Anatomy Review Questions
Course Introduction
Anatomy is the scientific study of the structure and organization of living organisms, particularly focusing on the human body. This course explores the form and relationship of bodily structures, from the cellular level to organ systems, using both macroscopic and microscopic perspectives. Students will examine the major systems of the body, including musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, nervous, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems, emphasizing their interdependence and functional significance. Through laboratory work with models, diagrams, and, where available, cadaveric specimens, learners gain a comprehensive understanding of anatomical terminology, spatial orientation, and the foundations necessary for advanced study in health and medical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Larsens Human Embryology 5th Edition by Gary C. Schoenwolf
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21 Chapters
248 Verified Questions
248 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of embryogenesis is characterized by extensive cell rearrangements that result in formation of a multilayered embryo?
A) Organogenesis
B) Cleavage
C) Oogenesis.
D) Spermatogenesis,
E) Fertilization
F) Gastrulation
Answer: F
Q2) The period of the fetus occurs during which weeks postfertilization?
A) 1-4
B) 1-8
C) 1-12
D) 5-38
E) 9-38
F) 13-38
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Gametogenesis, Fertilization, and First Week
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Sample Questions
Q1) RU-486 is an effective abortifacient.It acts by which mechanism?
A) Blocking oogenesis
B) Causing menstruation
C) Blocking ovulation
D) Causing polyspermy
E) Blocking capacitation
Answer: B
Q2) The birth control pill acts by blocking which process?
A) Fertilization
B) Ovulation
C) Cleavage
D) Capacitation
E) Implantation
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Second Week: Becoming Bilaminar and Fully Implanting
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher inactivates the Sox17 gene in an animal model.As a result of this,one of the primary germ layers fails to form.What germ layer is most likely to be affected?
A) Ectoderm
B) Somatic mesoderm
C) Splanchnic mesoderm
D) Extraembryonic mesoderm
E) Endoderm
Answer: E
Q2) A 45-year-old woman who tests positive on a home pregnancy test is later diagnosed with a complete hydatidiform mole.What is unusual about the chromosomes of complete moles?
A) All chromosomes are derived from the mother.
B) All chromosomes are derived from the father.
C) Roughly two-thirds of the chromosomes are derived from the mother.
D) 23 chromosomes are present.
E) 69 chromosomes are present.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Third Week: Becoming Trilaminar and Establishing Body Axes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which tissues ingress through the cranial end of the primitive streak?
A) Prospective neural plate
B) Prospective cardiogenic mesoderm
C) Prospective extraembryonic mesoderm
D) Prospective surface ectoderm
E) Prospective lateral plate mesoderm
F) Prospective placodal ectoderm
Q2) A man with recurrent respiratory infections and infertility is diagnosed with Kartagener syndrome.Mutations in the gene encoding which protein cause this syndrome?
A) Dynein
B) Surfactant
C) FGF8
D) BMP2
E) Insulin
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Chapter 5: Fourth Week: Forming the Embryo
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Sample Questions
Q1) A first-year surgery resident sees a child with a skin-covered neural tube defect.The chief resident says that the defect was caused by abnormal secondary neurulation.Assuming this is true,at what level of the CNS would the defect occur?
A) Brain
B) Upper cervical spinal cord
C) Lower cervical spinal cord
D) Upper thoracic spinal cord
E) Lower thoracic spinal cord
F) Lumbosacral and/or coccygeal spinal cord
Q2) A researcher overexpresses the actin-binding protein Shroom in the surface ectoderm.What change in the ectodermal cells would this overexpression cause?
A) The cells would be expected to die.
B) The cells would be expected to undergo convergent extension.
C) The cells would be expected to undergo mitosis.
D) The cells would be expected to undergo meiosis.
E) The cells would be expected to undergo apical constriction.
F) The cells would be expected to undergo an epithelial-to-mesenchymal transformation.
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Chapter 6: Principles and Mechanisms of Morphogenesis and Dysmorphogenesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A baby is born with tracheoesophageal fistula.Genetic evaluation identified a mutation in GLI3.Which developmental signaling pathway is involved?
A) SHH
B) FGF
C) WNT
D) TGFBETA
E) NOTCH-DELTA
Q2) Mutations in which gene or its regulatory region when mutated in human embryos can cause either holoprosencephaly and preaxial polydactyly?
A) FGF10
B) HOXD13
C) WNT11
D) INTEGRINBETA4
E) SHH
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Chapter 7: Fetal Development and the Fetus As a Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) On a routine visit,your patient,who has just completed the fifth month (gestational age)of her pregnancy,asks: how big is my child? What is the correct answer to her question?
A) About 5.5 cm or 2 inches crown-rump length
B) About 12 cm or 4.5 inches crown-rump length
C) About 30 cm or 12 inches crown-rump length
D) About 42.5 cm or 16.5 inches crown-rump length
E) About 51 cm or 20 inches crown-rump length
Q2) An Rh mother delivers her first child,a boy who is Rh+.The mother intends to have several more children.What should you do as her physician to prevent future problems?
A) Do nothing, as no action is recommended.
B) Give the newborn child a transfusion of Rh blood.
C) Give the mother a transfusion of Rh+ blood.
D) Administer anti-Rh antibodies (RhoGAM) to the newborn child.
E) Administer anti-Rh antibodies (RhoGAM) to the mother.
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Chapter 8: Development of the Skin and Its Derivatives
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Sample Questions
Q1) During embryonic development,both primary and secondary teeth develop,but the secondary teeth arrest their development.Growth and further development of the secondary teeth is later reinitiated during childhood.At what stage of tooth development are the secondary teeth arrested?
A) Bud stage
B) Cap stage
C) Bell stage
Q2) Nevoid basal cell carcinoma or Gorlin syndrome predisposes individuals to basal cell carcinomas and is due to increased activity in a signaling pathway.Which signaling pathway is activated and which component of the pathway is usually mutated?
A) WNT, BETA-CATENIN
B) NOTCH, HES1
C) SHH, PTC1
D) BMP, NOGGIN
Q3) Which phase of hair cell growth is the resting phase?
A) Anagen
B) Catagen
C) Exogen
D) Telogen
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Development of the Musculoskeletal System
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Researchers have recently identified a new compartment within the somite,which contains the tendon progenitors.Which transcription factor is expressed in this "tendon" compartment?
A) Scleraxis
B) Pax3
C) Pax7
D) Pax1
E) Tbx18
Q2) The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc arises from which structure?
A) Sclerotome
B) Notochord
C) Myotome
D) Dermomyotome
E) Lateral plate mesoderm
Q3) Multiple synostoses syndrome type I is due to mutations in which gene?
A) GDF5
B) BMP5
C) LRP5
D) NOGGIN
E) BMPR1A
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Chapter 10: Development of the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A researcher treats an early neural-tube-stage embryo with a 1-hour pulse of colchicine,which arrests proliferating cells in metaphase.Where will the arrested cells be found?
A) Throughout the marginal layer of the neural tube
B) Throughout the mantle layer of the neural tube
C) Throughout the ventricular layer of the neural tube
D) Only in the floor plate of the neural tube
E) Only in the roof plate of the neural tube
Q2) A researcher labels a small area of the neural tube at the future cerebellar level.It is later noted that cells in the deep cerebellar nuclei are labeled.What portion of the neural tube was labeled in this experiment?
A) Ventricular zone
B) Marginal zone
C) Mantle zone
D) External germinal layer
E) Internal germinal layer
F) Ependyma
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Chapter 11: Development of the Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child is diagnosed with congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis.The receptor for which growth factor is mutated in this condition?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) Transforming growth factor beta
C) Scatter factor
D) Fibroblast growth factor
E) Nerve growth factor
Q2) A researcher labels the second epibranchial placodes.Cells of what structure(s)will be labeled later in development?
A) Olfactory nerve
B) Vestibulocochlear nerve
C) Superior ganglion
D) Petrosal ganglion
E) Enteric ganglia
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Chapter 12: Development of the Respiratory System and Body Cavities
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Sample Questions
Q1) A medical student is confused when learning that the muscle of the diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerves,based on the level of origin of these nerves from the CNS.What is the explanation of how this innervation occurs during embryogenesis?
A) The phrenic nerves arise in the cervical region in association with the septum transversum and cervical myotomes, and as the myotomes migrate more caudally, they carry their innervation with them.
B) The muscle of the diaphragm arise late in development and cannot grow back to the thoracic spinal cord because the spinal nerves have already formed at this level, so they grow more cranially to the cervical region.
C) The thoracic nerves initially supplying the diaphragm die during development and are replaced by new nerves that grow from the cervical region.
D) The muscle of the diaphragm arises from the thoracic myotomes but secretes a chemoattractant that specifically attracts cervical spinal nerves.
E) The muscle of the diaphragm arises from the thoracic myotomes but secretes a chemorepellent that specifically repels thoracic spinal nerves.
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Chapter 13: Development of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Heart chamber specification is dependent on the loss,gain,or limited expression of several transcription factors.What pattern of expression supports specification and formation of the right ventricle?
A) Loss of expression of Tbx5 within the primary heart field
B) Loss of expression of Irx4 within the cranial portion of the primary heart field
C) Restricted expression of RALDH-2 to the cranial portion of primary heart field
D) Continued expression of Isl1 and Tbx1 within the secondary heart field
Q2) Why is the cardiogenic area limited to the lateral plate mesoderm?
A) Because Bmp released from the overlying ectoderm restricts Gata4 expression to lateral plate mesoderm.
B) Because Chordin released from the notochord limits Bmp signaling to the more lateral mesoderm.
C) Because Nkx2.5 expression is restricted to paraxial mesoderm.
D) Because Wnt signaling stimulates Bmp release from the overlying ectoderm.
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Chapter 14: Development of the Vasculature
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 1-year-old boy has left ventricular hypertrophy and early signs of congestive heart failure.Examination reveals the presence of a murmur,and upon questioning of the mother,you find that during her first trimester she had a rubella infection.What is your initial diagnosis?
A) Ventricular septal defect
B) Postductal coarctation
C) Persistent truncus arteriosus
D) Persistent (patent) ductus arteriosus
Q2) What might cause hypervascularity (increase blood vessel density)of an area of the skin?
A) Overexpression of Vegf in the region
B) Loss of Tie1 expression in the region
C) Loss of expression of HIF in the region
D) Increase in Prox1 expression in the region
E) An abnormal increase in the release of stem cell factor in the region
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Chapter 15: Development of the Gastrointestinal Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Based on hospital records,a 3-day-old newborn has not had a bowel movement.Upon re-examination,you notice the baby's abdomen appears bloated and the infant is beginning to run a fever.Soon after feeding,the baby also exhibits severe vomiting and can't keep anything down.As a physician,you request abdominal x-rays,and you find that the jejunum is drastically dilated,with the remainder of the lower small large intestines appearing smaller in diameter than expected.What is the likely cause?
A) An umbilical hernia
B) Pyloric atresia
C) Meckel's diverticulum
D) Hirschsprung's disease
E) An annular pancreas
Q2) Endodermal contact with the notochord during early GI development is essential for the development of what organ?
A) Liver
B) Pancreas
C) Anorectal sphincter
D) Gallbladder
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Chapter 16: Development of the Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What renal structure arises via a mesenchymal-to-epithelial transition?
A) The nephron
B) Glomerular capillaries
C) The collecting tubules
D) The major and minor calyxes
Q2) A 4-year-old child was diagnosed with nephroblastoma,a kidney tumor.Subsequent genetic analysis of the child showed the presence of a mutation in a gene known to be associated with the development of this tumor but having a required role in renal development.What gene is it?
A) WT1 (Wilms' tumor suppressor)
B) RET
C) AMH
D) SOX9
E) SHH
Q3) The collecting tubules of the definitive kidney are derived from what tissue (cells)?
A) Metanephric blastema
B) Ureteric buds
C) Uriniferous tubules
D) Renal corpuscles
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Development of the Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What gene is thought to be a direct downstream target of SRY expression?
A) SOX9
B) WF1
C) AMH
D) DESERT HEDGEHOG
E) WNT4
Q2) Mutations in particular genes can cause or increase the risk of specific congenital anomalies of the urogenital system.Which gene when mutated is most likely to be responsible for male pseudohermaphrodism?
A) CFTR
B) AMH RECEPTOR
C) WT1
D) 5 -REDUCTASE
E) PDK1
Q3) What effect would a loss of Shh expression within the urethral plate have on genital development?
A) Development of enlarged genital tubercle
B) Hypospadia
C) An increase in Hoxa13 and Hoxd3 expression in the genital tubercle
D) An increase in Fgf8 expression in the urethral plate
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Chapter 18: Development of the Pharyngeal Apparatus and Face
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cheeks are formed from which prominences?
A) Frontal
B) Lateral nasal
C) Mandibular
D) Maxillary
E) Medial nasal
Q2) The stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by which nerve?
A) Trigeminal
B) Vagus
C) Facial
D) Glossopharyngeal
E) Oculomotor
Q3) The thyroid gland starts to produce circulating hormones during which weeks of gestation?
A) 8-10
B) 10-12
C) 12-14
D) 14-16
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Chapter 19: Development of the Ears
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Sample Questions
Q1) The inner ear arises from which structure?
A) First pharyngeal pouch
B) First pharyngeal cleft
C) Otic placode
D) Hindbrain
Q2) Branchio-oto-renal syndrome,characterized by kidney and hearing defects,is due to mutation of which gene?
A) EYES ABSENT HOMOLOG 1(EYA1)
B) EYES ABSENT HOMOLOG 4 (EYA4)
C) POU4F3
D) CONNEXIN 26
E) FGF8
Q3) Which muscle(s)are associated with the ear ossicles?
A) Tensor tympani and stapedius
B) Stylopharyngeus
C) Stylohyoid
D) Lateral pterygoid
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Chapter 20: Development of the Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Branchio-oto-renal syndrome,characterized by kidney and hearing defects,is due to mutation of which gene?
A) EYES ABSENT HOMOLOG 1(EYA1)
B) EYES ABSENT HOMOLOG 4 (EYA4)
C) POU4F3
D) CONNEXIN 26
E) FGF8
Q2) Protanopes lack which cell type?
A) S cones
B) M cones
C) L cones
D) Rods
Q3) What are the key protein constituent(s)of the lens?
A) Melanin
B) Crystallins
C) Keratins
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Chapter 21: Development of the Limbs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aristaless-like 4 (Alx4)is a homeobox gene involved in the establishment of the limb pattern.What is the phenotype of the Alx4 mouse mutant (Strong's Luxoid)?
A) Amelia
B) Meromelia
C) Syndactyly
D) Polydactyly
E) Split hand/foot
Q2) Which region of the developing limb specifies the cranial-caudal axis of the developing limb bud?
A) AER
B) ZPA
C) Dorsal ectoderm
Q3) When Lmx1b is genetically inactivated in mice,how do the LMCl and LMCm motor neurons migrate?
A) All into the ventral mesenchyme
B) Randomly throughout the limb bud
C) All into the dorsal mesenchyme
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