Animal Ecology Exam Review
Course Introduction
Animal Ecology explores the relationships between animals and their environments, focusing on how ecological factors influence animal behavior, distribution, and population dynamics. The course examines topics such as energy flow, food webs, predator-prey interactions, competition, and symbiosis within diverse ecosystems. Students will gain an understanding of ecological theories, conservation biology, and research methods used to analyze animal populations, preparing them to assess and address ecological challenges in natural and altered habitats.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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28 Chapters
2112 Verified Questions
2112 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An experiment is a test under controlled conditions performed to examine the validity of a hypothesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The highest level of organization of ecological systems is the ________.
Answer: biosphere
Q3) An abstract, simplified representation of a real system is referred to as a(n)________.
Answer: model
Q4) A group of individuals of the same species occupying a given area is referred to as a(n) A)community. B)biome.
C)population. D)ecosystem.
Answer: C
Q5) The ________ forms the basic unit in ecology. Answer: individual organism
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Sample Questions
Q1) The absorption and reradiation of infrared radiation by gases in the atmosphere is called the ________.
Answer: greenhouse effect
Q2) The narrow region near the Equator where trade winds meet is referred to as the ________.
Answer: intertropical convergence zone
Q3) Which of the following is an incorrect match?
A)equatorial low: rising air heated in the equatorial zone
B)subtropical high: semipermanent high-pressure belt of air at 30° north and south of the equator
C)Coriolis effect: deflection in the pattern of wind flow
D)subpolar low: right-deflected, southward-flowing stream of air
Answer: D
Q4) Precipitation is highest in polar regions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The average pattern of local, regional, or global weather conditions over a long period of time is ________.
Answer: climate
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Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary sources of oxygen in a water body are the atmosphere and A)decomposition.
B)evaporation. C)photosynthesis.
D)respiration.
Answer: C
Q2) In temperate lakes, the thermocline is most pronounced during A)spring. B)summer. C)fall. D)winter.
Answer: B
Q3) ________ is highly toxic to many species of aquatic life and thus may lead to a decline in aquatic populations.
Answer: Aluminum
Q4) An underground layer of permeable, water-bearing substrate is known as a/an ________.
Answer: aquifer
Q5) Precipitation that reaches the soil moves into the ground by ________.
Answer: infiltration
5
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of well-developed soils takes approximately 500 years.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Beer's law can be used to describe the attenuation of light in both aquatic and terrestrial environments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ________-sized particles are between 0.002 and 0.05 mm in diameter.
Q4) Describe three structural adaptations of terrestrial plants that allow them survive on land.
Q5) The vertical reduction or ________ of light through a stand can be estimated by leaf area index.
Q6) Give several possible definitions of "soil." Why is it difficult to develop a good definition of soil, even for a pedologist?
Q7) The layer of unconsolidated debris overlaying the layer of hard, unweathered rock is called the ________.
Q8) ________ particles control the water-holding capacity of soil and ion exchange.
Page 6
Q9) Draw a typical soil profile. Label and describe each of the four horizons.
Q10) ________ are negatively charged particles in the soil that attract cations.
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Sample Questions
Q1) All living things assimilate energy, reproduce, and respond to stimuli.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A bimodal distribution of a trait in a population is the result of
A)stabilizing selection.
B)natural selection.
C)directional selection.
D)disruptive selection.
Q3) What colour are the eyes of a bird heterozygous for eye colour (A = yellow, a = blue)?
A)blue
B)green
C)yellow
D)white
Q4) Genetic variation is essential for natural selection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n)________ is a population that has adapted to its unique local environmental conditions.
Q6) Phenotypic evolution is a change in ________ over time, within a population. Page 7
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plants adapted to saline habitats are called ________.
Q2) Explain why a plant growing in waterlogged soil suffers similar symptoms to a plant exposed to drought conditions. Describe the responses these plants can make to survive in such extreme environments.
Q3) Pneumatophores are typical of plants (particularly trees)
A)in arid environments.
B)exposed to fluctuating water levels.
C)flooded once each year.
D)in salt marshes.
Q4) Some plants have the ability to tolerate extreme cold, known as ________.
Q5) At light levels below the light compensation point, the rate of carbon loss due to respiration exceeds the rate of uptake in the process of photosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Water moves from regions of high water potential to regions of low water potential.
A)True
B)False
Q7) The diffusion of CO in water is ________ than the diffusion of CO in air.
Page 9
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the distinctions between ectothermy, endothermy, poikilothermy, and homeothermy.
Q2) Which solute is known to provide protection against freezing damage in some animals?
A)glucose
B)glycerol
C)salt
D)sucrose
Q3) Flying insects have a high metabolic rate when flying and can produce as much or more heat than homeotherms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following animals does NOT use lungs to acquire oxygen?
A)whale
B)frog
C)bird
D)butterfly
Q5) Discuss and describe several different strategies that herbivores use to extract nutrients from a cellulose-rich diet.
Q6) Large reptiles (e.g., alligators)are all restricted to ________ environments.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Sample Questions
Q1) An organism's ________ is its lifetime pattern of growth, development, and reproduction.
Q2) Describe the three hypotheses proposed to explain the increase in bird clutch size with an increase in latitude. Discuss which one of these hypotheses seems most probable and why.
Q3) ________ is a mode of reproduction in which an organism expends all its energy in growth and reproduction and then dies.
Q4) The dominant phenotypes in a population may be determined by factors other than natural selection.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The mode of reproduction in which individuals produce fewer young at one time and repeat reproduction multiple times throughout their life is known as ________.
Q6) Parental care is documented for all the following animals, EXCEPT A)bees.
B)crocodiles.
C)humans. D)cod.
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a graphical depiction of the age structure of a population?
A)phase plane plot
B)life table
C)age pyramid
D)age tower
Q2) Ecological density is a measure of the number of individuals per unit of available living space.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sex ratio in a population is usually fixed and does not vary among age classes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Organisms that compete with each other for territory or resources tend to distributed in a ________ fashion.
A)random
B)uniform
C)clumped
D)disorganized
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a given life table, x represents the age classes of that population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Exponential population growth does not occur in natural populations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The rate at which a population returns to an equilibrium after a disturbance is known as
A)tolerance range.
B)return time.
C)resistance.
D)resilience.
Q4) Explain how is used by demographers to predict the future size of a population.
Q5) Exponential growth is characteristic of populations that inhabit favourable environments at high densities.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The net reproductive rate (R )is equal to ________ when females, on average, replace themselves in a population.
Page 13
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Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Contrast the density-dependent and density-independent mechanisms of population regulation.
Q2) The home range of an animal is usually larger for
A)a carnivorous species than for a herbivorous species of the same body size.
B)females than males of the same species.
C)an immature male than for an adult male of the same species.
D)a smaller species than for a larger species.
Q3) In general, the size of an animal's territory
A)is smaller when food is abundant and concentrated.
B)is larger when food is abundant and concentrated.
C)is unrelated to animal body size.
D)is unrelated to food availability.
Q4) A plant grown at high density will produce ________ seeds than the same plant grown at low density.
Q5) When experimental plants (Atriplex prostrata)were grown at high densities
A)individual growth rates increased.
B)the proportion of resources allocated to leaf production increased.
C)individual plant weight increased.
D)net photosynthetic rate increased.
Q6) What is competition? Compare and contrast scramble and contest competition.
Page 14
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The extinction rate (E)of a metapopulation ________ as the proportion of patches occupied (P)increases.
Q2) In a typical metapopulation
A)suitable habitat is relatively uniform rather than patchy.
B)even the largest subpopulations are at risk of extinction.
C)the isolation of habitat patches prevent recolonization after local extinction.
D)the dynamics of local populations are synchronized.
Q3) An interspecific metapopulation occurs when two species can ________ successfully.
A)occupy the same niche
B)combine their subpopulations
C)share resources
D)hybridize
Q4) In the context of a metapopulation, explain how patch size and its degree of isolation affect the equilibrium value of P (proportion of patches occupied).
Q5) Describe the assumptions made to mathematically model metapopulation dynamics. Are these assumptions appropriate? Why or why not?
Q6) ________ rate is affected by fecundity and mode of reproduction.
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The portion of potential resources and conditions that an organism actually exploits as a result of interactions with other species is its
A)home range.
B)territory.
C)realized niche.
D)fundamental niche.
Q2) Climatic variation can have both density-dependent and density-independent effects on populations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The biologist Tilman used ________ to study competition between species.
A)diatoms
B)prairie plants
C)Paramecium
D)flour beetles
Q4) Use a graph of the Lotka-Volterra equations to show how the outcome of competition between two species depends on the population carrying capacity.
Q5) Outline three reasons why competition can lead to long-term coexistence of many species.
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some plants may be able to compensate for the loss of leaves to herbivores by increasing the rate of photosynthesis in remaining leaves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe several different strategies that a plant can employ to counteract herbivory before, during, and after it occurs. What are some of the costs associated with these defence mechanisms?
Q3) What does the slope represent in a graph that plots prey population (Np )against the per capita consumption rate of predation?
A)efficiency of predation (c)
B)efficiency with which food is converted into predator reproduction (b)
C)predator population growth rate (r)
D)the rate of increase in prey availability
Q4) Which of the following is functionally a true predator?
A)parasite
B)planktivore
C)grazer
D)parasitoid
Q5) ________ defences are fixed features of an organism.
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Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe one pre-infection and two post-infection responses that animal hosts might have to parasites.
Q2) Which of the following types of mutualisms is a defensive mutualism?
A)corals and zooxanthellae
B)bees and flowers
C)ants and acacias
D)birds and fruits
Q3) The ________ host is a host species that harbors a developmental stage of a parasite, but in which the parasite does not reach maturity.
Q4) Symbiosis is an interaction between two species that is beneficial to both species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An immune response is triggered when a foreign object, such as a virus or bacteria, enters the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the difference between mutualism and commensalism.
Q7) Discuss the potential benefits of pollination between a plant and a pollinator.
18
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Questions
Q1) Explain the difference between bottom-up and top-down control of community structure. Do you think one or the other is most important, or some combination of both? Why?
Q2) Draw a diagram of a simple food web with three trophic levels, and describe the difference between a food chain and a food web
Q3) A null model for the impact of species interactions on communities assumes that species interactions have strong influences on community structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The characteristics of a community are generally not dependent on the spatial scale at which the community is examined because communities are tightly integrated groups of species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Competition among plant species rarely involves only a single resource.
A)True
B)False
Q6) When a single or few species are most prevalent in a community, the species are called ________.
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define Old Growth and outline the strengths and weakness of the Canadian approach to these types of forests.
Q2) An example of secondary succession is
A)grasses colonizing sand dunes.
B)lichens colonizing a rock.
C)weeds colonizing a volcanic lava flow.
D)crabgrass colonizing an abandoned wheat field.
Q3) ________ is a temporal change in community composition and structure.
Q4) Primary succession occurs when the community at a site is disturbed and then replaced by a different community.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Changes in temperature and precipitation are examples of ________ changes.
A)autogenic
B)allogenic
C)unpredictable
D)inconsequential
Q6) Using specific examples for each, explain the differences between primary and secondary succession.
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Q7) Outline and describe the three proposed mechanisms used in early succession.
Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) The place where the edge of one landscape patch meets the edge of another is called a(n)________.
Q2) A(n)________ species lives within the borders of a habitat patch, avoiding edges where habitat change is abrupt.
Q3) Species that are adapted to living at the borders of patches of habitat are called ________ species.
Q4) Patch size is generally more important for plant populations than for animal populations.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The patchwork of different types of land cover is called a ________.
Q6) Using a graph, illustrate how the number of species on an island can be affected by its size and distance from a mainland. What are the two important demographic variables that vary with the size of an island and its distance from a mainland?
Q7) Explain the potential value of corridors to large-bodied species such as carnivores.
Q8) The study of the causes and ecological consequences of spatial patterns on the landscape is called ________.
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increasing nutrient availability tends to ________ plant diversity in a community.
A)not affect
B)decrease
C)increase
D)increase the first year but thereafter decrease
Q2) The science of system regulation is called A)cybernetics.
B)ecology.
C)intelligent design.
D)industrialisation.
Q3) Briefly explain the difference in above and below ground plant competition.
Q4) Compare and contrast resistance and resilience.
Q5) Describe the response that plant communities typically exhibit when nutrients are added, and summarize the prevailing hypothesis to explain this response.
Q6) Explain the ecosystem concept. How is it different from population ecology?
Q7) Define what is meant by an alternative stable state.
Q8) A key element in BEF is that diversity drives ecosystem function. A)True B)False
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Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Q1) In a body of water, the depth at which the availability of light is such that the rate of photosynthesis equals the rate of respiration is called the ________ depth.
Q2) For photosynthesis and productivity to occur, a plant must open its ________ to take in carbon dioxide.
Q3) Energy from primary production that remains after respiration is called net primary production.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How are NPP and biomass different?
Q5) The rate of energy storage as organic matter after respiration is called ________ primary productivity.
Q6) ________ primary production is the total rate of photosynthesis, or energy assimilated by plants.
Q7) Which organism is most likely to have the highest assimilation efficiency?
A)an endothermic carnivore, such as a lion
B)an ectothermic carnivore, such as a snake
C)an endothermic herbivore, such as a deer
D)an ectothermic herbivore, such as a grasshopper
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Q1) Define mineralization and immobilization, and discuss the differences between them.
Q2) Describe one major difference between nutrient cycling in a river and nutrient cycling in a lake.
Q3) Roots can alter the chemical environment of the rhizosphere by exuding A)carbon.
B)nitrogen.
C)enzymes.
D)nothing. Toots can only absorb, they cannot exude.
Q4) ________ is the process by which plants absorb a portion of their nutrients from senescing tissues to be stored and used for the production of new tissues.
Q5) In open water ecosystems, decomposition occurs primarily in the A)thermocline.
B)hypolimnion.
C)epilimnion.
D)benthic zone.
Q6) Explain how the "quality" of plant-derived organic matter changes during the course of decomposition.
Q7) Describe the soil microbial loop.
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest pool of nitrogen is
A)the atmosphere.
B)the oceans.
C)living organisms.
D)dead organisms.
Q2) Precipitation brings appreciable quantities of nutrients into ecosystems that are collectively called ________.
Q3) Describe how ozone is formed at different levels of the atmosphere and how biological organisms are affected by ozone.
Q4) One way that sulfur enters the atmosphere is through volcanic activity.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In ________ biogeochemical cycles, the main reservoirs of nutrients are the soil, rocks, and minerals.
A)sedimentary
B)gaseous
C)terrestrial
D)aquatic
Q6) The major source of free oxygen that supports life on Earth is the ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) Most deserts are located
A)near the equator.
B)in the southern hemisphere.
C)in the rainshadow of mountain ranges.
D)near coastal areas with warm oceanic currents.
Q2) Deserts often occur in the rain shadow of mountain ranges.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A(n)________ is a classification of plant formations and associated animal life into biotic units based on the predominant plant types, with at least eight major terrestrial types.
Q4) The vegetation of tundra is dominated by
A)broadleaf deciduous trees.
B)short plants such as sedges, heaths, and willow.
C)needle-leaf evergreen trees.
D)sclerophyllous broadleaf evergreen shrubs.
Q5) Leaves that live for only a single year or growing season are classified as ________.
Q6) Frozen, treeless plains dominated by sedges, heaths, and willows at high latitudes and elevations are referred to as ________.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) In rivers and streams, decomposition takes place mostly in riffles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Many zooplankton migrate to the surface to graze on phytoplankton during the day and retreat to deeper water during the night.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Lakes that received large amounts of organic matter from surrounding land, particularly in the form of humic materials that stain the water brown, are called ________ lakes.
Q4) Streams generally have a ________ temperature at their headwaters than toward their outlet.
Q5) The general term for flowing bodies of water is
A)lentic.
B)lotic.
C)limnetic.
D)turbulent.
Q6) As a stream flows down its course, it generally becomes warmer and slower.
A)True
B)False
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) Describe the effects of tides on the composition of animal communities in salt marshes.
Q2) The diversity of organisms is greater in the intertidal zone of rocky shores than in sandy and muddy shores.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Freshwater wetlands dominated by emergent herbaceous vegetation are called ________.
Q4) Name three ecological zones within a rocky shore and discuss the different forms of life that occur in each.
Q5) Mangrove swamps
A)are formed by a single species of tree adapted to variable salinities.
B)have relatively anoxic soils.
C)occur mostly in temperate latitudes.
D)typically occur along rocky coastlines subjected to heavy wave action.
Q6) Outline the interacting components that have led to the degradation of the Coote's Paradise Marsh in Lake Ontario. Can it recover?
Q7) Discuss the adaptations of mangrove trees to their environment.
Q8) Explain the different phenotypes observed in Spartina alternifolia.
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) Compare and contrast three agricultural practices. What are the trade-offs for each and how do they differ from a natural system?
Q2) Although industrialized agriculture produces small quantities of crops, it takes very little energy input to do so.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The technique of adding and comparing costs and benefits at different points in time is referred to as
A)benefit-cost analysis.
B)discounting.
C)external analysis.
D)profit-debt analysis.
Q4) Ninety percent of our global food supply comes from ________ animals and ________ plants.
A)4, 3
B)8, 15
C)10, 25
D)It varies by region.
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Q5) A community that consists of a mixture of crop species is called a(n)________.
Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) The goal of ________ ecology is to return an ecosystem to a close approximation of its conditions prior to disturbance through the application of ecological principles.
Q2) As the structural diversity of plant communities increases, the species richness of animals also increases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The species richness of terrestrial plants and animals generally increases with elevation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the past 100 million years, the number of species of which group of plants has been increasing?
A)arthrophytes (e.g., horsetails)
B)pteridophytes (ferns)
C)gymnosperms (e.g., ginkgos, cycads, conifers)
D)angiosperms (flowering plants)
Q5) A species found to naturally occur in a single geographic area and nowhere else is regarded as ________ to that location.
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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Q1) Several greenhouse gases are more effective at trapping heat than carbon dioxide.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss the roles of terrestrial and oceanic ecosystems in absorbing carbon dioxide.
Q3) In response to elevated atmospheric carbon dioxide, primary productivity is more likely to increase in seasonally dry environments than in seasonally moist environments.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Atmospheric scientists have developed complex computer models of Earth's climate system called general ________ models.
Q5) Humans are causing the first instances of significant climate change in Earth's history.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The Earth's terrestrial ecosystems are net producers of carbon.
A)True
B)False
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