Animal Genetics
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Animal Genetics explores the principles of heredity and variation in animals, focusing on the molecular, cellular, and organismal levels of genetic inheritance. The course covers topics such as Mendelian and non-Mendelian inheritance, gene structure and function, genetic mapping and linkage, population genetics, and quantitative genetics. Special emphasis is placed on the genetic basis of traits important in animal breeding, selection strategies, and the application of biotechnology in genetic improvement. Students will also examine recent advances in genomics and their implications for animal health, productivity, and conservation.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics 3rd Edition by Robert J. Brooker
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24 Chapters
913 Verified Questions
913 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The building blocks of DNA are ________.
A) amino acids
B) carbohydrates
C) enzymes
D) nucleotides
E) lipids
Answer: D
Q2) The differences in inherited traits among individuals in a population are called
A) species variation
B) genetic mutations
C) genetic variation
D) natural selection
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following acts to accelerate chemical reactions in a cell?
A) nucleic acids
B) lipids
C) carbohydrates
D) enzymes
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Reproduction and Chromosome Transmission
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the phase when chromosomes start to condense.
A) Metaphase
B) Prometaphase
C) Telophase
D) Anaphase
E) Prophase
Answer: E
Q2) A cytogeneticist would primarily do which of the following?
A) study the distribution of traits in a population
B) study the evolutionary changes in a specific trait
C) examine chromosomes using a karyotype
D) determine the genetic sequence of a specific gene
Answer: C
Q3) During this phase of the cell cycle,the sister chromatids are formed in
A) G phase
B) G phase
C) S phase
D) Prophase
E) Cytokinesis
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mendel's work on inheritance had an immediate influence on the scientific community and theories of inheritance.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) If a Punnett square is used to visualize a three-factor cross,how many boxes would be inside of the square?
A) 3
B) 8
C) 48
D) 64
E) can't be determined
Answer: D
Q3) What theory did Mendel's work with monohybrid crosses support?
A) blending theory of inheritance
B) particulate theory of inheritance
C) chromosomal theory of inheritance
D) pangenesis
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sex determination in humans and Drosophila is similar in the fact that
A) the ratio of X chromosomes to sets of autosomes determines maleness or femaleness in both.
B) males in both will always have one Y chromosome, whereas females will not have a Y chromosome.
C) females lack X chromosomes.
D) males have one X chromosome and females have two X chromosomes.
Q2) With rare exceptions,a calico cat is likely to be female.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Lyon hypothesis attempts to explain the molecular mechanism of ________.
A) X-inactivation
B) genomic imprinting
C) maternal inheritance
D) extra nuclear inheritance
Q4) Flowering plants will produce flowers that are dioecious,meaning that the male and female parts are contained within the same flower.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Extensions of Mendelian Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) New research indicates that male-pattern baldness is a sex-linked trait in humans because of mutations of an androgen receptor gene on the X chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Huntington disease in humans is an example of ________.
A) essential genes
B) lethal alleles
C) semilethal alleles
D) nonessential genes
E) sex linked allele
Q3) In overdominance,the ________ genotype is beneficial over the ________ genotypes.
A) heterozygous; homozygous
B) homozygous; heterozygous
C) homozygous dominant; homozygous recessive
D) homozygous recessive; homozygous dominant
E) incomplete dominant; codominant
Q4) Incomplete dominance is an example of blending of phenotypes,not genotypes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Extranuclear Inheritance, Imprinting, and
Maternal Effect
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse cell is a cell that
A) lacks chloroplasts and mitochondria.
B) destroys defective oocytes during embryogenesis.
C) surrounds an oocyte during oogenesis.
D) a cell that will fix a mutation in another cell.
E) a cell that can repair its own DNA mutations.
Q2) Which of the following is primarily responsible for the maternal effect?
A) sperm cells
B) oocytes
C) nurse cells
D) placenta
Q3) What is a disease associated with extranuclear inheritance?
A) Angelman Syndrome
B) Prader-Willi Syndrome
C) LHON
D) Muscular Dystrophy
Q4) Both parents usually imprint the same gene.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Genetic Linkage and Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a mapping experiment with three genes,which phenotype should occur most often in the F offspring?
A) parental phenotypes
B) phenotypes of individuals with single crossover events
C) phenotypes of individuals with double crossover events
D) All of these choices should be equal in the F generation.
Q2) Which of the following statistical tests is used to determine if two genes are linked or assorting independently?
A) sum rule
B) binomial expansion
C) product rule
D) chi square test
Q3) In humans,there are ________ autosomal linkage groups,plus an X and Y chromosome linkage group.
A) 23
B) 46
C) 22
D) 92
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Chapter 8: Variation in Chromosome Structure and Number
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of autosomal aneuploid conditions are lethal,but sex chromosome aneuploids are usually not lethal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Visible or measurable characteristics of an organism,resulting from its genotype,are called its ________.
Q3) Describe endopolyploidy,and how it might benefit an organism.
A) Portions of the organism have extra copies of all chromosomes, for producing additional gene products.
B) The entire organism has extra copies of certain chromosomes, for producing additional gene products.
C) The entire organism has extra copies of all chromosomes, to act as backup in case of DNA damage.
D) Portions of the organism have extra copies of certain genes, for the functions of specialized cell types.
Q4) Variations in a gene are called allelic variations.
A)True
B)False
10
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Chapter 9: Genetics in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) A structure called a(n)________ allows the transfer of genetic information during conjugation.
A) F factor
B) plasmid
C) sex pilus
D) transformation bridge
Q2) P1 phage can carry a piece of the chromosome that is 2 minutes in length.In a P1 phage transduction experiment,two genes have a cotransduction frequency of 0.68.Determine the distance between these two genes,assuming that pieces of chromosome are packaged randomly.
A) 0.68 = (1 - d/2)³
B) d = .68³ - 1
C) d = (1 - .68)²
Q3) Small circular pieces of DNA,separate from the bacterial chromosome,are called
A) heteroduplexes
B) plasmids
C) relaxosomes
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Chapter 10: Genetics of Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which virus uses reverse transcriptase in its reproductive cycle?
A) HIV
B) Phage lamda
C) Both of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
D) Neither of the viruses use reverse transcriptase
Q2) Which is a property of emerging viruses?
A) mutate frequently
B) recent origin
C) more likely to cause infection compared to other strains
D) all of these
Q3) What was the outcome of the experiment that reconstituted two different strains of tobacco mosaic viruses that had different infection characteristics?
A) The differences in infection characteristics depended only on the RNA sequence of the virus strain.
B) The differences in infection characteristics depended only the the protein coat.
C) The differences in infection characteristics depended on an RNA and protein coat interaction.
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Chapter 11: Molecular Structure of DNA and RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pyrimidine bases are ________.
A) cytosine, thymine, and uracil
B) adenine and guanine
C) adenine and thymine
D) cytosine and guanine
Q2) The first group of researchers to correctly identify the double-helix structure of DNA were ________.
A) McClintock and Franklin
B) Hershey and Chase
C) Pauling and Avery
D) Watson and Crick
Q3) Select the ways in which an RNA strand differs from a DNA strand.
A) It contains ribose instead of deoxyribose.
B) It is usually single-stranded.
C) It contains uracil instead of thymine.
D) It runs 6 to 3 instead of 5 to 3 .
Q4) A purine on one strand of the DNA is always paired with a pyrimidine on the other strand.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Molecular Structure of Chromosomes and Transposition
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the lowest level of chromosome condensation?
A) radial loop domain
B) 30 nm fibers
C) double helix
D) nucleosome
Q2) Unique sequences make up approximately what percent of the human genome?
A) 5%
B) 25%
C) 40%
D) 80%
Q3) Which of the following enzymes is required for a transposon to move?
A) promotes strand invasion and formation of the D loop
B) jumpase
C) splicase
D) transposase
Q4) Transposons that use an RNA intermediate for transposition are called ________.
A) R elements
B) RNAi transposons
C) retrotransposons
D) reverse transposons
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Chapter 13: Dna Replication and Recombination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Replication usually begins in GC-rich regions due to the presence of only 2 hydrogen bonds between the bases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The origin of replication in bacteria is called oriC.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What enzyme relaxes supercoiling ahead of the replication fork?
A) DNA ligase
B) DNA primase
C) topoisomerase
D) DNA polymerase I
E) DNA polymerase III
Q4) What process does the Holliday model help explain?
A) recombination between homologous chromosomes
B) recombination between sister chromatids
C) the creation of shortened chromosomes
D) replication initiation
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Gene Transcription and RNA Modification
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term ribozyme is given to catalytic RNA molecules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In transcription,the closed complex consists of
A) RNA polymerase.
B) transcription factors.
C) double-stranded DNA.
D) single-stranded DNA.
Q3) What is the purpose of phosphorylating the carboxy terminal domain (CTD)of RNA Polymerase II?
A) convert from the initiation to the elongation stage
B) to aid in transcriptional initiation
C) phosphorylate transcription factors
D) allow transcription factors to bind the TATA box
Q4) RNA polymerase I in eukaryotes produces which type of RNA?
A) snRNA
B) tRNA
C) 5S rRNA
D) 18S rRNA
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Chapter 15: Translation of MRNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) All mature polypeptides contain a methionine at the N-terminus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Kozak's rules for translation are similar to those for transcription in prokaryotes in that they both contain consensus sequences.In prokaryotes,the promoter consensus sequences are at 35 and 10.Where is the consensus sequence for translational initiation according to Kozak's rules?
A) 6 to +4
B) 12 to 2
C) +1 to +10
D) 35 to 10
Q3) What level of protein structure is exemplified by -helices and -sheets?
A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure
Q4) What site does the initiator tRNA bind to on the ribosome?
A) A
B) E
C) P
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Chapter 16: Gene Regulation in Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coupled transcription and translation occur under conditions in which the tryptophan concentration is very low.
A)True
B)False
Q2) cAMP is a small effector molecule.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A gene is inducible and under negative control.Which of the following pairs will allow expression of this gene?
A) activator + repressor
B) activator + inhibitor
C) repressor + inducer
D) repressor + corepressor
Q4) Negative transcriptional regulation is conducted by activator proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the lac operon,the operator site is recognized by an activator protein.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: Gene Regulation in Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Feeding a specific diet to female mice may result in an increased proportion of pseudo-agouti offspring if
A) the diet is low in folic acid and vitamin B .
B) the offspring carry the Avy allele.
C) the transposon at the Avy locus in the progeny is hypermethylated.
Q2) Most genes imprinted by methylation are silenced.What is one exception to this rule?
A) H19
B) Igf2
C) Xist
D) Agouti
Q3) DNA methylation activates gene expression.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Select all examples that are associated with expression of a single allele of a gene.
A) X-chromosome inactivation in female mammals
B) Genomic imprinting
C) Epigenetic modifications during cell differentiation
D) Development of queen bees determined by exposure to royal jelly
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Chapter 18: Non-Coding Rnas
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Sample Questions
Q1) With which injection did Mello and Fire observe the lowest amount of mex-3 probe staining?
A) Injected with double-stranded RNA
B) Injected with mex-3 antisense RNA
C) Uninjected
Q2) What is the name of the type of chemical modification on anti-miRNA oligonucleotides used to inhibit miRNA function that involves ribose sugars with an extra bridge connecting the 2 oxygen and the 4 carbon?
A) Locked nucleic acids
B) Antagomirs
C) Enoxacin
D) RNaseMRP
Q3) SmY RNAs are a family of ncRNAs in nematodes that are thought to be involved in a special type of RNA splicing.Based on this function,SmY RNAs are most likely members of which category of ncRNAs?
A) snRNA
B) tRNA
C) snoRNA
D) siRNA
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Gene Mutation and DNA Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which DNA repair process identifies daughter strands by methylation?
A) homologous recombination repair
B) direct repair
C) base excision repair
D) mismatch repair
E) nucleotide excision repair
Q2) The mutation frequency would be the same for all genes in a given culture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the nucleotide excision repair system,which of the following proteins is responsible for recognizing a thymine dimer to be repaired?
A) UvrA/UvrB
B) UvrC
C) UvrD
D) None of the answers are correct.
Q4) Reverse mutations involve changing a wild-type allele to a mutant allele.
A)True
B)False
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21
Chapter 20: Molecular Technologies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which procedure is used to identify a specific protein within a mixture of many different protein molecules?
A) Western blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Southern blotting
D) Eastern blotting
Q2) What is a property of stem cells?
A) They can differentiate into one or more specialized cell types.
B) They can form any tissue in the body.
C) They are only capable of one to two cell divisions.
D) They will only form hematopoietic cells.
Q3) Which procedure is used to identify a specific RNA within a mixture of many RNA molecules?
A) Western blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Southern blotting
D) Eastern blotting
Q4) Unipotent cells may differentiate into all other cell types of the body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In sequencing by synthesis (SBS)methods,the sequence of a sample is directly determined as nucleotides are incorporated into a DNA strand by DNA polymerase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To identify novel DNA binding sites for a protein,it would be best to use ________.
A) pyrosequencing
B) microsatellites
C) chromatin immunoprecipitation
D) ChIP-chip
Q3) One map unit of distance always corresponds to 10 base pairs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A site in the genome that varies between members of the population is said to be ________.
A) monomorphic
B) polymorphic
C) trimorphic
D) neomorphic
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Chapter 22: Medical Genetics and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) An oncogene form of Ras would have which of the following characteristics?
A) decreased GTPase activity
B) an increased number of copies in the cell
C) decreased exchange of GTP for GTP
D) increased GTPase activity
Q2) The process of ________ removes amniotic fluid from a pregnant mother to examine fetal cells for genetic problems.
A) amniocentesis
B) chorionic villus sampling
C) preimplantation genetic diagnosis
D) in vitro fertilization
Q3) The term that indicates that cancer has begun to migrate to other parts of the body is ________.
A) malignant
B) benign
C) metastatic
D) invasive
E) clonal
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Chapter 23: Population Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the allele frequency of the dominant allele is 0.4,what value is used for the term p² in the equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1?
A) 0.4
B) 0.2
C) 0.16
D) 16
Q2) Repetitive sequences are useful for DNA fingerprinting because they
A) are not inherited and so are unique to every individual.
B) are unique to every individual and change from generation to generation. C) are inherited and can show significant variability between individuals. D) never undergo mutation.
Q3) The term for a group of individuals from the same species that can interbreed with one another is
A) species.
B) population.
C) race.
D) community.
E) kingdom.
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Chapter 24: Quantitative Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A trait that varies measurably in a species is called a discontinuous trait.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sum of all of the values for a trait,divided by the total number of individuals,is called the standard deviation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) For a quantitative trait,the total variance of the population is due to which of the following?
A) The amount of variance due to genetic factors only
B) The amount of variance due to environmental factors only
C) The difference between the variance attributed to genetic and environmental factors
D) The sum of the genetic and environmental variances
Q4) Since quantitative traits are frequently associated with a number of genes and the environment,it is difficult to assign accurate phenotypic classes for a Punnett square diagram.
A)True
B)False
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