Animal Ecology Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Animal Ecology explores the relationships between animals and their environments, focusing on how ecological factors influence behavior, distribution, population dynamics, and community interactions. The course covers topics such as habitat selection, foraging strategies, predator-prey interactions, competition, symbiosis, and the impacts of environmental change on animal populations. Through lectures, readings, and practical activities, students gain an understanding of ecological principles as they apply to animal life, integrating concepts from evolution, physiology, and environmental science to analyze real-world ecological issues affecting animal communities.
Recommended Textbook
Elements of Ecology 1st Canadian Edition by Thomas M. Smith
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2112 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is meant by "the environment is defined relative to the individual"?
Answer: The environment considers all external factors that influence survival, growth, and reproduction of an organism. What constitutes part of the environment for one organism may play no role in the life of another and thus is not part of its environment. Therefore the term environment is relative.
Q2) At the ________ level, an ecologist might focus on the factors that affect the relative abundance of various populations in the area.
Answer: community
Q3) An ecologist who focuses on the individual would study all of the following, EXCEPT A)morphology.
B)physiology.
C)behaviour.
D)death rate.
Answer: D
Q4) Bird wingspan would be considered ________ data. Answer: numerical
Q5) The ________ forms the basic unit in ecology.
Answer: individual organism
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Chapter 2: Climate
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Q1) Habitats in the Northern Hemisphere that are positioned on north-facing slopes generally ________ than those habitats situated on south-facing slopes.
A)have a higher rate of evaporation
B)have a greater soil moisture
C)experience higher air temperatures
D)experience greater fluxes in weather conditions
Answer: B
Q2) Solar radiation is more direct in tropical latitudes than in temperate latitudes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Of the following areas on Earth's surface, which area moves fastest and has the greatest linear velocity?
A)the North Pole (90° north)
B)Barcelona, Spain (41° north)
C)the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° south)
D)the Equator (0°)
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: The Aquatic Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe several adaptations that organisms have developed in response to the minimal light environments in deep water.
Answer: Organisms in deep water have developed several adaptations to survive in minimal light environments. One common adaptation is bioluminescence, where organisms produce their own light through chemical reactions. This allows them to attract prey, communicate with others, or camouflage themselves from predators. Another adaptation is the development of large eyes or light-sensitive organs to maximize the detection of any available light. Some organisms have also evolved to have transparent or reflective bodies to better utilize the limited light that reaches them. Additionally, many deep-sea organisms have heightened senses of smell and touch to compensate for the lack of visual cues in their environment. Overall, these adaptations allow organisms to thrive in the challenging conditions of the deep sea.
Q2) Aquatic ecosystems are divided into two major categories: freshwater and
Answer: salt water, or marine
Q3) The position of the thermocline is a permanent feature in tropical waters.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: The Terrestrial Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define soil texture and describe two different ways that texture may influence the soil function.
Q2) Perhaps the greatest constraint imposed on life in terrestrial environments is A)low nutrient availability.
B)ultraviolet radiation.
C)access to water.
D)difficulty of dispersal.
Q3) Cryosols are characteristic of the high latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The vertical reduction or ________ of light through a stand can be estimated by leaf area index.
Q5) Give several possible definitions of "soil." Why is it difficult to develop a good definition of soil, even for a pedologist?
Q6) The wavelengths that make up the visible light spectrum are referred to as ________ radiation.
Q7) The bedrock lies above the C horizon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Ecological Genetics: Adaptation and Natural Selection
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Q1) In natural populations, the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg principle are usually met.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Natural selection is a function of A)reproduction.
B)survival.
C)survival and size.
D)reproduction and survival.
Q3) A bimodal distribution of a trait in a population is the result of A)stabilizing selection.
B)natural selection.
C)directional selection.
D)disruptive selection.
Q4) According to the research of Beren Robinson, how would you expect stickleback species to differ between two lakes, one of which supports two species of stickleback and the other which has a single species?
Q5) Organisms can respond to both temporal and ________ changes in the environment.
Q6) ________ are inheritable changes in a gene or chromosome. Page 7
Q7) Why are organisms not 'perfectly' adapted to their environment?
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Chapter 6: Plant Adaptations to the Environment
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Q1) Net CO uptake by a plant is greatest
A)when PAR equals zero.
B)at the light compensation point.
C)during photoinhibition.
D)at the light saturation point.
Q2) The light and dark reactions of photosynthesis occur in different areas of the chloroplast.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In tropical regions with distinct wet and dry seasons, plants that drop their leaves at the onset of the dry season are termed ________.
Q4) A plant adapted to a dry, sunny environment might be expected to have A)thin, flexible leaves.
B)large leaves.
C)a minimal root system.
D)small leaves.
Q5) Describe two plant adaptations to low light and explain why these adaptations are unsuitable for plants in high-light environments.
Q6) The diffusion of CO in water is ________ than the diffusion of CO in air.
9
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Chapter 7: Animal Adaptations to the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the risks associated with basking? How can they be mitigated?
Q2) Discuss and describe several different strategies that herbivores use to extract nutrients from a cellulose-rich diet.
Q3) The basal metabolic rate per unit of body mass is highest in a
A)large endotherm.
B)small endotherm.
C)large ectotherm.
D)small ectotherm.
Q4) Homeotherms can sustain a higher level of physical activity for longer periods of time than poikilotherms.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The smaller a homeotherm, the ________ the loss of heat to the surrounding environment.
Q6) Explain the pathway involved to determine an animal's circadian rhythm. Include the following terms in your explanation: critical day length, light, melatonin, photoperiod, photoreception, pineal gland, and pituitary gland.
Q7) The highest-quality plant food for herbivores is high in ________.
Q8) ________ is a long, seasonal torpor characterized by a cessation of activity.
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Chapter 8: Life History Patterns
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Sample Questions
Q1) Organisms reproduce either sexually or asexually, but never both.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Semelparous organisms initially allocate energy into growth, development, and energy storage and later allocate energy into one massive reproductive effort before dying.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Polygyny is more likely to occur as differences in territory quality increase between territorial males.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A)Perennial plants generally delay reproduction until they have attained a certain size.
B)Fecundity in poikilothermic animals, such as fish, increases with age.
C)The number of eggs produced by a female loggerhead sea turtle is constrained by her body size.
D)Fecundity generally declines with body size in endotherms.
Q5) Seed number is negatively correlated with seed ________.
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Chapter 9: Properties of Populations
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Q1) When referring to a population, it is important to explicitly define its ________.
Q2) The population is a genetic unit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Populations can be divided into three ecologically important age classes: pre-reproductive, reproductive, and ________.
Q4) The three common distribution patterns of a population within a habitat are ________, ________, and ________.
Q5) Jack Pine and Black Spruce have extended their ranges ________ since the end of the last ice age.
A)northward
B)southward
C)eastward
D)westward
Q6) Population ________ is the number of individuals per unit area, or per unit volume.
Q7) ________ defines the size of a population.
Q8) When individuals move out of a subpopulation, it is referred to as ________.
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Chapter 10: Population Growth
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Q1) Immigration and emigration occurs within an open population.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A mortality curve plots mortality rate (q )against ________.
Q3) A population in which equals one has reached a stable-age distribution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most life tables have been constructed for
A)short-lived plants.
B)insects.
C)long-lived vertebrates.
D)short-lived mammals.
Q5) The ________ equals the number of births per female of age x.
A)crude birth rate
B)age-specific birth rate
C)gross reproductive rate
D)net reproductive rate
Q6) A type ________ survivorship curve is typical of populations in which the mortality rate of juveniles is very high.
Q7) The per capita death rate (d)________ with population size.
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Chapter 11: Intraspecific Population Regulation
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Q1) The area that an animal normally uses during a year is its ________.
Q2) The progressive decline in density and increase in biomass of remaining individuals in a population is known as ________.
Q3) When experimental plants (Atriplex prostrata)were grown at high densities
A)individual growth rates increased.
B)the proportion of resources allocated to leaf production increased.
C)individual plant weight increased.
D)net photosynthetic rate increased.
Q4) Explain root grafts in jack pine stands. How are they like altruism?
Q5) In general, the size of an animal's territory
A)is smaller when food is abundant and concentrated.
B)is larger when food is abundant and concentrated.
C)is unrelated to animal body size.
D)is unrelated to food availability.
Q6) Among mammal species, the home range size is negatively correlated with body size.
A)True
B)False
Q7) What is competition? Compare and contrast scramble and contest competition.
Page 14
Q8) Briefly explain the concept of 'new ecology'.
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Chapter 12: Metapopulations
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Q1) A subspecies encompasses the largest geographic range in the population concept hierarchy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Define an interspecific metapopulation. What are the repercussions of this concept in conservation management?
Q3) ________ size and ________ influence the dynamics of patch occupancy.
Q4) A ________ consists of a group of local, interacting subpopulations that are linked by dispersal.
Q5) At the ________, or within-patch scale, individuals move and interact with each other in the course of their routine feeding and breeding activities.
Q6) In a typical metapopulation
A)suitable habitat is relatively uniform rather than patchy.
B)even the largest subpopulations are at risk of extinction.
C)the isolation of habitat patches prevent recolonization after local extinction.
D)the dynamics of local populations are synchronized.
Q7) A ________ is a collection of metapopulations in a geographic region.
Q8) ________ rate is affected by fecundity and mode of reproduction.
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Chapter 13: Interspecific Competition
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Q1) The Russian biologist G. Gause was one of the first to support the Lotka-Volterra equations by studying the competitive interactions of ________.
Q2) According to T. Schoener, there are six types of competitive interactions among species. Use examples to describe four types of these competitive interactions.
Q3) According to the Lotka-Volterra equations, which of the following is NOT an expected outcome of competitive interactions between two species?
A)Species 1 drives species 2 to extinction.
B)Species 2 drives species 1 to extinction.
C)Both species coexist.
D)The population sizes of both species increase to infinity.
Q4) Competition for one resource often influences the ability of an organism to access other resources.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain what is meant by the paradox of plankton.
Q6) The portion of the fundamental niche that an organism actually exploits in the presence of competitors is called its ________ niche.
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Chapter 14: Predation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most grasses tolerate grazing and actually benefit from it.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In Richardson's ground squirrels, the sound used to warn kin directly, is the ________ sound.
A)chuck
B)chirp
C)whistle
D)ultrasonic
Q3) A predator that consumes animal tissue is called a ________.
Q4) Graphically illustrate an example of the three-way interaction between a carnivore, an herbivore, and a plant. Explain how the plant is affected by both direct and indirect interactions.
Q5) What does the slope represent in a graph that plots prey population (Np )against the per capita consumption rate of predation?
A)efficiency of predation (c)
B)efficiency with which food is converted into predator reproduction (b)
C)predator population growth rate (r)
D)the rate of increase in prey availability
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Chapter 15: Parasitism and Mutualism
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Q1) A relationship between two species in which one species benefits and the other is not significantly affected is called ________.
Q2) Nitrogen is important in the mutualism between legume plants and Rhizobium bacteria.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Animal parasites can be either ecto- or endoparasites, whereas all plant parasites live inside the plant tissue as endoparasites.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parasites always complete their life cycle in a single host species.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is an ectoparasite?
A)virus that inhabits the lymphatic system
B)bacterium that attacks the brain
C)tick that attaches to the skin
D)fluke that inhabits the bloodstream
Q6) Discuss the differences between direct and indirect transmission of a parasite.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Community Structure
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Q1) Explain the difference between the organismal concept of communities and the individualistic continuum concept. Which of these concepts best describes the majority of communities? Explain your answer.
Q2) A group of species in a community that all exploit the same common resource is called a
A)niche.
B)guild.
C)trophic level.
D)food chain.
Q3) All the hummingbirds and other nectar-feeding birds in a community could be considered a guild.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Ecologists usually define the species diversity of a community as A)the number of species in a community.
B)the evenness of relative abundances of the species in a community.
C)a combination of A and B.
D)none of the above.
Q5) Use examples to illustrate the difference between a dominant species and a keystone species.
19
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Chapter 17: Community Dynamics
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Q1) A good example of succession involving heterotrophic species occurs when dead organic matter is decomposed over long periods of time.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Succession involves
A)only autotrophic species.
B)only heterotrophic species.
C)both autotrophic and heterotrophic species.
D)only plants.
Q3) The tolerance model of succession posits that later successional species are neither inhibited nor aided by species of earlier stages.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Using specific examples for each, describe the differences between autogenic and allogenic environmental changes that drive succession.
Q5) The study of the distribution and abundance of ancient organisms and their relationship to the environment is ________.
Q6) Briefly describe the cycle of succession in marshes.
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Chapter 18: Landscape Ecology
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Q1) The ________ of a disturbance is the mean number of disturbances that occur within a particular time interval.
Q2) Briefly explain how silviculture practises could reduce devastating spruce budworm outbreaks. What are the disadvantages of this method and what are the alternative treatment options?
Q3) The ________ mosaic view of the landscape considers landscapes as composed of multiple patches or communities, each in a different phase of successional development due to disturbances.
Q4) Using an example, explain how human and natural forces can combine to create habitat patches.
Q5) The place where the edge of one landscape patch meets the edge of another is called a(n)________.
Q6) A(n)________ species lives within the borders of a habitat patch, avoiding edges where habitat change is abrupt.
Q7) Habitat corridors are usually of human origin.
A)True
B)False
Q8) The patchwork of different types of land cover is called a ________.
Q9) Explain the role of disturbances in the shifting-mosaic view of the landscape.
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Chapter 19: Systems Ecology
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Q1) According to Gaia supporters, the critical components of system function for the planet are located in the A)atmosphere. B)oceans.
C)plant life. D)soil.
Q2) Explain the Gaia hypothesis in the context of cybernetics.
Q3) Ecosystem ecology identifies each ecosystem as discrete entities with defined barriers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Total species diversity, or species richness, of individual communities is referred to as ________ diversity.
Q5) Ecosystems are open systems requiring input from outside sources. A)True B)False
Q6) Explain the ecosystem concept. How is it different from population ecology?
Q7) Explain why the ecosystem can be considered the basic unit of nature.
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Q8) Define the concepts of dynamic equilibrium and pulsing states as they apply to ecosystems.
Chapter 20: Ecosystem Energetic
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Q1) Net primary productivity refers to
A)the total rate of photosynthesis, or energy assimilated, by autotrophs.
B)the rate of energy storage as organic matter by autotrophs after respiration is deducted.
C)the amount of accumulated organic matter found in an area at a given time.
D)the production of new tissues and offspring by heterotrophs.
Q2) Net primary productivity is greater in the open ocean than along the coast.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Allochthonous carbon input is most commonly found in ________ ecosystems.
A)terrestrial
B)stream
C)desert
D)ocean
Q4) Net primary productivity is greater in moist climates than in dry climates. A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the effects of temperature, moisture, length of photosynthetic period, and nutrient availability on net primary productivity in terrestrial ecosystems.
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Chapter 21: Decomposition and Nutrient Cycling
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Q1) Roots can alter the chemical environment of the rhizosphere by exuding A)carbon.
B)nitrogen.
C)enzymes.
D)nothing. Toots can only absorb, they cannot exude.
Q2) Aquatic arthropods that fragment organic particles and also eat bacteria and fungi on the surface of the litter are called A)shredders.
B)filtering collectors.
C)gathering collectors.
D)grazers.
Q3) Describe the soil microbial loop.
Q4) Nutrient "spiraling" occurs in streams and rivers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The region of the open ocean where the north and south equatorial currents meet is deficient in nutrients and supports little life.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Biogeochemical Cycles
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Q1) Carbon cycles more quickly through cold and dry ecosystems than it does through warm and wet ecosystems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the era post-nuclear testing (after the 1950s), there was a movement to switch from breast-feeding to a formula diet due to the high levels of radiation in breast milk.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most carbon is buried in sedimentary rocks.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In ________ biogeochemical cycles, the main reservoirs of nutrients are the atmosphere and the oceans.
A)sedimentary
B)gaseous
C)aquatic
D)terrestrial
Q5) Nitrogen is available to plants in two forms: ammonium and ________.
Q6) There are two basic types of biogeochemical cycles: gaseous and ________.
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Chapter 23: Terrestrial Ecosystems
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Q1) The taiga covers ________ of Canada's landmass.
A)15%
B)35%
C)50%
D)Taiga isn't found in Canada.
Q2) The largest terrestrial biome on Earth is the A)tropical rainforest.
B)desert.
C)tundra.
D)boreal forest.
Q3) Deciduous leaves usually live for more than a single year or growing season.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In the tropical latitudes, the length of the dry season increases with distance from the equator.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify the four type of Canadian grasslands. Where are they located and why are they in those locations?
Page 26
Q6) Leaves that live for more than a year are classified as ________.
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Chapter 24: Aquatic Ecosystems
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Q1) In lakes and ponds, phytoplankton and zooplankton are most abundant in the A)benthic zone.
B)littoral zone.
C)limnetic zone.
D)profundal zone.
Q2) Describe the differences between phytoplankton, zooplankton, and nekton. How do they interact with each other?
Q3) Describe the differences between eutrophic and oligotrophic lakes. What conditions lead to the natural formation of each?
Q4) In lakes and ponds, oxygen concentrations are lowest in the A)benthic zone.
B)littoral zone.
C)limnetic zone.
D)profundal zone.
Q5) The deepest water of an ocean in deep-sea trenches and canyons is referred to as the hadalpelagic zone.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________ refers to the nutrient enrichment of aquatic ecosystems.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Coastal and Wetland Ecosystems
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Q1) The initial factor which set about the decline of Coote's Paradise Marsh in Lake Ontario was ________.
A)wind action leading to high turbidity
B)the loss of emergents due to high water levels
C)algal blooms due to sewage discharge
D)predation by carp
Q2) Tiny organisms living between the particles of sand and mud on beaches are collectively referred to as ________.
Q3) In peatlands, the rate of decomposition exceeds the rate of organic production.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most organisms in the intertidal zone of sandy shores burrow into the sand. A)True
B)False
Q5) Name three ecological zones within a rocky shore and discuss the different forms of life that occur in each.
Q6) Discuss the adaptations of mangrove trees to their environment.
Q7) The ________ fringe occurs above the ocean along a rocky shoreline and is contacted by salt water only once every two weeks during spring tides.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Population Growth, Resource Use, and Sustainability
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Q1) The strategy of harvesting a resource at a rate equal to the rate at which it is renewed is referred to as the maximum ________ yield.
Q2) ________ is a technique employed to add and compare costs and benefits that occur at different points in time.
Q3) The negative consequences of harvesting a natural resource, such as the soil erosion and sedimentation of a river that occur after a forest is logged, typically are not included in the market price of the resource; these costs are referred to as A)externalities.
B)byproducts.
C)coincidentals.
D)unintended consequences.
Q4) Explain how a natural ecosystem 'manages' its nutrients.
Q5) Industrialized agriculture depends on crop rotation to naturally maintain concentrations of plant nutrients in the soils and to sustainably maintain productivity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The amount of a resource harvested per unit time is called ________.
Page 29
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Chapter 27: Conservation Ecology
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Q1) By 2011, we had identified ________ species, while the speculated total number was closer to 9 - 10 million.
A)1)4 million
B)1)9 million
C)5 million
D)8)7 million
Q2) The dispersal of plants and animals from one reserve to another within a network of reserves is best accomplished by
A)establishing buffer zones around reserves.
B)linking reserves with habitat corridors.
C)reintroducing individuals born and raised in captivity.
D)relocating individuals captured within their natural habitat.
Q3) The species richness of terrestrial plants and animals generally increases with elevation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What single environmental factor is most likely to shift the geographic ranges of many species, thus altering regional patterns of diversity?
Q5) The mass extinction of dinosaurs occurred at the end of the ________ period.
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Chapter 28: Global Climate Change
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/45207
Sample Questions
Q1) Deforestation is a major cause of the recent rise in concentrations of the atmospheric gas ________.
Q2) The absorption of thermal (long-wave)radiation emitted by the Earth's surface and atmosphere by naturally occurring chemical compounds in the atmosphere is a phenomenon referred to as the ________ effect.
Q3) Atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide are rising.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As a consequence of global climate change, human populations in low-lying coastal areas will become threatened by rising sea levels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Mosquitoes will die at temperatures ________ or humidity ________.
A)> 25°C; < 50%
B)> 35°C; < 25%
C)< 35°C; >25%
D)> 45°C; < 5%
Q6) What are thought to be the major causes of the recent rise in atmospheric concentrations of carbon dioxide?
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