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Anatomy and Physiology II is a continuation of the foundational study of the human body's structure and function begun in Anatomy and Physiology I. This course explores the complex systems that regulate and sustain life, focusing on the cardiovascular, lymphatic, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will investigate the physiological mechanisms that underlie homeostasis and learn how different organ systems interact to maintain health. The course integrates laboratory experiences with lecture content to enhance understanding through hands-on exploration of anatomical specimens, physiological experiments, and clinical applications.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Q1) The plural of villus (hair)is ____________,whereas the plural of diagnosis is
A) villuses;diagnosises
B) villi;diagnoses
C) villus;diagnosis
D) villi;diagnosis
E) villuses;diagnosis
Answer: B
Q2) The study of mechanism of disease is called __________.
A) histology
B) neuroanatomy
C) pathophysiology
D) endocrinology
E) neurophysiology
Answer: C
Q3) Homeostasis and occupying space are both unique characteristics of living things.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) The breakdown of glucose to yield carbon dioxide,oxygen,and ATP can be described as __________.
A) anabolic and endergonic
B) catabolic and exergonic
C) anabolic and exergonic
D) catabolic and endergonic
E) anabolic and exothermic
Answer: B
Q2) Hydrogen,deuterium,and tritium are three isotopes of hydrogen.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) A molecule that is oxidized gains electrons and energy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Unsaturated fatty acids have as much hydrogen as they can carry.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Membrane proteins that bind to signals by which cells communicate are called
A) receptors
B) enzymes
C) carriers
D) cell-identity markers
E) cell-adhesion molecules
Answer: A
Q2) Channel protein gates respond to all these stimuli except __________.
A) chemical messengers
B) ligands
C) changes in electrical potential (voltage)across a cellular membrane
D) physical deformation of a cellular membrane
E) water in the extracellular fluid
Answer: E
Q3) A cell's second messengers serve to transport material through cellular membranes.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Since there are no genes coding for carbohydrates,nucleic acids,or lipids,how do cells produce them?
A) Enzymes encoded by genes synthesize these products.
B) Cells are born with all the products they need.
C) Cells absorb these products by endocytosis.
D) Cells import these products from older cells.
E) Cells can produce carbohydrates,nucleic acids,and lipids out of proteins.
Q2) A __________ is composed of a granular cluster of eight proteins called __________ with DNA wound around them.
A) nucleosome;centrosomes
B) nucleosome;histones
C) chromosome;histones
D) chromosome;centromeres
E) centromere;chromatin
Q3) Which of these is not found in the karyotype of a normal human male?
A) 46 chromosomes
B) 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes
C) X and Y chromosomes
D) 46 chromatids
E) 92 DNA molecules
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Q1) The __________ gives rise to the __________.
A) mesoderm;digestive glands
B) endoderm;muscular system and skeletal system
C) ectoderm;nervous system and epidermis
D) endoderm;mesoderm
E) mesoderm;endoderm
Q2) The process of a cell changing types to respond to its environment is called neoplasia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Smooth and cardiac muscles are under involuntary control.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Desmosomes are more effective than tight junctions in preventing substances from passing between cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The clear gel that usually surrounds cells is called interstitial fluid.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Looking at a slide of axillary skin under the microscope,you notice the presence of __________ glands that are absent on slides of the scalp.
A) merocrine
B) apocrine
C) sebaceous
D) ceruminous
E) perspiration
Q2) The base where a hair follicle originates in the skin is known as the __________.
A) hair bulb
B) hair root
C) shaft
D) medulla
E) cuticle
Q3) The skin carries out the first step in the synthesis of vitamin D.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) A soft callus forms during ___________.
A) endochondral ossification
B) intramembranous ossification
C) bone growth at the metaphysis
D) the remodeling of bone
E) the healing of a fracture
Q2) The __________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where,in children and adolescents,bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.
A) metaphysis
B) primary ossification center
C) secondary ossification center
D) osteoid tissue
E) epiphyseal line
Q3) Phosphate is necessary for all of the following except __________.
A) ATP
B) DNA
C) phospholipids
D) RNA
E) amino acids
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Q1) You cannot palpate the __________ on a living person.
A) lateral malleolus
B) tibial tuberosity
C) medial surface of the fibula
D) anterior border of the tibia
E) calcaneus
Q2) Which of the following is not part of the pectoral girdle?
A) The glenohumeral joint
B) The acromioclavicular joint
C) The sternoclavicular joint
D) The sacroiliac joint
E) The clavicle and scapula
Q3) The __________ belongs to the thoracic cage,whereas the __________ belongs to the pectoral girdle.
A) sternum;clavicle
B) clavicle;sternum
C) vertebra T5;vertebra T1
D) scapula;clavicle
E) scapula;sternum
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Q1) Unlike other joints,a __________ does not join two bones to one another.
A) suture
B) syndesmosis
C) gomphosis
D) cartilaginous joint
E) bony joint
Q2) Some joints become synostoses by replacing __________ with __________.
A) fibers;cartilage
B) cartilage;fibers
C) bone;cartilage
D) bone;fibers
E) fibers;bone
Q3) Under normal circumstances,the wrist can be hyperextended,but the elbow cannot.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hinge joints,such as the tibiofemoral joint,are monoaxial.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Unilateral contraction of which muscle causes ipsilateral flexion of the lumbar vertebral column?
A) Multifidus
B) Latissimus dorsi
C) External intercostals
D) Serratus anterior
E) Quadratus lumborum
Q2) Which of the following muscles is the prime mover for inhalation?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Stylohyoid
E) Hyoglossus
Q3) A butcher who cuts the distal portion of his fingers may cut the __________ tendon.
A) flexor pollicis longus
B) flexor carpi ulnaris
C) palmaris longus
D) adductor pollicis
E) flexor digitorum profundus
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Q1) A volleyball player depends on the gastrocnemius muscles for plantar flexion,whereas a marathon runner depends more on the soleus muscles for the same action.What characteristic of the soleus muscles makes this so?
A) They have smaller mitochondria.
B) They have more glycogen in them.
C) They don't have as many blood capillaries per gram of tissue.
D) They make more use of aerobic respiration.
E) They break ATP down to ADP and P<sub>i</sub> faster.
Q2) If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch,the most likely result will be __________.
A) fatigue
B) spasm
C) incomplete tetanus
D) complete tetanus
E) flaccid paralysis
Q3) Clinically,dystrophin is the most important noncontractile protein to occur in muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In PNS nerve fiber regeneration,how is a growing axon directed to its original destination?
A) It grows within a regeneration tube.
B) The axonal terminals grow towards the neurosoma until the two severed fragments are reunited.
C) The axon grows a collateral that is directed by growth factors secreted by the postsynaptic neuron.
D) Injured Schwann cells produce a trail of prostaglandins to the original destination.
Q2) What is another name for the autonomic nervous system?
A) Visceral sensory division
B) Somatic sensory division
C) Visceral motor division
D) Somatic motor division
E) Central nervous system
Q3) Where are unmyelinated nerve fibers surrounded by Schwann cells?
A) In the PNS
B) In the CNS
C) In the PNS and CNS
D) Nowhere.Unmyelinated nerve fibers are never surrounded by Schwann cells.
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Q1) Nerve fibers in a given white matter tract are similar in origin,destination,and function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The connective tissue that surrounds a nerve fascicle is called the __________.
A) myelin
B) perimysium
C) epineurium
D) endoneurium
E) perineurium
Q3) A reflex in which the sensory input and motor output are on opposite sides of the spinal cord,is called a(n)_________ reflex arc.
A) intersegmental
B) contralateral
C) ipsilateral
D) polysynaptic
E) monosynaptic
Q4) Somatic reflexes are responses of skeletal,smooth,and cardiac muscles.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The vision association area resides primarily in the temporal lobe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pons and cerebellum arise from which secondary embryonic vesicle?
A) Telencephalon
B) Diencephalon
C) Mesencephalon
D) Metencephalon
E) Myelencephalon
Q3) The pyramidal cells of the precentral gyrus are called __________ neurons.
A) stellate
B) third-order
C) first-order
D) upper motor
E) lower motor
Q4) The cerebellum is the largest part of the brain.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The effect of autonomic fibers on target cells is _________.The effect of somatic fibers on target cells is __________.
A) always excitatory;always excitatory
B) excitatory or inhibitory;always excitatory
C) excitatory or inhibitory;excitatory or inhibitory
D) always inhibitory;excitatory or inhibitory
E) always inhibitory;always excitatory
Q2) Muscarinic receptors bind __________.
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) monoamine oxidase (MAO)
D) acetylcholinesterase
E) acetylcholine
Q3) The binding of __________ to a nicotinic receptor of a muscle fiber will __________ it.
A) acetylcholine;excite
B) norepinephrine;excite
C) monoamine oxidase;inhibit
D) acetylcholine;inhibit
E) acetylcholinesterase;excite

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Q1) The incus articulates with which bone(s)?
A) Malleus and stapes
B) Malleus
C) Stapes
D) Malleus,stapes,and temporal
E) Malleus,stapes,and tympanic
Q2) Where is the primary olfactory cortex located?
A) Parietal lobe
B) Insula
C) Occipital lobe
D) Frontal lobe
E) Temporal lobe
Q3) The three types of cones in the retina are differentiated from one another by what feature?
A) The absorption peak of their photopsin
B) The width of their outer segment
C) Whether they contain cis-retinal or trans-retinal or both
D) The number of discs in their outer segment
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of diabetes mellitus?
A) Hypoglycemia
B) Polyuria
C) Polyphagia
D) Polydipsia
E) Glycosuria
Q2) The hormone called _________ plays an important role in synchronizing physiological function with the cycle of daylight and darkness.
A) calcitonin
B) melanin
C) melatonin
D) hepcidin
E) inhibin
Q3) Circulating hormones are mostly taken up and degraded by the _________ and the __________.
A) adrenal glands;intestines
B) liver;kidneys
C) blood;kidneys
D) liver;spleen
E) spleen;kidneys
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Q1) Blood groups are used for legal purposes and in anthropology.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A normal hematocrit is __________ of the total blood volume.
A) less than 1%
B) 47% to 63%
C) 25% to 37%
D) 42% to 45%
E) 37% to 52%
Q3) What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus?
A) Monocyte
B) Lymphocyte
C) Neutrophil
D) Eosinophil
E) Basophil
Q4) Coagulation starts with a vascular spasm and ends with the formation of a platelet plug.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart?
A) Parietal pericardium
B) Visceral pericardium
C) Endocardium
D) Epicardium
E) Myocardium
Q2) When sodium channels are fully open,the membrane of the ventricular cardiomyocyte _________.
A) sharply hyperpolarizes
B) sharply repolarizes
C) sharply depolarizes
D) plateaus
E) has no reponse
Q3) The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to __________.
A) the end-systolic volume
B) the end-diastolic volume
C) the afterload
D) the heart rate
E) contractility
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Q1) The brachial vein is the most common site of blood pressure measurement with the sphygmomanometer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How is venous return to your heart affected when you go for an easy jog?
A) It is increased due to increased skeletal muscular pump activity
B) It is decreased due to decreased skeletal muscular pump activity
C) It is decreased due to increased skeletal muscular pump activity
D) It is increased due to decreased skeletal muscular pump activity
Q3) Which of the following is absent in humans?
A) Right and left common carotid arteries
B) Right and left brachiocephalic arteries
C) Right and left brachiocephalic veins
D) Right and left subclavian veins
E) Right and left subclavian arteries
Q4) Decompensated shock is normally corrected by the body's homeostatic mechanisms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) One group of proteolytic enzymes secreted by natural killer (NK)cells is
A) selectins
B) cytokines
C) granzymes
D) perforins
E) interferons
Q2) Vaccination stimulates __________ immunity.
A) natural active
B) artificial active
C) natural passive
D) artificial passive
E) innate
Q3) Which of the following forces does not help lymph to flow?
A) Rhythmic contractions of lymphatic vessels
B) The thoracic pump
C) The skeletal muscle pump
D) The lymphatic node pump
E) Arterial pulsations squeezing lymphatic vessels
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Q1) Breathing is controlled solely by the medulla oblongata and pons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Among its other purposes,how is the Valsalva maneuver used?
A) To aid in defecation and urination
B) As part of the procedure for giving CPR to a person in respiratory arrest
C) To ventilate the lungs during eupnea
D) To expel more than the usual tidal volume from the lungs
E) To clear carbon monoxide from the body and replace it with oxygen
Q3) The heart indents into the __________ of the left lung.
A) oblique fissure
B) hilum
C) apex
D) cardiac notch
E) base
Q4) Erythrocytes do not carry out aerobic respiration;thus,they do not consume any of the oxygen they are transporting.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The __________ is not a portion of the urethra.
A) external urethral orifice
B) internal urethral sphincter
C) prostatic urethra
D) membranous urethra
E) spongy urethra
Q2) Normal urine from a healthy person should not contain __________.
A) creatinine
B) urobilin
C) glucose
D) ammonia
E) magnesium
Q3) Which of the following is not found in the ureter?
A) Adventitia
B) Two layers of smooth muscle
C) Three layers of smooth muscle
D) Transitional epithelium
E) Skeletal muscle
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Q1) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?
A) The temperature difference between compartments
B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
C) The relative volume in each compartment
D) The relative size of each compartment
E) The blood pressure
Q2) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Where is the greatest volume of water in the body found?
A) Intracellular fluid (ICF)
B) Extracellular fluid(ECF)
C) Tissue(interstitial)fluid
D) Blood plasma and lymph
E) Transcellular fluid
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Q1) The __________ of the small intestine is/are similar to the __________ of the stomach.
A) villi;pyloric glands
B) rugae;aggregated lymphoid nodules
C) intestinal crypts;gastric pits
D) goblet cells;parietal cells
E) pyloric sphincter;ileocecal valve
Q2) The liver is the body's largest gland.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following has an abundance of lymphoid tissue in the mucosa and submucosa?
A) small intestine
B) large intestine
C) stomach
D) esophagus
E) mouth
Q4) Most fat is digested by pancreatic lipase.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) __________ are short term regulators of appetite,whereas __________ is a long-term regulator.
A) Insulin and cholecystokinin (CCK);peptide YY (PYY)
B) Peptide YY (PYY)and insulin;cholecystokinin (CCK)
C) Peptide YY (PYY)and cholecystokinin (CCK);insulin
D) Leptin and insulin;cholecystokinin (CCK)
E) Leptin and insulin;peptide YY (PYY)
Q2) Where is most protein in the body found?
A) In the skeletal system
B) In the muscular system
C) In the the cardiovascular system
D) In the integumentary system
E) In the lymphatic system
Q3) Which of the following is a final product of aerobic respiration?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Pyruvate
C) Lactate
D) Glucose
E) Oxygen
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Q1) The penile urethra is enclosed by the __________.
A) corpus cavernosum
B) corpus spongiosum
C) trabecular muscle
D) prepuce
E) frenulum
Q2) The penis is innervated by the __________ nerve.
A) internal pudendal
B) obturator
C) penile
D) ventral
E) external pudendal
Q3) The orgasm-emission phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by __________.
A) efferent sympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord
B) efferent sympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord
C) efferent parasympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord
D) efferent parasympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord
E) efferent somatic signals from the thoracic region of the spinal cord
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Q1) What structure leads from each ovary to the uterus?
A) Uterine tube
B) Vagina
C) Urethra
D) Vas deferens
E) Copulatory duct
Q2) What is the cessation of menstruation referred to as?
A) Menarche
B) Menopause
C) Climacteric
D) Pubarche
Q3) What determines breast size?
A) The amount of adipose tissue
B) The amount of collagenous fiber
C) The size of lactiferous sinuses
D) The amount of mammary gland tissue
E) Muscle tone
Q4) Women with morning sickness tend to prefer spicy and pungent foods.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) In the slow block to polyspermy,sperm penetration releases an inflow of __________,which in turn stimulates the __________.
A) Cl<sup>-</sup>;corona radiata
B) K<sup>+</sup>;zona pellucida
C) Na<sup>+</sup>;fertilization membrane
D) Ca<sup>2+</sup>;fertilization membrane
E) Ca<sup>2+</sup>;cortical reaction
Q2) Senescence of the immune system makes older people more susceptible to cancer and infectious disease because of a decline in __________.
A) alpha and beta globulins
B) red blood cells and platelets
C) complement proteins
D) prothrombin and fibrinogen
E) antigen-presenting cells and helper T cells
Q3) The slow block refers to the mechanism that prevents fertilization of another egg when one is already pregnant.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The heart occupies a space called the pericardial cavity between the parietal and visceral pericardium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity are each lined with ___________.
A) an endothelium
B) the pericardium
C) the meninges
D) a serous membrane
E) a mucous membrane
Q3) The plane that passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into anterior and posterior portions is called the __________ plane.
A) sagittal
B) frontal
C) median
D) transverse
E) oblique
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