Anatomy and Physiology Pre-Test
Questions
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course that explores the structure and function of the human body. Students will examine the major organ systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems, focusing on how these systems interact to maintain health and homeostasis. Through a combination of theoretical study and practical lab experiences, learners will gain a comprehensive understanding of normal anatomical features and physiological processes, preparing them for advanced study in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ is located in the ventral cavity but not in the thoracic cavity?
A)Lung
B)Heart
C)Liver
D)Brain
Answer: C
Q2) The thigh is ___________ to the foot.
A)distal
B)proximal
C)inferior
D)deep
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?
A)Axillary
B)Brachial
C)Antecubital
D)Popliteal
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H ]?
A)Atomic number
B)Atomic mass
C)Isotope
D)pH
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction but is itself not used up in the chemical reaction?
A)An isotope
B)A cation
C)A catalyst
D)ATP
Answer: C
Q3) An atom has 2 protons,2 neutrons,and 2 electrons; it has an atomic
A)number of 6.
B)mass of 2.
C)mass of 4.
D)number of 4.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures make the rough endoplasmic reticulum look like sandpaper?
A)Ribosomes
B)Globs of cytoplasm
C)ATP
D)Fragments of DNA
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is a correct statement?
A)Most ATP is produced in the mitochondria.
B)Mitochondria contain potent enzymes that digest cellular waste and debris.
C)Most DNA is located within the mitochondria.
D)The RER is concerned with phagocytosis.
Answer: A
Q3) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase are phases of A)active transport.
B)mitosis.
C)differentiation.
D)pinocytosis.
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatic encephalopathy can be caused by increasing blood levels of A)ammonia.
B)urea.
C)nitrogen.
D)lactic acid.
Q2) Which of the following is not a lipid or lipoid substance?
A)Steroids
B)Vitamins A,D,E,and K
C)Prostaglandins
D)Ammonia
Q3) Transcription
A)occurs within the nucleus.
B)involves DNA and mRNA.
C)involves tRNA and mRNA.
D)Both A and B are true.
Q4) Gluconeogenesis is a process that makes
A)glucose from glycogen.
B)glucose from protein.
C)protein from glucose.
D)protein from fat.
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most descriptive of syphilis?
A)Is a luetic infection
B)Caused by a virus
C)Is a sexually transmitted disease
D)Both A and B are correct
Q2) Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans?
A)Causative organism of impetigo
B)Fungal infection
C)Yeast infection
D)Antibiotic-induced superinfection
Q3) Cocci,bacilli,and curved rods are classified as A)viruses.
B)pathogens.
C)bacteria.
D)parasites.
Q4) Which group includes single-cell animal-like microbes,such as amebas?
A)Bacilli
B)Arthropods
C)Viruses
D)Protozoa
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following groups is correct?
A)Types of cartilage: hyaline,fibrocartilage,and elastic cartilage
B)Types of loose connective tissue: areolar,adipose,and reticular
C)Layers of epithelial tissue: simple and stratified
D)Connective tissue membranes: mucous,serous,and synovial
Q2) Which of the following is most related to a carcinoma and sarcoma?
A)Decubitus ulcer
B)Cancer
C)Pressure sore
D)Bed sore
Q3) The words visceral and parietal
A)describe pleural and peritoneal membranes.
B)describe two types of glands.
C)refer to connective tissue membranes.
D)are layers of meninges.
Q4) The cutaneous membrane
A)is a synovial membrane.
B)is the skin.
C)has a visceral and parietal layer.
D)has three layers: squamous,cuboidal,and columnar.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melanocytes
A)secrete a tanning pigment in response to exposure to sunlight.
B)secrete bilirubin and cause jaundice.
C)are located only in the external ear and secrete cerumen.
D)secrete carotene,giving the skin a yellow tint.
Q2) Eccrine glands
A)are sweat glands.
B)secrete sebum.
C)are active only after puberty.
D)arise within the hypodermis.
Q3) What is the structure in this description: The cells are continuously dividing,pushing older cells toward the surface of the cutaneous membrane?
A)Sudoriferous glandular epithelium
B)Dermis
C)Arrector pili
D)Stratum germinativum
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The maxilla
A)is the cheekbone.
B)is a cranial bone.
C)contains the upper teeth.
D)articulates with the temporal bone at the TMJ.
Q2) A foramen and meatus are
A)short bones.
B)curvatures.
C)openings.
D)joints.
Q3) The humerus is a A)bone of the axial skeleton.
B)short bone.
C)bone of the upper limbs.
D)bone found only in the fetal skeleton.
Q4) The diaphysis is A)composed primarily of compact bone.
B)the growth plate.
C)referred to as melogenous tissue.
D)the inner lining of the medullary cavity.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A tendon
A)is a series of sarcomeres.
B)attaches muscle to bone.
C)forms the Z line between each sarcomere.
D)is also called an aponeurosis.
Q2) Which muscles are located between the ribs and help move the rib cage during breathing?
A)Diaphragm
B)Sternocleidomastoid
C)Serratus anterior
D)Intercostal muscles
Q3) The rectus femoris,vastus lateralis,vastus medialis,and vastus intermedius
A)insert on the calcaneus.
B)flex the leg at the knee.
C)are antagonistic to the quadriceps femoris.
D)are the muscles of the quadriceps femoris.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The emetic center
A)receives information from the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
B)is located in the vertebra prominens.
C)is the target of antipyretics.
D)All of the above are true.
Q2) Which of the following is least true of the reticular formation?
A)Extends from the brain stem into the cerebral cortex
B)Contains the RAS
C)Nuclei within the reticular formation include the gaze center
D)Also known as the emotional brain
Q3) What is the function of the ependymal cells of the choroid plexus?
A)Synthesize neurotransmitters such as ACh
B)Form cerebrospinal fluid
C)Phagocytose debris
D)Secrete myelin
Q4) The postcentral gyrus
A)is a temporal lobe structure.
B)contains the primary visual cortex.
C)is a brain stem structure.
D)performs a sensory role.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral
Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most serious consequence of a damaged or anesthetized glossopharyngeal nerve? Impaired
A)secretion of salivary glands and dry mouth.
B)corneal reflex and corneal scarring.
C)gag reflex and aspiration of food and water into the respiratory passages.
D)swallowing causing starvation.
Q2) Damage to the common peroneal nerve causes
A)crutch palsy.
B)deafness.
C)footdrop.
D)inability to breathe.
Q3) Which of the following is least true of the spinal cord?
A)The spinal cord,like the brain,is protected by bone,meninges,CSF,and the blood-brain barrier.
B)The adult spinal cord extends the length of the spinal cavity.
C)The gray matter is composed primarily of cell bodies and interneurons.
D)The white matter is white because of myelin.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow?
A)Vagal discharge
B)Parasympathetic nervous system
C)Sympathetic nervous system
D)Limbic system
Q2) Which of the following is (are) most related to the muscarinic receptors?
A)Paravertebral ganglia
B)ACh
C)Fight-or-flight response
D)Adrenergic fibers
Q3) Which of the following is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?
A)Craniosacral outflow
B)Cholinergic fibers only
C)Paravertebral ganglia
D)Postganglionic transmitter is ACh
Q4) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
A)are somatic motor neurons.
B)supply voluntary skeletal muscles.
C)include the phrenic,sciatic,and brachial nerves.
D)innervate the viscera.
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The superior rectus muscle
A)causes miosis.
B)causes mydriasis.
C)moves the eyeball.
D)regulates accommodation.
Q2) The gel-like substance that gently pushes the retina against the choroid and maintains the shape of the eyeball is
A)aqueous humor.
B)vitreous humor.
C)lacrimal secretions.
D)perilymph.
Q3) Cerumen is
A)an inner ear secretion.
B)secreted by the organ of Corti.
C)found in the external ear.
D)drained by the Eustachian tube.
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bones,kidneys,and intestine are target organs of this calcium-regulator hormone.
A)T and T
B)PTH
C)ACTH
D)Oxytocin
Q2) Which of the following is true of both prolactin and oxytocin? Both
A)are concerned with lactation.
B)are secreted by the adenohypophysis.
C)stimulate the mammary glands to make milk.
D)are concerned only with lactation.
Q3) T and T
A)stimulate the adenohypophysis to secrete TSH.
B)regulate the basal metabolic rate (BMR).
C)stimulate osteoclastic activity,thereby elevating plasma calcium levels.
D)All of the above are true.
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most likely to happen with the activation of plasminogen?
A)The blood clots,or coagulates.
B)The blood clot dissolves.
C)Red blood cells agglutinate.
D)Jaundice develops.
Q2) With which descriptive word(s) are the terms anisocytosis and poikilocytosis associated?
A)Color and degree of immaturity
B)Granular and agranular
C)Shape
D)Antigenic and hive producing
Q3) TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)
A)prevents blood coagulation.
B)causes thrombocytopenia.
C)dissolves blood clots.
D)prevents the formation of a platelet plug.
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hole in the interventricular septum causes
A)blood to shunt from left atrium to the right atrium.
B)extreme cyanosis.
C)blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the right ventricle.
D)blood to shunt from the left ventricle to the pulmonary artery.
Q2) Which of the following best indicates why the left ventricular myocardium is thicker than the right ventricular myocardium?
A)Ventricular oxygen saturation is greater in the left ventricle.
B)The left ventricle works harder than the right ventricle.
C)The aortic valve is narrower than the pulmonic valve.
D)Left ventricular volume is less than right ventricular volume.
Q3) Which of the following is not part of coronary circulation?
A)Left anterior descending artery
B)Circumflex artery
C)Pulmonary veins
D)Posterior descending artery
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increased return of blood to the heart stretches the heart muscle,thereby
A)stimulating the vagus nerve.
B)increasing stroke volume.
C)closing the atrioventricular valves.
D)increasing coronary blood flow.
Q2) An ejection fraction of 30% is
A)normal.
B)characteristic of a healthy person who is engaged in aerobic exercise.
C)characteristic of a failing heart.
D)the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood in the left ventricle.
Q3) Which of the following is responsible for the Starling effect?
A)Sympathetic nerve firing
B)Vagal discharge
C)Activation of the Beta -adrenergic receptors
D)End-diastolic volume (EDV) or preload
Q4) Which of the following is the same as end-diastolic volume?
A)Stroke volume
B)Cardiac output
C)Preload
D)Cardiac reserve
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special
Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the "main vein that drains the brain"?
A)Carotid
B)Brachial
C)Jugular
D)Saphenous
Q2) Blood pressure is lowest in the
A)inferior vena cava.
B)aorta.
C)pulmonary capillaries.
D)femoral artery.
Q3) What commonly happens diagnostically at the radial artery?
A)A blood sample indicates the hematocrit.
B)Blood pressure is determined.
C)The pulse is determined.
D)The ECG is recorded.
Q4) Which of the following structures serves as the "lungs" for the fetus?
A)Ductus venosus
B)Ductus arteriosus
C)Placenta
D)Foramen ovale
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) To maintain a consistent cardiac output,what happens to SV as HR increases?
A)Stroke volume increases.
B)Stroke volume decreases.
C)Stroke volume stays the same.
D)Cannot be determined from the information given.
Q2) Which of the following structures has the greatest effect on systemic vascular resistance?
A)Veins
B)Arterioles
C)Heart
D)Capillaries
Q3) If capillary pressure exceeds plasma oncotic pressure,
A)more fluid enters the capillary from the interstitial
B)no net flux of fluid occurs.
C)blood volume expansion occurs.
D)more fluid leaves the capillaries to enter the interstitium
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Elephantiasis is
A)CO = HR× SV× pulse pressure.
B)caused by the destruction of valves within the lymphatic vessels.
C)edema formation in response to impaired lymphatic drainage.
D)caused by the removal of the spleen.
Q2) What is the similarity between the thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct? Both
A)drain lymph exclusively from the lower extremities.
B)empty their lymph into the left subclavian vein.
C)are large lymphatic ducts that collect lymph from smaller lymphatic vessels.
D)are lymphatic capillaries associated exclusively with the cerebral circulation.
Q3) Which lymphoid organ is located in the ventral cavity,thoracic cavity,and mediastinum?
A)Spleen
B)Liver
C)Thymus gland
D)Adenoids
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22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following protective proteins swarm(s) the surface of a pathogen,punching holes in the membrane and enhancing phagocytosis?
A)Interferons
B)Albumin
C)Complement
D)IgG
Q2) Which of the following words are least characteristic of phagocytes?
A)IgG,IgA,IgM,and IgE
B)Motile and fixed
C)Diapedesis and chemotaxis
D)Neutrophils,monocytes,and macrophages
Q3) Which of the following conditions is most common in people with AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)?
A)Anaphylaxis
B)Autoimmune diseases
C)Infections
D)Hypertension
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following occurs on exhalation?
A)Respiratory expiratory neurons fire.
B)The diaphragm relaxes.
C)Thoracic volume decreases.
D)All of the above occur.
Q2) Anatomical dead air space is most associated with which structure?
A)Frontal sinus
B)Alveoli
C)Trachea
D)Esophagus
Q3) The Adam's apple is A)cartilage.
B)the epiglottis.
C)the primary site of gas exchange.
D)the pharynx.
Q4) Most CO is transported in the blood
A)by the hemoglobin,as carbaminohemoglobin.
B)by megakaryocytes.
C)loosely bound to the iron molecule in heme.
D)as bicarbonate.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures allow(s) the stomach to expand?
A)Chief cells
B)The appendix
C)Villi
D)Rugae
Q2) The common bile duct
A)receives bile from the portal vein.
B)empties directly into the duodenum.
C)pumps bile into the main pancreatic duct.
D)delivers bile to the portal vein.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of bile?
A)It functions as an emulsifying agent.
B)It is secreted by the liver lobules into the hepatic portal system.
C)It helps absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins.
D)It is secreted in response to CCK.
Q4) This structure is located between the pylorus and the jejunum.
A)Stomach
B)Duodenum
C)Cecum
D)Esophagus
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of aldosterone?
A)Is secreted by the adrenal medulla
B)Stimulates the distal tubule to reabsorb Na+
C)Stimulates the proximal tubule to reabsorb K+
D)Works on the collecting duct membrane to determine membrane permeability to water
Q2) Which of the following is true of glomerular function?
A)It is unaffected by blood pressure.
B)It is concerned with the filtration of 1.5 L/24 hr (of water).
C)A decline in GFR (glomerular filtration rate) causes polyuria.
D)An increase in GFR increases urine formation.
Q3) Which of the following is true of dehydration?
A)Is characterized by an increase in urine specific gravity
B)Is accompanied by a decrease in sodium retention
C)Causes a shift of water from the vasculature into the interstitium
D)Is generally treated with a diuretic
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) A change of pH from 7.40 to 7.25
A)is indicative of expanded blood volume.
B)is indicative of alkalosis.
C)reflects an increase in the amount of H+ in the blood.
D)is within normal limits.
Q2) Which of the following is true about these percentages: 60% and 28%? They represent the amount of
A)water eliminated as urine and through the skin and lungs.
B)Na+ and K+ reabsorbed by the kidneys in response to aldosterone.
C)water ingested through moist food and metabolism.
D)Na+ and K+ reabsorbed in response to ADH secretion.
Q3) A patient is ventilating at a rate of 8 to 10 respirations/min,having been heavily medicated for pain.Which of the following is true? The patient is (may)
A)develop a respiratory acidosis.
B)experiencing Kussmaul respirations.
C)experiencing diuresis.
D)likely to develop a metabolic alkalosis.
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) If implantation occurs within the fallopian tube,the
A)greatest concern is the placenta previa.
B)pregnancy is described as ectopic.
C)pregnancy is considered normal.
D)woman will continue to menstruate throughout the 9 months of fetal growth.
Q2) The endometrium
A)is the uterine lining that is most responsive to the hormonal effects of estrogen and progesterone.
B)is the target of FSH and LH.
C)forms the graafian follicle.
D)is responsive to oxytocin during labor.
Q3) Which of the following is the skin-covered muscular region located between the vaginal orifice and anus?
A)Hymen
B)Perineum
C)Fallopian tubes
D)Fimbriae
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to fertilization?
A)Broad ligament
B)Implantation
C)Menses
D)23 chromosomes plus 23 chromosomes
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A)Primary germ layers: ectoderm,mesoderm,endoderm
B)Hormones: estrogen,progesterone,hCG,prolactin,oxytocin
C)Genes: dominant,recessive,codominant
D)Stages of labor: dilation,expulsion,placental,embryonic
Q3) Which of the following prevents the deterioration of the corpus luteum during early pregnancy?
A)Prolactin
B)Progesterone
C)Oxytocin
D)Human chorionic gonadotropin
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