroditism.
E)bisexual reproduction.
Q5) Describe the stages of the menstrual cycle,including the hormonal control of the ovarian cycle.
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Q1) At which stage do we begin to see development of the mesoderm germ layer?
A)Gastrulation
B)Neurulation
C)Blastulation
D)Cleavage
Q2) In an amniotic egg,the amnion
A)serves as a repository for wastes produced by the developing embryo.
B)serves as a respiratory surface for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
C)is a fluid-filled sac that protects the embryo from shocks and adhesions.
D)develops into the chorio-allantoic membrane.
Q3) The nervous system of vertebrates develops from which germ layer?
A)Epiderm
B)Ectoderm
C)Endoderm
D)Mesoderm
E)Myoderm
Q4) If yolk is primarily food storage for the developing embryo,why is it so central to understanding cleavage?
Q5) Outline the significance of the amniotic egg.Discuss the various layers and their functions in embryogenesis.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Architectual Pattern of an Animal
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having a true coelom?
A)In some animals,sperm and eggs can be stored before they are released
B)The digestive system can be coiled and provide greater surface area
C)Muscle contractions against the fluid chambers are absorbed and have no effect
D)In some animals,fluids here can assist respiration and circulation,and accumulate
metabolic wastes
Q2) The type of body cavity that represents a persistent blastocoel is the _____________.
Q3) Which of the following cells has multiple nuclei?
A)Smooth muscle
B)Adipose tissue
C)Striated muscle
D)Bone
Q4) A ________ plane divides an animal into right and left halves.
Q5) The study of tissues is called ________________.
Q6) The eucoelomate bilateria are those animals that possess a true ___________ or body cavity lined with mesodermal peritoneum.
Q7) In animal anatomy,the term that designates the back side of an animal is
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Q1) According to the binomial system of nomenclature,the "aegypti" in Aedes aegypti refers to the _____.
A)species name
B)genus
C)family
D)specific epithet
Q2) Zoologists used to refer to animals as "simple" and "advanced." Now it is more scientifically accurate to use
A)"simple" and "complex," since it is the complexity that evolved.
B)"allopatric" and "sympatric," since the reproductive isolation of the species is most important.
C)"evolved" and "un-evolved," since everything ties together with evolution.
D)"ancestral" and "derived," since some early forms became very complex and some highly evolved forms are derived from them but lost complex characters and secondarily became more "simple".
Q3) If biology moved to a three domain system and attempted to incorporate the five-kingdom system,which kingdom in the current five-kingdom system would have to be split to become monophyletic,and why?
Q4) A derived character shared by members of a clade is a _______________.
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Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Q1) When a protozoan alternates between haploid and diploid generations,as occurs in most plants,it is called
A)zygotic meiosis.
B)gametic meiosis.
C)intermediary meiosis.
D)mitotic meiosis.
E)parthenogenesis.
Q2) Osmoregulation in some protozoa is carried out chiefly by a structure called a/an
Q3) Which is NOT a correct description of a member of a protozoan group?
A)Usually motile
B)Development involves an embryonic stage
C)Mostly microscopic
D)Usually unicellular;if multicellular,without somatic differentiation
E)All of the choices are correct
Q4) A sporozoan parasite of cats that can cause birth defects in humans is called
Q5) The protozoan group that contains only endoparasitic forms is the
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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Q1) The sponges date back to
A)the Devonian period or "age of fishes."
B)the early time of anaerobic prokaryotes.
C)the Cambrian period and probably earlier.
D)the time of the first prokaryotes but the sponges left no fossil evidence for lack of hard parts.Ancestral members of the phylum Porifera arose at least by the early Cambrian period and probably into Precambrian times.Later evolution resulted in diversification into the classes present today.
Q2) About 80% of particulate organic carbon in the marine environment is in the form of the smallest particles that sponges can consume,and phagocytosis of these particles is carried out by the ____________.Choanocytes create water currents and filter particulate food matter from the water.
Q3) Explain the concept of monophyly as it applies to the animals.How do the relationships of placozoans and poriferans,as explained in this chapter,contribute to our understanding of the base of the animal tree shown on the inside cover of the book?
Q4) Explain the unique attributes of hexactinellids as compared to other sponges.
Q5) The simplest body plan of sponges is ____________,and the plan characterized by flagellated canals is leuconoids.
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Chapter 13: Cnidarians and Ctenophores
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Q1) The part of a coral reef that slopes down into the lagoon is the ________ ________ or fore reef slope.
Q2) Which association of anthozoan traits is NOT correct?
A)Hexamerous-parts in multiples of six
B)Octomerous-parts in multiples of eight
C)Coupled-septa matched across gastrovascular cavity
D)Hydrostatic skeleton-hard coral secretions
E)Pedal laceration-small pieces break off and regenerate new anemones
Q3) The polypoid stage of scyphozoans is called ________________.
Q4) Nematocysts are expelled when the
A)osmotic pressure reaches 140 atmospheres.
B)hydrostatic pressure exceeds the osmotic pressure.
C)internal hydrostatic pressure increases when water enters.
D)cnidocil stimulates the cnidocyte to decrease hydrostatic pressure and increase osmotic pressure.
E)None of the choices is correct
Q5) Explain why the presence of a gelatinous layer between the ectoderm and endoderm in ctenophores and cnidarians make understanding the branching order of these phyla difficult.
Q6) Ctenophores are propelled by eight plates bearing long,fused _____________.
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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha, Platyzoa, and Mesozoa
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Q1) Most monogeneans are external parasites of ____________.
Q2) The long chains of bags of eggs,which hang behind the head of a tapeworm,is called a
A)strobila.
B)cercariae.
C)sporocysts.
D)scolex.
E)hydatid.
Q3) The monogenetic flukes
A)are mostly ectoparasites.
B)are usually found in rabbits.
C)require an intermediate and a definitive host.
D)All of the choices are correct
E)None of the choices is correct
Q4) Fertilization in rotifers is achieved
A)externally with both eggs and sperm shed into the water.
B)by normal copulation of a penis and vaginal pore.
C)by transfer of sperm in a gelatinous spermatophore packet.
D)by hypodermic impregnation injecting sperm into the pseudocoel.
Q5) Trematodes have a body covering known as a ______________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Q1) The ________ includes the lophophore,digestive tract,muscles,and nerve centers.
A)Adhesive sac
B)Statoblast
C)Cystid
D)Polypide
E)Zoecium
Q2) Why are these groups with diverse lifestyles (some with shells and some without,some colonial and some solitary,etc. )considered together? Be sure to list the structures and behaviors they have in common and discuss their evolutionary relationships.
Q3) Which phyla are included in the Clade Krytrochozoa? Check all that apply.
____ Nemertea
____ Brachiopoda
____ Phoronida
_____ Ectoprocta
Q4) The lophophorate animals that have their bodies covered by a mantle belong to the phylum ________.
Q5) The three lophophorate phyla are Phoronida,Ectoprocta,and
Q6) Colonies of Ectoprocts begin from a single zooid called an _____________.
Q7) The fleshy stalk of a brachiopod is the ___________.
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Q1) Cultured pearls are made by
A)cutting spherical balls from the thick shell of oysters and polishing them into circular beads.
B)dropping a grain of sand into the incurrent siphon of a pearl oyster.
C)tying off the labial palps.
D)growing oysters in high-calcium waters where they produce the pearls as unfertilized eggs.
E)placing an irritating particle under the shell mantle.
Q2) The internal organs in coelomates are covered with a mesodermal epithelium called the _______________.
Q3) The _________ is the oldest part of the shell and growth occurs in concentric rings around it.
Q4) The Monoplacophora
A)lack a shell.
B)live in fresh water.
C)lack a foot.
D)have several internal organs that are serially repeated.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q5) How does torsion differ from coiling? Fully explain your answer.
Q6) The tongue-like,rasping organ in the head of many molluscs is the _____________.
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Q1) A biologically plausible reason that burrowing earthworms have solid segmental walls but nonburrowing and parasitic annelids often have partial septa is
A)the segmentation was selected to enable better expansion during burrowing.Parasitic annelids do not burrow and the loss of the ability to expand segments was not disadvantageous during their evolution.
B)the nonburrowing worms were primitive and had not yet developed full walls.
C)nonburrowing worms are halfway between roundworms and fully-segmented earthworms.
D)that it permits fragmentation and regeneration of body parts,which earthworms need because they are in a dangerous environment,but internal parasites do not need this.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) A robin has difficulty pulling an earthworm from its earthen burrow because of small chitinous bristles called A)parapodia. B)segments.
C)annuli.
D)metanephridia. E)setae.
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Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Q1) Adult Ascaris worms are found in the host's _________________.or
Q2) The outer body covering of a nematode is a relatively thick,noncellular cuticle,which is constructed primarily of a protein known as _______.
Q3) Nematodes have a fluid-filled pseudocoel that serves as a _____________ skeleton.
Q4) Elephantiasis is an enlargement of legs,arms,scrotum,and other tissues caused by A)an infection of the human coelom by Ascaris.
B)a large number of Trichinella worms encysting in our muscles.
C)contracting a disease that usually occurs in elephants.
D)microscopic nematodes that reproduce and clog lymph glands,causing infection and limbs to swell.
E)a protozoan that lives in tropical roundworms and which,when ingested by humans,causes muscles to bloat.
Q5) The entire forepart of the body of a loricifera can be withdrawn into the
Q6) Explain why the Tardigrada and Onychophora are lumped with Arthropoda in the clade Panarthropoda.
Q7) Outline the life cycle of Wuchereria bancrofti.
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Q8) The most common helminth parasite in the United States is the
Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Q1) The arthropods
A)make up more than three-fourths of all the known species of animals.
B)are more widely and more densely distributed throughout the world than members of any other phylum of animals.
C)are segmented eucoelomate protostomes with well-developed organ systems.
D)are limited in size and generally are smaller than 60 centimeters in length.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Groups of segments fused or combined into functional groups are called __________.
Q3) Chelicerate arthropods possess
A)pedipalps.
B)antennae.
C)mandibles.
D)three pairs of walking legs.
E)All of the choices are chelicerate features.
Q4) There is a hypothesis that euryterid predation on early fish induced the selection for armor in these vertebrates.What kind of evidence would you require to show that there might be a causation here,rather than just a correlation in the fossil record?
Q5) Another name for the harvestman is ________ ________.
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Q1) The tail fan of many malacostracans is
A)the rostrum.
B)the postcarapace.
C)the endopod.
D)a combination of uropods and telson.
E)a fusion of the last biramous appendages.
Q2) A characteristic unique to Crustacea is the possession of two pairs of _______________.
Q3) The nerves of the eyes and the two pairs of antennae connect to the A)statocyst.
B)supraesophageal ganglion.
C)subesophageal ganglion.
D)thoracic ganglion.
E)antennal glands.
Q4) The organ in crayfish that functions in ion and water regulation and,to some extent,excretion is the ________ _________.
Q5) The process which culminates with arthropods regularly shedding their exoskeleton because it has become too small for the growing body is called
Page 22
Q6) The most diverse class of crustaceans is the __________________.
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Chapter 21: Hexapods
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Q1) Saprophagous insects feed on
A)plant juices.
B)dead animals.
C)other insects.
D)any living organism.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Explain why some entognathans may be more closely related to insects than other entognathans.
Q3) Which is NOT a human disease using an insect as the vector?
A)Malaria
B)Plague
C)Chagas' disease
D)Yellow fever
E)AIDS
Q4) Primitively wingless hexapods are the A)neuropterans.
B)thysanurans.
C)zorapterans.
D)isopterans.
E)hemipterans.
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Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) Unique characteristics of echinoderms include all of the following EXCEPT
A)an endoskeleton of plates or ossicles.
B)marine,freshwater,and terrestrial species.
C)pedicellariae.
D)dermal brachiae.
E)a water vascular system.
Q2) Hemichordates live
A)in the open ocean with a similar lifestyle to arrow-worms (which is why they are considered related).
B)in kelp beds.
C)in deep oceans,especially the rich and oxygenated Arctic Ocean.
D)on the bottom of shallow oceans,sometimes colonially and in secreted tubes.
E)just around thermal vents.
Q3) The oral tentacles of the sea cucumber are
A)modified tube feet.
B)actually primitive lophophores.
C)elaborated pedicellariae.
D)also part of its respiratory tree.
E)completely new structures evolved in this group.
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Q4) The larva of enteropneust hemichordates is known as a ________________.
Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) What feature(s)can be found in the ammocoete that are lacking in amphioxus,that are found in vertebrates?
A)A true liver with a gallbladder
B)A two-chambered heart
C)A three-part brain
D)Eyes,nostrils,and auditory vesicles
E)All of the choices are ammocoete features lacking in the amphioxus lancelet
Q2) While several invertebrate groups (phyla)have in the past been proposed as chordate ancestors,embryological evidence indicates the chordates are most probably a sister group to the _____________.
Q3) Although several invertebrate groups have been proposed as chordate ancestors,most zoologists now believe the embryological evidence indicates the chordates have probably descended from ancestors nearest the ___________ lineage.
A)Arthropoda
B)Cnidaria
C)Annelida-Mollusca
D)Lophophorate
E)Echinodermata
Q4) Lancelets belong to the subphylum __________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) How does a shark detect potential prey or distinguish it from floating non-living debris?
Q2) Compare the ammocoete larva with the fry of a teleost fish.
Q3) Representatives of the most primitive non-teleost neopterygians are the A)gar and bowfin.
B)sturgeon and paddle-fish.
C)coelacanths.
D)minnows and suckers.
E)carp and buffalo fish.
Q4) Darters are fish that live in fast-running rapids;they eat surface insects,they rest on the bottom avoiding the push of the water,and make brief frantic dashes to the surface to feed.If they swam midstream,they would expend a huge amount of energy.What physiological strategy allows them to live on the bottom?
A)Lack of gills
B)Loss of a lateral-line
C)Loss of a swim bladder
D)Reduction in fin size and number
E)Expansion of a swim bladder into a lung
Q5) The gills of bony fishes are covered with a movable flap called the __________.
Q6) In the elasmobranchs,the sexes are separate and fertilization is _________.
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) Which is true regarding the oxygen content of air?
A)It is less than the oxygen dissolved in an equal volume of water.
B)It is equal to the oxygen content of an equal volume of water at the same pressure.
C)It is 20 times greater than in an equal volume of water.
D)It is irrelevant to the animal lung since it must still diffuse across the wet surface of membranes.
E)It is approximately 1000 times greater than in an equal volume of water.
Q2) Frog singing
A)is more common in males than females.
B)is produced by passing air back and forth between the lungs and vocal pouches.
C)uses the large vocal sacs as resonators.
D)involves vocal cords in a larynx.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The Urodela
A)are hermaphroditic.
B)are tadpoles when young.
C)retain their tail permanently.
D)live only in the tropics.
E)never have to return to water to breed.
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) Amniotes having a skull with two temporal openings on each side are called ________.or
Q2) Describe sex determination in the Crocodilia.Speculate on the evolution of such a system.
Q3) Which describes viviparity in living reptiles?
A)It has evolved at least 100 times.
B)It increases the length of time the eggs are kept in the oviduct.
C)It is usually associated with cold climates.
D)It is only found in squamates.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q4) What is the form of snake movement that allows it to move in a narrow passage,extending forward while bracing S-shaped loops against the sides of the passageway?
A)Rectilinear movement
B)Sidewinding
C)Lateral undulation
D)Concertina movement
E)None of the choices is correct
Q5) The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day ______.
Q6) The scales of nonavian reptiles are derived from the ________.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) Feathers are
A)living structures that continue to grow longer as the bird gets older.
B)never shed,except by accident.
C)shed in a highly ordered manner.
D)usually shed all at once,and then gradually replaced.
E)replaced only after one is lost.
Q2) Discuss the derived characters shared by birds with theropods such as Velocirapor.How do the newly discovered Chinese fossils such as Protarchaeopteryx,Caudipteryx,and Sinosauropteryx fit into the evolutionary picture of birds?
Q3) The ___________,a group of small feathers on the first digit (or "thumb")of the bird's wing,functions to prevent stalling at low flight speeds.
Q4) Birds have highly developed eyes that help them
A)locate mates.
B)fly through the air at a fast speed.
C)locate food from a distance.
D)avoid predators and defend territory.
E)All of the choices are correct
Q5) In flapping flight,the feathers at the wing tips that generate thrust are the __________ feathers.
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Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT correct?
A)Most mammals have definite mating seasons
B)Many male mammals are capable of fertile copulation at any time
C)The estrous cycle allows females to mate at any time of the year
D)Estrus is a short period of mammalian "heat."
E)All of the choices are correct
Q2) All mammals share the following characteristic(s):
A)Hair
B)Mammary glands
C)A diaphragm
D)Middle ear bones
E)All of the choices are correct
Q3) The glands that are NOT derived from the mammalian integument are A)sebaceous glands.
B)sweat glands.
C)scent glands.
D)mammary glands.
E)All of the choices are derived from integument
Q4) Discuss a possible scenario of early mammal evolution that would have favored the evolution of hair and endothermy.
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Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) An example of a non-muscular hydrostatic skeleton is
A)an elephant's trunk.
B)the earthworm's body.
C)the human tongue.
D)a squid tentacle.
E)All of the choices are hydrostatic skeletons.
Q2) In ectothermic vertebrates and crustaceans,pigments that provide color to animals are contained within large,branching cells called ___________________.
Q3) The epidermis of the vertebrate integument contains a tough,fibrous protein called A)sclerotin.
B)keratin.
C)calcitin.
D)dermatin.
E)chitin.
Q4) Compare and contrast the structure and function of the following muscles: smooth,cardiac,skeletal (voluntary).
Q5) Bone that develops from cartilage is called _________ bone,a word meaning "within cartilage."
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) The term "homeostasis" was coined by the American physiologist ______ ______.
Q2) It is believed that in flatworms,water enters the protonephridia (flame cells)from the surrounding tissues by negative pressure from the ___________ beating.
Q3) Explain the physiological process of glomerular filtration.
Q4) Animals incapable of regulating their body fluid osmotic pressure are referred to as _____ ______.
Q5) In a cold environment,many species of birds and mammals maintain homeothermy by decreasing conductance and
A)increasing heat production.
B)allowing the extremities to operate at low temperatures.
C)augmented muscle activity (e.g. ,muscular thermogenesis).
D)All of the choices are correct
Q6) Briefly describe how marine invertebrates meet and solve the problems of salt and water balance.If many invertebrates can survive in marine environments,why can't insects?
Q7) Briefly describe the function and role of the following: aldosterone,renin,angiotensin,and antidiuretic hormone.
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Q8) Animals having a variable body temperature are said to be _____________.
Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) Why should arteries farther away from the heart possess more smooth muscle and fewer elastic fibers than arteries closer to the heart?
Q2) Describe the differences between insect and vertebrate ventilation.Which one is more effective in terms of being able to function without oxygen debt?
Q3) In very small organisms,or those with a large surface area relative to mass,substantial exchange of respiratory gases can take place by ____________ directly between the organism and its environment.
Q4) In the efficient double circulation of birds and mammals,the blood goes through a systemic circuit and a completely separate _______________ circuit.
Q5) The major intracellular electrolytes are potassium,magnesium,and phosphate ions,while the chief extracellular electrolytes are sodium,chloride,and ________
Q6) Why is the catalytic sequence leading to blood clotting so complex? Wouldn't it make evolutionary and metabolic sense to have a more immediate and much shorter biochemical sequence leading to blood clotting?
Q7) Compare the structure of a major vein with that of a major artery.Why are the two so different?
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) Fat absorption differs from other foods because its breakdown products are
A)formed in the large intestine.
B)absorbed directly into the blood.
C)absorbed into the lacteals before entering into the lymphatic system.
D)absorbed only when glucose is not present.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Outline the process of digestion of proteins.
Q3) Salivary amylase would begin the digestion of A)fats.
B)milk.
C)starches.
D)proteins.
E)All of the choices would begin to digest.
Q4) The main function of the esophagus is to
A)digest proteins.
B)digest carbohydrates.
C)transport food from the small intestine to the large intestine.
D)transport food from the mouth to the stomach.
E)transport food from the stomach to the large intestine.
Q5) The most characteristic gut movement is _________.
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) The evolutionary trend toward larger size and capacity of the brain in vertebrates is called
A)cranial expansion.
B)cortex evolution.
C)cephalization.
D)centralization.
E)encephalization.
Q2) The correct sequence in a reflex arc is
A)receptor,efferent nerve,nerve center,afferent nerve,effector.
B)effector,afferent nerve,nerve center,efferent nerve,receptor.
C)receptor,afferent nerve,nerve center,efferent nerve,effector.
D)effector,efferent nerve,nerve center,afferent nerve,receptor.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q3) The nodes of Ranvier are
A)motor nerve terminations on muscle fibers.
B)tiny vesicles on the postsynaptic membrane of synapses.
C)interruptions in the myelin sheath surrounding axons.
D)ganglia in the flatworm nervous system.
E)the interneurons in our cerebral cortex that allow us to "think."
Q4) The vertebrate ear functions in hearing and in ____________.
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) The condition in humans called goiter is caused by an insufficiency of ____________ in the food and water.
Q2) Explain in detail how a negative feedback system works and why it is so highly effective in preventing hormonal flux.
Q3) The molting hormone or ecdysone in insects
A)favors the development of adult structures.
B)favors the development of larval structures.
C)does not appear to act directly on the chromosomes.
D)is not a steroid hormone.
E)is toxic to humans.
Q4) The thyroid gland
A)regulates the gonads.
B)is the smallest endocrine gland in humans.
C)acts on the kidney to restrict urine flow.
D)stimulates metabolic rate and promotes normal growth.
E)has a high concentration of calcium.
Q5) Discuss the potential effects of anabolic steroid abuse by teenagers.
Q6) A hormone that lowers the blood calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption by the osteoclasts is
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Chapter 35: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Certain proteins in the blood that,together with antibodies,lyse or break up invading cells are called ________________.
Q2) _________________ is produced by macrophages,is a mediator of inflammation,and may help cause fever.
A)Complement
B)Lysozymes
C)A major histocompatibility complex
D)Interferon
E)Tumor necrosis factor
Q3) A substance that stimulates an immune response is called a/an _____________.
Q4) The acquired immune response in vertebrates has two arms:
A)antibodies and antigens.
B)B and T lymphocytes.
C)cellular and humoral.
D)T<sub>H</sub>1 and T<sub>H</sub>2.
E)immunoglobulins and T-cell receptors.
Q5) _________ cells are responsible for retaining antigen memory for faster future immune response.
Q6) Identify the following: tumor necrosis factor,complement,phagocytosis,leukocytes.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) Why is territoriality considered an alternative to dominance behavior?
Q2) Identify the significance of the following: aggression,agonistic behavior,ritualized displays,ritualization,and dominance hierarchy.
Q3) The effort to experiment with animals to determine general laws of behavior that might also apply to humans is
A)sociology.
B)behavioral ecology.
C)comparative psychology.
D)sociobiology.
E)ethology.
Q4) Many people believe that kin selection,group selection,and mutual altruism are not controlled by genes.What evidence would you present to show that this is or is not so?
Q5) Compare the properties of innate behavior with those of learned behavior.How does a researcher separate the two in nature?
Q6) Honeybees communicate the location of food resources by two types of dances,the round dance and the ____________ dance.
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Chapter 37: Animal Distribution
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Q1) Tundra is
A)an area of high precipitation and high humidity.
B)a mixed forest composed of evergreen and deciduous trees.
C)the treeless Arctic regions and high mountain tops.
D)composed of very little plant life and no animal life.
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) High-oxygen,bubbly streams are described as A)benthic.
B)pelagic.
C)lotic.
D)lentic.
E)estuarine.
Q3) The terrestrial biome having the greatest diversity of tree species is the ____________.
Q4) Which of the following would NOT be a vicariance event?
A)The ancestral Darwin finch is blown to the Galapagos Islands
B)Salamander populations are split by a glacier in the last ice age
C)Australia drifts away before placental mammals arise
D)All of the choices would be vicariance events
Q5) The area of the ocean where most productivity occurs is the ___________ zone.
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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The energy storage in an animal's tissues is called
A)primary productivity.
B)gross productivity.
C)standing crop.
D)biomass.
Q2) A community is made up of
A)different populations of organisms living in the same area.
B)living organisms & the nonliving environment.
C)ecosystems.
D)just the nonliving environment.
Q3) Only ______ are able to purposely and directly increase their carrying capacity.
Q4) Compare logistic growth with exponential growth.Would a pest insect species more likely exhibit a logistic growth curve or an exponential growth curve? Explain your reasoning.
Q5) Are the benefits derived from Mullerian mimics always equal for each member of the mimicry complex?
Q6) Explain the following concepts: age structure,survivorship curves,and intrinsic rate of increase.
Q7) Explain the concept of "competitive exclusion." Give several examples that clearly illustrate this concept.
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