Animal Genetics
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Animal Genetics explores the principles of heredity and genetic variation in animals, emphasizing the molecular, cellular, and population-level mechanisms that influence animal traits. The course covers key topics such as Mendelian inheritance, molecular genetics, quantitative genetics, and the genetic basis of complex traits. Students learn about the application of genetic principles to animal breeding, conservation, and biotechnology, as well as contemporary advances such as gene editing and genomics. Ethical considerations and the impact of genetics on animal health and production are also discussed, providing a comprehensive understanding of how genetics shapes animal populations and their management.
Recommended Textbook
Concepts of Genetics Books a la Carte Edition 11th Edition by William S. Klug
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Genetics
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Q1) Who,along with Alfred Wallace,formulated the theory of natural selection?
A) Gregor Mendel
B) William Harvey
C) Louis Pasteur
D) Charles Darwin
E) James Watson
Answer: D
Q2) List the two relatively complex processes in which genetic information is converted into functional products.
Answer: transcription and translation
Q3) What is another term for a biological catalyst?
Answer: enzyme
Q4) Until the mid-1940s,many scientists considered proteins to be the likely candidates for the genetic material.Why?
Answer: Proteins are the most abundant,universally distributed components in cells.They were considered likely candidates because of their great structural and functional diversity.
Q5) What is the composition of the genetic material?
Answer: polymers of nucleotides making up DNA
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Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis
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Q1) In a healthy female,how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100 primary oocytes? How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?
A) 200; 50
B) 100; 50
C) 200; 300
D) 100; 100
E) 50; 50
Answer: D
Q2) Living organisms are categorized into two major groups based on the presence or absence of a nucleus.What group is defined by the presence of a nucleus?
A) eukaryotic organism
B) virus
C) bacterium
D) prokaryotic organism
E) mitochondrial organism
Answer: A
Q3) What is meant by the term chiasma?
Answer: areas where chromatids intertwine during meiosis
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Chapter 3: Mendelian Genetics
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Q1) Albinism,lack of pigmentation in humans,results from an autosomal recessive gene (a).Two parents with normal pigmentation have an albino child.What is the probability that their next child will be albino?
Answer: 1/4
Q2) How many kinds of gametes will be expected from an individual with the genotype PpCcTTRr?
Answer: 8
Q3) Assume that a black guinea pig crossed with an albino guinea pig produced 5 black offspring.When the albino was crossed with a second black guinea pig,4 black and 3 albino offspring were produced.What genetic explanation would apply to these data?
A) albino = recessive; black = recessive
B) albino = dominant; black = incompletely dominant
C) albino and black = codominant
D) albino = recessive; black = dominant
E) None of the answers listed are correct.
Answer: D
Q4) Assuming independent assortment,what proportion of the offspring of the cross will have the aabbccdd \[A a B b C c D d \times A a b b C C d d\] genotype?
Answer: zero
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Chapter 4: Extensions of Mendelian Genetics
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Q1) The enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency (G6PD)is inherited as a recessive gene on the X chromosome in humans.A phenotypically normal woman (whose father had G6PD)is married to a normal man.
a) What fraction of their sons would be expected to have G6PD?
b) If the husband had G6PD,would it make a difference in your answer in part (a)?
Q2) Assume that a dihybrid cross (AaBb × AaBb)is made in which the gene loci are autosomal,independently assorting,and incompletely dominant.What phenotypic ratio would you expect from such a cross? Just provide the ratio,not the phenotypes.
Q3) Penetrance specifically refers to the expression of lethal genes in heterozygotes. A)True B)False
Q4) The ABO blood group locus in humans provides an example of epistasis. A)True B)False
Q5) Assume that a dihybrid F ratio,resulting from epistasis,was 15:1.If a double heterozygote was crossed with the fully recessive type,what phenotypic ratio is expected among the offspring?
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Chapter 5: Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes
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Q1) In the fruit fly,Drosophila melanogaster,a spineless (no wing bristles)female fly is mated to a male that is claret (dark eyes)and hairless (no thoracic bristles).Phenotypically wild-type F female progeny were mated to fully homozygous (mutant)males,and the following progeny (1000 total)were observed: \( \begin{array}{lr}\text { Phenotypes } & \text { Number } \\ \text { spineless } & 321 \\ \text { wild } & 38 \\ \text { claret, spineless } & 130 \\ \text { claret } & 18 \\ \text { claret, hairless } & 309 \\ \text { hairless, claret, spineless } & 32 \\ \text { hairless } & 140 \\ \text { hairless, spineless } & 12\end{array} \)
a) Which gene is in the middle?
b) With respect to the three genes mentioned in the problem,what are the genotypes of the homozygous parents used in making the phenotypically wild-type F heterozygote?
c) What are the map distances between the three genes? A correct formula with the values "plugged in" for each distance will be sufficient.
d) What is the coefficient of coincidence? A correct formula with the values "plugged in" will be sufficient.
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Chapter 6: Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
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Q1) Assume that one counted 67 plaques on a bacterial plate where 0.1 ml of a 10 dilution of phage was added to bacterial culture.What is the initial concentration of the undiluted phage?
Q2) To produce recombinants in bacteria,one crossover is better than two.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bacteriophages engage in two interactive cycles with bacteria.What are these cycles?
A) lytic and lysogenic
B) insertion and replication
C) auxotrophic and prototrophic
D) heteroduplex and homoduplex
E) negative and positive
Q4) Jacob,Wollman,and others developed a linkage map of E.coli that is based on time.What form of recombination is involved in generating a linkage map based on time?
Q5) Bacteriophages that cannot undergo lysogeny but can infect bacteria are called
Q6) In what way was the interrupted mating technique used to generate a genetic map in E.coli based on time? Page 8
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Chapter 7: Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
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Q1) Assume that you are told that a particular organism,Drosophila,has the XO chromosome complement.You are also told that the autosomal complement is a normal 2n.You know that in humans the XO complement is female determining.Would you be correct in assuming that the Drosophila sex for XO is also female? Choose the answer that includes the correct explanation.
A) Yes, because sex determination in humans and insects is essentially the same.
B) No, sex determination in Drosophila is dependent on the presence or absence of the Y chromosome.
C) No, the chromosomal basis for sex determination in Drosophila is based on the balance between the number of X chromosomes and haploid sets of autosomes.
D) Yes, the presence of an X chromosome determines a female in both organisms.
E) No, it takes two X chromosomes to produce a female in humans and a Y chromosome to produce a male in Drosophila.
Q2) An individual with Klinefelter syndrome generally has one Barr body. A)True B)False
Q3) Assuming a normal number of autosomes,what would be the sex of the following: XXY mouse,XXY Drosophila?
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Chapter 8: Chromosome Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement
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Q1) The term aneuploidy is synonymous with the term segmental deletion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Assume that a species has a diploid chromosome number of 24.The term applied to an individual with 25 chromosomes would be triploid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The condition known as cri-du-chat syndrome in humans has a genetic constitution designated as ________.
A) 45, X
B) heteroplasmy
C) 46, 5p-
D) triploidy
E) trisomy
Q4) Familial Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosomes 1 and 14.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Trisomics are observed in humans; monosomics are not.Why?
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Chapter 9: Extranuclear Inheritance
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Q1) In what way do chloroplast mutations influence phenotype?
Q2) Which three classes of macromolecules are encoded by mtDNA?
Q3) Mitochondrial mutations are passed equally to offspring by both males and females.
A)True
B)False
Q4) It appears as if the direction of shell coiling in Lymnaea peregra is influenced by the orientation of the first cleavage division.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Kearns-Sayre syndrome (KSS)results in progressive loss of vision and hearing,as well as heart defects.What is the genetic basis for this disease?
Q6) In what way do mitochondrial mutations influence phenotype?
Q7) What is the meaning of the term endosymbiotic theory?
Q8) What is the name of a form of extrachromosomal inheritance that is due to transmission of symbiotic or parasitic microorganisms?
Q9) List two classes of extrachromosomal inheritance and give an example of each.
Q10) List three organisms that provide examples of organelle heredity.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: DNA Structure and Analysis
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Q1) Considering the Central Dogma of Molecular Genetics,what general property is ascribed to DNA?
Q2) Consider the structure of double-stranded DNA.When DNA is placed into distilled water,it denatures; however,by adding NaCl,the DNA renatures.Why?
Q3) When and in which journal did Watson and Crick publish their now-famous paper entitled "Molecular Structure of Nucleic Acids: A Structure for Deoxyribose Nucleic Acid."
Q4) Regarding the structure of DNA,the covalently arranged combination of a deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base would be called a(n)________.
A) nucleotide
B) ribonucleotide
C) monophosphate nucleoside
D) oligonucleotide
E) nucleoside
Q5) At what approximate wavelengths do DNA,RNA,and proteins maximally absorb light?
Q6) When considering the structure of DNA,we would say that complementary strands are antiparallel.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Replication and Recombination
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Q1) Which protein is responsible for the initial step in unwinding the DNA helix during replication of the bacterial chromosome?
Q2) Telomerase is an RNA-containing enzyme that adds telomeric DNA sequences onto the ends of linear chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which terms accurately reflect the nature of replication of the chromosome in E.coli?
A) bidirectional and fixed point of initiation
B) unidirectional and reciprocal
C) unidirectional and fixed point of initiation
D) multirepliconic and telomeric
E) bidirectional and multirepliconic
Q4) Meselson and Stahl determined that DNA replication in E coli is semiconservative.What additive did they initially supply to the medium in order to distinguish "new" from "old" DNA?
Q5) Compare the rate of DNA replication in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
Q6) Which structural circumstance in DNA sets up the requirement for its semidiscontinuous nature of replication?
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Chapter 12: DNA Organization in Chromosomes
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Q1) In the formation of nucleosomes,one histone class,H1,is not directly involved,yet it does associate with DNA to form higher level chromosomal structures.Where does this histone (H1)associate?
Q2) Approximately how much of the mammalian genome is composed of repetitive DNA?
Q3) When native chromatin is digested with micrococcal nuclease,what significant result occurs?
Q4) Viral genomes are always linear,double-stranded DNA. A)True B)False
Q5) Although mutations have been observed in many different genes,they have not been isolated in histones.Why does this seem reasonable? If one wanted to produce antibodies to histones,would it be an easy task? Explain your answer.
Q6) Chromosomal regions that represent evolutionary vestiges of duplicated copies of genes that have underdone sufficient mutations to render them untranscribable are called ________.
Q7) In instances in the eukaryotic genome,DNA sequences represent evolutionary vestiges of duplicated copies of genes.What are such regions called and what are their characteristics?
Q8) List several configurations that characterize different viral chromosomes.
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Chapter 13: The Genetic Code and Transcription
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Q1) Of the following three types of nucleic acids-DNA,mRNA,tRNA-which is most likely to contain modified bases?
Q2) In eukaryotes,which three factors appear to encourage the specific association of RNA polymerase(s)to a specific region of DNA?
Q3) Significant in the deciphering of the genetic code was the discovery of the enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase.What is this enzyme used for?
A) manufacture of synthetic RNA for cell-free systems
B) ribosomal translocation
C) peptide bond formation
D) production of ribosomal proteins
E) degradation of RNA
Q4) An intron is a section of ________.
A) protein that is clipped out posttranslationally
B) RNA that is removed during RNA processing
C) DNA that is removed during DNA processing
D) transfer RNA that binds to the anticodon
E) carbohydrate that serves as a signal for RNA transport
Q5) What is meant by the term heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA)?
Q6) Describe a difference between the RNA polymerases of eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Translation and Proteins
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Q1) When a metabolic block occurs in a biochemical pathway,it is common for amount of the substance immediately prior to that block to increase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A protein is 300 amino acids long.Which of the following could be the number of nucleotides in the section of DNA that codes for this protein? (Remember: DNA is double-stranded.)
A) 3
B) 100
C) 300
D) 500
E) 1800
Q3) The secondary structure of a protein is dependent on polar interactions among the side chains of the amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Much has been learned about the relationship between genes and gene products through the use of the mold Neurospora.What specific attributes make Neurospora a good organism for such studies?
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Chapter 15: Gene Mutation,dna Repair,and Transposition
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Q1) Mutations may exert a variety of effects on living systems.List at least three categories of mutations based on their biological effects.
Q2) Apurinic sites (AP sites)involve a spontaneous loss of a(n)________ in an intact double-helix DNA molecule.
Q3) How were insertion sequences (IS elements)first discovered?
Q4) In general,mutation rates in humans occur in the range of ________ (frequency)per gamete per generation.
Q5) One type of mutation involves the replacement of a purine with a purine,while another causes the replacement of a pyrimidine with a purine or the reverse.What general terms are associated with these two mutational phenomena?
Q6) Mutations that arise in nature,from no particular artificial agent,are called
A) oblique mutations
B) induced mutations
C) spontaneous mutations
D) chromosomal aberrations
E) cosmic mutations
Q7) What is the Ames test,and how does it work?
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Regulation of Gene Expression in Prokaryotes
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Q1) What term refers to a contiguous genetic complex that is under coordinated control?
A) lysogen
B) prototroph
C) operon
D) allosteric
E) attenuation
Q2) What term would be applied to a regulatory condition that occurs when protein is associated with a particular section of DNA and greatly reduces transcription?
A) negative control
B) positive control
C) induction
D) activation
E) stimulation
Q3) Attenuation involves the termination of mRNA synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A constitutive mutation in the lac operon may be of several types.Name two types of constitutive mutations.
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Chapter 17: Regulation of Gene Expression in Eukaryotes
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Q1) What evidence indicates that steroid hormones exert their influence at the level of DNA?
Q2) Alternative RNA processing can result in different mRNAs that start with different exons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is meant by the term helix-turn-helix (HTH)?
Q4) Describe the difference between a focused promoter and a dispersed promoter.
Q5) When transcription factors interact with DNA,is the resulting genetic control typically positive or negative?
Q6) The human metallothionein IIA gene (hMTIIA)is transcriptionally regulated through the interplay of regulatory elements and transcription factors.What is the function of this gene,and how is it regulated by environmental circumstances?
Q7) In what way can 5 -azacytidine influence transcription?
Q8) Regulation of RNA transport through the nuclear membrane is as common in prokaryotes as in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
Q9) Provide a general set of statements that describes an enhancer.
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Chapter 18: Developmental Genetics
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Q1) How does determination relate temporally to differentiation?
Q2) Segmentation genes,such as the pair-rule class,are inherited through mitochondrial DNA in Drosophila.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which class of genes controls the developmental identity of segments along the anterior-posterior axis?
Q4) What kinds of general observations cause one to conclude that development is the result of variable gene activity?
Q5) Provide a brief description of the variable gene activity hypothesis as it relates to development.What information is often provided in support of this hypothesis?
Q6) In Drosophila,the sequential order of the function of segmentation genes is
A) gap, segment-polarity, pair-rule
B) pair-rule, transdeterminal, gap
C) transdeterminal, gap, pair-rule
D) gap, pair-rule, segment-polarity
E) segmentational, helical, spherical
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Chapter 19: Cancer and Regulation of the Cell Cycle
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Q1) Name three human cancers with a genetic predisposition.What appears to be the genetic cause of each?
Q2) Describe two classes of proteins known to be involved in the regulation of the cell cycle.
Q3) List three general categories of genetic changes that lead to the formation of oncogenes.
Q4) Describe the cellular and molecular function of the ras gene family and the consequences of mutations in ras.
Q5) There are several checkpoints in the mitotic cell cycle.All occur in the S phase. A)True
B)False
Q6) Any agent that causes damage to DNA is a potential carcinogen. A)True B)False
Q7) In what way might a virus contribute to cancer formation?
Q8) Provide a simple definition of a carcinogen.
Q9) Chronic myelogenous leukemia appears to be associated with a chromosomal rearrangement.How is a chromosomal rearrangement responsible for this disease?
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) What might be a reasonable function of restriction endonucleases in a bacterium,distinct from their use by molecular biologists?
Q2) Following are four processes common to most cloning experiments:
a) transforming bacteria
b) plating bacteria on selective medium
c) cutting DNA with restriction endonucleases
d) ligating DNA fragments
Place components of this list in the order in which they would most likely occur during a cloning experiment.
Q3) Under ideal conditions,how many copies of all the sequences of the host genome should be represented in a genomic library?
Q4) What is the fundamental purpose of creating a knockout organism?
Q5) The function of a ddNTP in DNA sequencing is to methylate guanine.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Of what advantage is it to have a multiple cloning site (multiple unique restriction sites)embedded in the lacZ component of a plasmid?
Q7) What is meant by the designation EcoRI?
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Genomics, bioinformatics, and Proteomics
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Q1) Compared with eukaryotic chromosomes,bacterial chromosomes are ________.
A) large, mainly organized in single gene transcription units without introns
B) small, mainly organized in single gene transcription units with introns
C) large, mainly organized in polygenic transcription units without introns
D) small, with high gene density
E) large, triple-helix, Z-DNA, organized in single gene units with introns
Q2) Describe the relationship between introns (size and number)and organismic complexity in eukaryotes.
Q3) What is comparative genomics?
Q4) In humans,no genes are larger than 2 kb.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the organization of the -globin gene in humans.
Q6) Humans have more DNA and more genes than any other organism.
A)True
B)False
Q7) One major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genes is that eukaryotic genes can contain internal sequences,called ________,that get removed in the mature message.
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Q8) Name the two strategic methods that scientists are using to sequence genomes.
Chapter 22: Applications and Ethics of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
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Q1) Generally,vaccines are used to stimulate the immune system by providing antigens of potential pathogens.What is the typical composition of a vaccine?
Q2) How are gene therapy and recombinant DNA technology related?
Q3) What process is effectively the true test of the functionally synthetic genome?
Q4) Alleles that differ by as little as a single nucleotide can be distinguished by synthetic probes known as ________.
Q5) What term is used to describe the new field engaged to producing more specific,effective and personally customized drugs?
Q6) In the past decades,direct-to-consumer (DTC)genetic tests have become widespread.Are such tests approved by the Food and Drug Administration?
Q7) The Genetic Testing Registry is designed to restrict public access to a variety of genetic processes.
A)True
B)False
Q8) Describe the structure of a DNA microarray and its use.
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Q9) What method have farmers used for millennia to enhance food production in plants and animals?
Chapter 23: Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) Assume that in the F of a series of crosses,1/64 of the offspring resemble one of the parents (P).How many gene pairs are involved in producing these results?
Q2) Name two mammalian traits with relatively high heritability (h²)values and two with relatively low h² values.
Q3) What is the formal expression used to examine the relative importance of genetic versus environmental factors?
Q4) Characteristics exhibited by continuously varying traits include ________.
A) sex-linked genes only
B) autosomal genes only
C) quantification by measuring, weighing, counting, etc.
D) a 9:3:3:1 ratio
E) 3:1 and 1:1 ratios
Q5) Describe the value of using twins in the study of questions relating to the relative impact of heredity versus environment.
Q6) Concordance refers to the frequency with which members of a twin pair express a different trait.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Neurogenetics
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Q1) Individuals with Huntington disease have a point mutation in a gene coding for the p53 protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How would the use of a large series of monozygotic and dizygotic twins enhance studies on the genetic basis of human behavior?
Q3) In studies attempting to determine a genetic basis for a given behavior,if the environment is held constant,and behavioral differences directly correlate with genetic differences,a genetic basis for the behavioral state is supported.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A transgenic mouse model now exists for Huntington disease in humans. A)True
B)False
Q5) Present an overview of the research dealing with the genetics of behavior in small mammals (mice or rats)and Drosophila.
Q6) What anatomical structure is responsible for the transfer of impulses between neurons?
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Chapter 25: Population and Evolutionary Genetics
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Q1) Why is mitochondrial DNA often used in construction of phylogenetic trees?
Q2) Would one expect a linear relationship between DNA sequence divergence and phylogenetic distance? Why or why not?
Q3) Provide a general definition for the term speciation.
Q4) List at least five of the assumptions that pertain to a population in a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Q5) Which method is often used to analyze proteins and nucleic acids by physical separation when estimating genetic variation in populations?
A) electrophoresis
B) centrifugation
C) absorption spectrophotometry
D) fluorometry
E) in situ hybridization
Q6) Cytochrome c is a respiratory pigment found in the mitochondria of eukaryotes.Compared with some other proteins,it has changed very slowly over long periods of time.Why?
Q7) Why are some proteins more likely than others to diverge within a species?
Q8) List at least three factors that change gene frequencies in populations.
Q9) What does the variable 2pq represent?
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