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Anatomy and Physiology is a comprehensive course that explores the structure and function of the human bodys systems. Students will examine the organization of cells, tissues, and organs, learning how these components interact to maintain health and homeostasis. The course covers major body systems, including the muscular, skeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the integration and regulation of physiological processes, as well as the anatomical terminology and concepts essential for advanced study in health and medical sciences. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and hands-on activities, students gain a foundational understanding necessary for careers in healthcare and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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Q1) Which of the following is a higher order of organization?
A) molecule
B) cell
C) organ
D) tissue
Answer: C
Q2) Which organ is located in the ventral cavity,but not in the thoracic cavity?
A) lung
B) heart
C) liver
D) brain
Answer: C
Q3) This organ is located in the ventral cavity,thoracic cavity,but not in the mediastinum.
A) lung
B) liver
C) stomach
D) heart
Answer: A
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Q1) Which compound is the universal solvent?
A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) ATP
D) water
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following can neutralize H ?
A) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
B) Na
C) OH<sup>-</sup>
D) H2O
Answer: C
Q3) Iron is a(n)
A) anion.
B) electrolyte.
C) acid.
D) cation.
Answer: D
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Q1) A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane.Compartment A contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution.The membrane is permeable to water but not to Na? or Cl-.At equilibrium,the
A) volume of water in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B.
B) volume in both compartments A and B will be equal.
C) concentration of compartment A will decrease.
D) volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A.
Answer: D
Q2) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase are phases of A) active transport.
B) mitosis.
C) differentiation.
D) pinocytosis.
Answer: B
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Q1) Gluconeogenesis is a process which makes
A) glucose from glycogen.
B) glucose from protein.
C) protein from glucose.
D) protein from fat.
Q2) Which of the following is a waste product of glucose metabolism?
A) ATP
B) CO<sub>2</sub>
C) urea
D) glycogen
Q3) Glycogen is
A) an end-product of fatty acid catabolism.
B) stored within adipose tissue.
C) the storage form of glucose.
D) an essential amino acid.
Q4) Which of the following terms is most descriptive of ribose and deoxyribose?
A) steroids
B) lipids
C) sugars
D) disaccharides
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Q1) A mycotic infection is caused by a(n)
A) parasite.
B) bacterium.
C) fungus.
D) arthropod.
Q2) Typhoid Mary harbored the Salmonella pathogen in her A) urine (kidneys).
B) respiratory secretions (lungs).
C) nasal secretions (nose).
D) bile (gallbladder).
Q3) Infections such as athlete's foot and ringworm are referred to as A) systemic.
B) mycotic.
C) parasitic.
D) bacterial.
Q4) The tick associated with Rocky Mountain spotted fever is referred to as a(n) A) arthropod vector.
B) causative organism.
C) spirochete.
D) fungus.
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Q1) Which of the following is most related to a carcinoma and sarcoma?
A) decubitus ulcer
B) cancer
C) pressure sore
D) bed sore
Q2) Chondrocytes and osteocytes form
A) squamous epithelium.
B) transitional epithelium.
C) astrocytes and ependymal cells.
D) cartilage and bone.
Q3) Which of the following is characterized by cells that are arranged like tiles on a floor?
A) osseous tissue
B) fascia
C) ligaments
D) squamous epithelium
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Q1) Which glands are most responsible for body odor?
A) apocrine
B) arrector pili
C) eccrine
D) sebaceous glands
Q2) Ceruminous glands
A) secrete vernix caseosa.
B) are sebaceous glands.
C) secrete wax in the outer ear.
D) are responsible for the summer tan.
Q3) Nonshivering thermogenesis is accomplished by
A) involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles.
B) constriction of the dermal blood vessels.
C) metabolism associated with brown fat.
D) involuntary contraction of the arrector pili muscles.
Q4) What is the effect of shivering?
A) increases heat production
B) increases heat loss
C) causes the blood vessels of the skin to dilate
D) decreases sweating
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Q1) Which of the following word(s)is (are)related to the ribs?
A) acetabulum
B) true,false,and floating
C) supination and pronation
D) fontanels
Q2) Which word(s)best reflect(s)the function of the epiphyseal disc?
A) blood cell formation
B) phagocytosis
C) secretion of synovial fluid
D) longitudinal growth
Q3) The coronal suture forms an immovable joint between the parietal bones and this bone.
A) occipital
B) frontal
C) temporal
D) sphenoid
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Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) muscles in lower extremities:hamstrings,quadriceps,gastrocnemius
B) muscles involved in breathing:diaphragm,intercostals,hamstrings
C) terms that describe the muscle activity of a whole muscle:twitch and tetany
D) muscles in the upper extremities:triceps brachii,biceps brachii,pronator
Q2) The quadriceps femoris group and the hamstrings
A) lie along the anterior part of the leg.
B) flex the foot.
C) lie along the thigh.
D) shrug the shoulders.
Q3) Which muscles are located between the ribs and help move the rib cage during breathing?
A) diaphragm
B) sternocleidomastoid
C) serratus anterior
D) intercostal muscles
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Q1) The precentral gyrus
A) is the primary motor area.
B) is located in the parietal lobe.
C) is called the vital center.
D) contains the medulla oblongata.
Q2) This structure plays a key role in personality development and emotional and behavioral expression;carries out the "executive" functions.
A) cerebellum
B) frontal lobe
C) basal ganglia
D) medulla oblongata
Q3) Injury to the occipital lobe is most likely to cause
A) hearing loss.
B) paralysis.
C) loss of vision.
D) disturbances in gait.
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Q1) Damage to this nerve prevents extension of the hip and flexion of the knee.
A) axillary
B) phrenic
C) sciatic
D) median cubital
Q2) Which of the following is not descriptive of the optic nerve?
A) sensory
B) cranial nerve
C) move the eyeball
D) vision
Q3) A hammer strikes the Achilles tendon to elicit this stretch reflex. 11-PAGE 2 Test Bank
A) Babinski reflex
B) baroreceptor reflex
C) patellar tendon reflex
D) ankle-jerk reflex
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Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) fight or flight
B) thoracolumbar
C) paravertebral ganglia
D) postganglionic fiber is cholinergic
Q2) Which of the following is most related to the "feed and breed" system?
A) pyramidal tracts
B) sympathetic nervous system
C) craniosacral outflow
D) rapid heart rate,palpitations,sweating
Q3) An adrenergic fiber is one that
A) innervates the adrenal medulla.
B) is a preganglionic fiber.
C) originates in the midbrain.
D) secretes norepinephrine as its transmitter.
Q4) A beta? adrenergic agonist
A) increases heart rate.
B) causes the release of acetylcholine.
C) blocks the effects of norepinephrine at its receptor site.
D) lowers blood pressure.
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Q1) This cerebral lobe is concerned primarily with vision.
A) precentral gyrus
B) postcentral gyrus
C) occipital
D) corpus callosum
Q2) Which of the following structures is located outside the eye?
A) conjunctiva
B) ciliary body
C) lens
D) vitreous humor
Q3) What is the location of the semicircular canals and the cochlea?
A) inner ear
B) middle ear
C) outer ear
D) pharynx
Q4) Which of the following is least related to the optic nerve?
A) cranial nerve II
B) sensory nerve
C) conveys information from the retina to the occipital lobe
D) innervates the extrinsic eye muscles
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Q1) Which of the following is the response to low plasma levels of calcium?
A) secretion of calcitonin
B) secretion of the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans
C) inhibition of the adenohypophyseal release of ACTH
D) secretion of PTH
Q2) Iodine,colloid,and goiter refer to this gland.
A) pancreas
B) parathyroid
C) thyroid
D) neurohypophysis
Q3) T<sub>3</sub>,T<sub>4</sub>,and calcitonin are
A) secreted by the thyroid gland.
B) secreted by the parathyroid glands.
C) secreted in response to declining plasma levels of calcium.
D) steroids.
Q4) This gland is associated with "sugar,salt,and sex."
A) adrenal cortex
B) pancreas
C) parathyroid gland
D) neurohypophysis

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Q1) Which of the following causes granulocytopenia?
A) myelosuppression
B) hemolysis
C) infection
D) petechiae
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to be caused by the immobility of bed rest?
A) venous thrombosis
B) hemophilia
C) anemia
D) myelosuppression
Q3) Which of the following best characterizes the effects of hemophilia?
A) high fever
B) infection
C) jaundice
D) bleeding
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Q1) Complete the sequence: blood flows from the pulmonary capillaries to the pulmonary veins to the left atrium to the left ventricle to the
A) vena cava.
B) pulmonary artery.
C) aorta.
D) circle of Willis.
Q2) A hole in the interventricular septum causes
A) a right-to-left shunt.
B) extreme cyanosis.
C) blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle.
D) blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the pulmonary artery.
Q3) This sling-like structure supports the heart.
A) pericardium
B) chordae tendineae
C) myocardium
D) endocardium
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Q1) Cardiac output is determined by heart rate and A) systemic vascular resistance.
B) stroke volume.
C) hematocrit.
D) hemoglobin concentration.
Q2) What is the term for the sequence of events that occur during one heartbeat?
A) stroke volume
B) cardiac output
C) cardiac cycle
D) systole
Q3) Sympathetic stimulation to the heart
A) decreases stroke volume.
B) increases heart rate.
C) causes bradycardia.
D) decreases cardiac output.
Q4) A drug (i.e.,atropine)that blocks the vagus nerve
A) stops the heart.
B) increases heart rate.
C) decreases cardiac output.
D) decreases stroke volume.
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Q1) Which of the following structures serves as the "lungs" for the fetus?
A) ductus venosus
B) ductus arteriosus
C) placenta
D) foramen ovale
Q2) Which of the following blood vessels brings unoxygenated blood to the liver?
A) celiac trunk
B) jugular vein
C) portal vein
D) saphenous
Q3) The subclavian artery is
A) a branch of the abdominal aorta.
B) part of the hepatic-portal circulation.
C) part of the circle of Willis.
D) a branch of the aorta that supplies the upper extremity.
Q4) All arteries directly or indirectly emerge from this large artery.
A) pulmonary
B) aorta
C) vena cava
D) subclavian
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Q1) Which of the following is most related to the systolic reading,diastolic reading,and Korotkoff sounds?
A) cardiac output
B) blood pressure
C) the electrical activity of the heart
D) coronary blood flow
Q2) An IV infusion of mannitol (a hypertonic sugar solution)is used to decrease intracranial pressure in a head-injured patient because the mannitol
A) provides calories for the healing of the injured brain.
B) is absorbed by the injured brain cells and pulls water into the brain cells from the tissue fluid.
C) pulls water out of the interstitium of the brain into the capillaries,thereby relieving edema.
D) "clumps" the plasma proteins together,thereby severely diminishing plasma oncotic pressure.
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Q1) The inguinal lymph nodes
A) line the entrance of the spleen.
B) are the Kupffer cells within the liver.
C) are located in the groin.
D) are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
Q2) The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into the A) jugular vein.
B) inferior vena cava.
C) portal vein.
D) subclavian veins.
Q3) What is the term that refers to the removal of the palatine tonsils?
A) appendectomy
B) lymph node resection
C) adenoidectomy
D) tonsillectomy
Q4) A lacteal is located within the A) adenoid.
B) tonsil.
C) thymus gland.
D) intestinal villus.

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Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) mechanical barriers:skin,mucous membrane
B) protective proteins:interferons,complement proteins
C) nonspecific immunity:inflammation,NK cells,fever,T cells
D) signs of inflammation:redness,heat,swelling,pain
Q2) What is the effect of a massive release of histamine?
A) jaundice
B) anemia
C) thrombosis
D) wheezing and hypotension
Q3) The purpose of vaccination is to provide an initial exposure to an antigen to stimulate the formation of ___________.
A) killer T cells
B) complement
C) anaphylaxis
D) memory cells
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Q1) The epiglottis
A) is innervated by the phrenic nerve.
B) prevents air from entering the esophagus.
C) prevents food from entering the trachea.
D) is the Adam's apple.
Q2) In which structure is the PO<sub>2</sub> 104 mm Hg?
A) pulmonary artery
B) alveolus
C) right ventricle
D) vena cava
Q3) The Hering-Breuer reflex
A) prevents overinflation of the lungs.
B) is a chemical reflex;no nerves are involved.
C) is important only in disease states.
D) is only concerned with sneezing and coughing.
Q4) Across which structure does most gas exchange occur?
A) trachea
B) bronchus
C) bronchioles
D) alveoli

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Q1) This organ synthesizes clotting factors,stores vitamins,detoxifies drugs,and helps regulate blood glucose.
A) pancreas
B) liver
C) stomach
D) appendix
Q2) What is the tube that carries food from the pharynx to the stomach?
A) trachea
B) esophagus
C) pylorus
D) ampulla of Vater
Q3) The word hepatic refers to the
A) pancreas.
B) portal vein.
C) mesentery.
D) liver.
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Q1) The urinary meatus is a part of the A) ureter.
B) urinary bladder.
C) urethra.
D) collecting duct.
Q2) The juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)secretes
A) aldosterone.
B) ADH.
C) angiotensin.
D) renin.
Q3) What happens at the glomerular membrane?
A) Water and dissolved solute are filtered into Bowman's capsule.
B) The JGA cells release ADH.
C) The JGA cells release aldosterone.
D) Na+ is reabsorbed.
Q4) Which condition is associated with proteinuria?
A) a bladder infection
B) urethritis
C) glomerular disease
D) deficiency of ADH
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Q1) Which ion determines pH?
A) sodium
B) hydrogen
C) bicarbonate
D) potassium
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to develop in an anxious hyperventilating patient?
A) respiratory acidosis
B) alkalosis
C) a decrease in plasma pH
D) ketoacidosis
Q3) Which of the following is not true of extracellular fluid?
A) Most body water is extracellular.
B) Plasma is extracellular fluid.
C) Transcellular fluid is extracellular.
D) There is more interstitial fluid than intravascular fluid.
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Q1) The myometrium and the endometrium are layers of this structure.
A) ovaries
B) uterus
C) fallopian tubes
D) vagina
Q2) A woman is likely to develop a vaginal yeast infection after taking antibiotics because they
A) weaken the hymen and allow pathogens to enter the vagina.
B) alter the normal flora of the vagina.
C) contain pathogens that migrate to the vagina from the blood.
D) cannot kill microorganisms that grow in the vagina.
Q3) Trophoblastic cells
A) secrete oxytocin.
B) are responsible for the milk let-down reflex.
C) assist with implantation.
D) are incorporated within the graafian follicle.
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Q1) Who or what determines the gender of the baby?
A) placenta
B) zygote
C) father
D) mother
Q2) Which of the following literally means "monster-producing"?
A) abortion
B) involution
C) teratogenic
D) embryonic
Q3) Afterbirth refers primarily to this structure.
A) morula
B) zygote
C) fetus
D) placenta
Q4) Which of the following is true of implantation?
A) It is called conception.
B) It is divided into trimesters.
C) It is stimulated by FSH and LH.
D) It occurs within the uterus.
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