Anatomy and Physiology II Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology II is a continuation of the foundational study of the human body's structure and function, building on principles learned in Anatomy and Physiology I. This course focuses on the complex organization and interactions within the major body systems, including the cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, as well as metabolism and fluid-electrolyte balance. Emphasis is placed on understanding how these systems maintain homeostasis and respond to internal and external changes. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical applications, students deepen their knowledge of anatomical relationships and physiological processes essential for health sciences and medical fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin,hair,and nails are associated with the ________ system.
A)skeletal
B)muscular
C)integumentary
D)endocrine
E)immune
Answer: C
Q2) During exercise,blood flow to skeletal muscles increases.The initial response that increases blood flow is automatic and independent of the nervous and endocrine systems.Which type of homeostatic regulation is this? Why?
Answer: The initial increase in blood flow to active muscles is an example of autoregulation.For example,when oxygen levels decline in a tissue,the cells release chemicals that dilate local blood vessels.This dilation increases the rate of blood flow and provides more oxygen to the region even before responses from the nervous or endocrine system take place.Autoregulation does not require the nervous or endocrine system.
Q3) The common name for the patella is the ________.
Answer: kneecap
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The weakest bond between two atoms is the ________ bond.
A)ionic
B)covalent
C)polar
D)nonpolar
E)hydrogen
Answer: E
Q2) Artificial sweeteners
A)are naturally similar to sugars.
B)are always some form of carbohydrate.
C)are usually not broken down by the body.
D)are inorganic sugar substitutes.
E)provide the same number of calories as an equivalent amount of sucrose.
Answer: C
Q3) Electrons whirl around the center of the atom at high speed,forming a(n)________.
Answer: electron cloud
Q4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) During this phase of cell division,the chromosomes uncoil,the nuclear membrane forms,and cytokinesis occurs.
A)anaphase
B)prophase
C)interphase
D)telophase
E)metaphase
Answer: D
Q2) Which of following properties of microtubules is true?
A)made of myosin
B)made of actin
C)found only in the terminal web
D)another term for microfilaments
E)interact with dynein and kinesin
Answer: E
Q3) Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through ________.
Answer: nuclear pores
Q4) In ________ one substance is transported into the cell,and another is transported out.
Answer: countertransport or antiport
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid are A)endocrine glands.
B)interstitial glands.
C)exocrine glands.
D)merocrine glands.
E)holocrine glands.
Q2) The dominant fiber type in dense connective tissue is A)collagen.
B)elastin.
C)actin.
D)myosin.
E)connectin.
Q3) The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the A)desmosome.
B)hemidesmosome.
C)gap junction.
D)tight junction.
E)zonula adherens.
Q4) Why is cardiac muscle tissue that has been damaged by injury or disease incapable of regeneration?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of sunlight.
A)sebum
B)hemoglobin
C)melanin
D)carotene
E)keratin
Q2) A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called a(n)________.
Q3) While assessing a patient,you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand,it remains peaked.This is a sign of
A)hydration intoxication.
B)water intoxication.
C)dehydration.
D)advanced skin cancer.
E)malfunctioning elastin.
Q4) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Q5) Skin cancer that starts in the stratum germinativum is called ________.
Q6) A bacterial infection that is often fatal in burn patients is called ________.
Q7) The drug ________ increases dermal blood flow and makes the skin red.
Q8) Vitamin D is important for proper ________ development.
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone calcitonin functions to
A)stimulate osteoclast activity.
B)decrease the rate of calcium excretion.
C)decrease the rate of calcium absorption.
D)decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood.
E)stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts.
Q2) A child with rickets often has
A)oversized facial bones.
B)long fingers.
C)frequent bruises.
D)bowed legs.
E)inadequate muscle development.
Q3) During the process of ________,an existing tissue is replaced by bone.
Q4) Identify the structures labeled "4."
A)concentric lamellae
B)circumferential lamellae
C)interstitial lamellae
D)trabeculae
E)periosteum
Q5) A calcified skeletal muscle is an example of ________.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "7."
A)transverse process
B)lamina
C)pedicle
D)vertebral body
E)spinous process
Q2) Which of these is not one of the facial bones?
A)frontal
B)maxilla
C)vomer
D)mandible
E)zygomatic
Q3) Identify the structure the occipital bone surrounds.
A)magnum maximus
B)foramen magnum
C)foramen magnus
D)foramina maximus
E)maximus minimus
Q4) Give the clinical term for the condition in which the vertebral laminae fail to unite during development.
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?
A)sacrum
B)coccyx
C)coxal bone
D)lumbar vertebrae
E)pubic symphysis
Q2) The coxal bone and sacrum combine to form the A)pelvis.
B)pelvic girdle.
C)hips.
D)pectoral girdle.
E)pubic symphysis.
Q3) The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n)________ ligament.
Q4) Compared to the male pelvis,the female pelvis
A)is larger.
B)is heavier.
C)has a greater angle inferior to the pubic symphysis.
D)has a thicker ischial tuberosity.
E)has deep acetabula.
Q5) The two pubic bones join medially at the ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as A)inversion.
B)plantar flexion.
C)eversion.
D)dorsiflexion.
E)pronation.
Q2) The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves A)abduction.
B)adduction.
C)flexion.
D)extension.
E)both flexion and extension.
Q3) Curling into the "fetal position" ________ the intervertebral joints. A)hyperextends
B)flexes
C)abducts
D)extends
E)rotates
Q4) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The protein that is found in the Z line of a sarcomere is called ________.
Q2) Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue,leading to increased muscle mass?
A)epinephrine
B)thyroid hormone
C)testosterone
D)parathyroid hormone
E)calcitonin
Q3) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is
A)the ability to contract.
B)the ability to produce more ATP with little oxygen.
C)the ability to store extra DNA for metabolism.
D)the ability to produce large amounts of the muscle proteins needed for growth and repair.
E)the ability to produce nutrients for muscle contraction.
Q4) A single contraction-relaxation cycle in a muscle fiber produces a ________.
Q5) Active sites become exposed when calcium ions bind to ________.
Q6) The protein that regulates muscle contraction by controlling the availability of active sites on actin is called ________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue?
A)hyoglossus
B)lateral pterygoideus
C)sternohyoid
D)thyrohyoid
E)geniohyoid
Q2) A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)
A)agonist.
B)antagonist.
C)synergist.
D)originator.
E)levator.
Q3) A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the A)tibialis anterior.
B)tibialis posterior.
C)peroneus brevis.
D)soleus.
E)gastrocnemius.
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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rapid impulse conduction from "node" to "node" is called
A)spatial propagation.
B)saltatory propagation.
C)divergent propagation.
D)synaptic transmission.
E)continuous propagation.
Q2) IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials)
A)are local depolarizations.
B)are local hyperpolarizations.
C)increase membrane permeability to sodium ions.
D)block the efflux of potassium ions.
E)block the efflux of calcium ions.
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
A)sense the internal and external environments
B)integrate sensory information
C)coordinate voluntary and involuntary activities
D)direct long-term functions,such as growth
E)control peripheral effectors
Q4) Most neurons lack ________ and so are permanently blocked from undergoing cell division.
14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly
A)sensory nuclei.
B)somatic motor nuclei.
C)autonomic motor nuclei.
D)nerve tracts.
E)sympathetic nuclei.
Q2) The subdural space lies between
A)the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.
B)the pia mater and the dura mater.
C)the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
D)the pia mater and the subarachnoid space.
E)the endosteum and the periosteum.
Q3) The spinal cord is part of the
A)peripheral nervous system.
B)somatic nervous system.
C)central nervous system.
D)autonomic nervous system.
E)afferent nervous system.
Q4) Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called ________.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A)cerebral aqueduct
B)lateral ventricle
C)lateral aperture
D)subarachnoid space
E)choroid plexus
Q2) The thin partition that separates the first and second ventricles is the A)falx cerebri.
B)septum pellucidum.
C)septum insula.
D)interventricular foramina.
E)cerebral aqueduct.
Q3) Integrative centers concerned with the performance of complex processes are restricted to either the left or the right hemisphere.These complex processes include A)speech.
B)writing.
C)mathematical computation.
D)understanding spatial relationships.
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 15: Neural Integration I: Sensory Pathways and the
Somatic Nervous System
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Q1) The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles.
Q2) Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to the ________ cortex.
Q3) A receptor that contains many mechanically-gated ion channels would function best as a
A)tactile receptor.
B)chemoreceptor.
C)nociceptor.
D)thermoreceptor.
E)light receptor.
Q4) The axon labeled "2" synapses with which structure?
A)1
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)6
Q5) How can an understanding of the neurotransmitters important in the function of the basal nuclei contribute to an understanding the underlying cause for Parkinson's disease?
Q7) Ascending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information. Page 17
Q6) The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a ________.
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Chapter 16: Neural Integration Ii: the Autonomic Nervous System and
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synapses that receive norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter are called ________.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
The stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors can lead to 1) an increase in metabolic activity.
2) stimulation of airway smooth muscle.
3) the breakdown of triglycerides within adipocytes.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1 and 3
E) 1, 2, and 3
Q3) Postganglionic axons usually are
A)myelinated.
B)unmyelinated.
C)larger than preganglionic fibers.
D)located in the brain.
E)located in the spinal cord.
Q4) Most vital organs receive ________ innervation.That is,they receive input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Q5) The parasympathetic division is also called the ________ division.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structures labeled "8."
A)cochlea
B)auditory ossicles
C)auricle
D)tympanic membrane
E)vestibule
Q2) An elongate outer segment containing membranous discs and a narrow connecting stalk that attaches the outer segment to the inner segment describes
A)a bipolar cell.
B)a photoreceptor.
C)a ganglion cell.
D)an amacrine cell.
E)a horizontal cell.
Q3) ________ deafness occurs because of a problem in the cochlea or somewhere along the auditory pathway. (Note: Be sure to capitalize the first letter of your answer).
Q4) ________,or pinkeye,results from damage to or irritation of the conjunctival surface.(Note: Be sure to capitalize the first letter of your answer).
Q5) Photoreceptor that convey our ability to see color are ________.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Steroid hormones
A)are proteins.
B)cannot diffuse through cell membranes.
C)bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells.
D)remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time.
E)are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma.
Q2) Hormones can operate on the ________ level of organization.
A)cellular
B)tissue
C)organ
D)organismic
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The hormone that may be slowly administered by intravenous drip to accelerate labor and delivery is
A)oxytocin.
B)prolactin.
C)luteinizing hormone.
D)just extra fluids.
E)both oxytocin and luteinizing hormone.
Q4) The outer layer of the suprarenal gland is the ________.
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Q1) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the:
A)neutrophils
B)monocytes
C)basophils
D)erythrocytes
E)lymphocytes
Q2) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot.Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?
A)neutrophils
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)lymphocytes
E)monocytes
Q3) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?
A)metalloprotein
B)steroid-binding protein
C)hormone-binding protein
D)apolipoprotein
E)transport albumin
Q4) Plasminogen is converted to its active form by an enzyme called ________.
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Q1) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is the
A)atrial systole.
B)early diastolic filling phase.
C)late diastolic filling phase.
D)systolic ejection phase.
E)dicrotic phase.
Q2) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the A)heart.
B)lungs.
C)brain.
D)intestines.
E)liver.
Q3) The ________ separates the two atria.
Q4) The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to A)movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane.
B)calcium channels remaining open.
C)increased membrane permeability to potassium ion.
D)decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane.
E)increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.
23
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following equations shows the correct relation between blood flow (F),pressure (P),and resistance (R)?
A)P=(F×R)× 4
B)F=R/P
C)F=P+R
D)F=P-R
E)F=P/R
Q2) Each of the following factors would increase cardiac output,except A)increased venous return.
B)decreased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C)increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
D)increased blood concentration of glucose.
E)stimulation of the heart by epinephrine.
Q3) Venous valves are responsible for
A)preventing anterograde flow.
B)channeling blood away from the heart.
C)channeling blood toward the heart.
D)preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle.
E)regulating blood pressure in veins.
Q4) The ________ supplies blood to the face and neck.
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Q1) Microglia are to the CNS as Kupffer cells are to the ________.
Q2) What is MALT? What role does it play in the body's defenses?
Q3) The only antibodies that normally cross the placenta are
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.
Q4) An inflammatory response is triggered when A)red blood cells release pyrogens.
B)T cells release interferon.
C)mast cells release histamine and heparin.
D)neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.
E)blood flow to an area increases.
Q5) Microphages include A)monocytes.
B)Kupffer cells.
C)neutrophils.
D)eosinophils.
E)both neutrophils and eosinophils.
Page 25
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following,except the A)lips.
B)nose.
C)nasal cavity.
D)pharynx.
E)paranasal sinuses.
Q2) Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in A)a loss of surfactant.
B)an increased rate of gas exchange.
C)decreased surface tension in the alveoli.
D)expansion of alveoli.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The unit of measurement for pressure preferred by many respiratory therapists is A)mm Hg.
B)torr.
C)cm H O.
D)psi.
E)centigrade.
Q4) A unique feature of the left lung is the ________.
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) A small,wormlike structure attached to the posteromedial surface of the cecum is the A)haustra.
B)pancreas.
C)gallbladder.
D)appendix. E)ileum.
Q2) The middle segment of the small intestine is the A)ileum.
B)duodenum.
C)jejunum.
D)pylorus.
E)cecum.
Q3) Sensory nerve cells,parasympathetic ganglia,and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the A)mucosa. B)serosa.
C)adventitia.
D)submucosal plexus. E)lamina propria.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics
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Q1) The citric acid cycle is an aerobic process because A)ADP is phosphorylated.
B)FADH2 is produced.
C)citric acid molecules have oxygen atoms.
D)oxygen is needed to remove carbon atoms as carbon dioxide.
E)NAH+ is converted into NADH.
Q2) The major steps in oxidative phosphorylation include all of the following,except
A)removal of hydrogen atoms from a substrate molecule by coenzymes.
B)ionization of hydrogen atoms.
C)increasing the energy level of electrons passing through the electron transport chain.
D)the breaking of carbon-carbon covalent bonds.
E)the acceptance of electrons by oxygen atoms.
Q3) What is the molecule labeled "7" ?
A)hydrogen atoms
B)citric acid
C)4 carbon molecule
D)NADH
E)FADH
Q4) According to the food pyramid,there are ________ basic food groups.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Secretion of hydrogen ion by the PCT is by the process of A)diffusion.
B)facilitated diffusion.
C)active transport.
D)cotransport.
E)countertransport.
Q2) Each of the following organ systems excretes wastes to some degree,except the ________ system.
A)urinary
B)integumentary
C)digestive
D)endocrine
E)respiratory
Q3) During the micturition reflex,
A)stimulation of stretch receptors in the bladder wall sends impulses to the sacral cord.
B)parasympathetic motor neurons that control the detrusor muscle become active.
C)the internal sphincter is subconsciously relaxed.
D)the external sphincter is consciously relaxed.
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) The normal pH range for ECF is 7.35 to ________.
Q2) Will hyperventilation raise or lower pH?
Q3) Secretion of potassium into the urine is
A)increased by ADH.
B)associated with the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubules and collecting ducts.
C)minimal because the human diet includes very little potassium.
D)an indication of dehydration.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q4) Why does potassium concentration rise in patients with acidosis? What is this called? What effects does it have?
Q5) The principal ions in extracellular fluid are sodium,chloride,and ________.
Q6) Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone
A)calcitonin.
B)parathyroid hormone.
C)aldosterone.
D)cortisol.
E)ADH.
Q7) A ________ acid is an acid that can leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
Page 30
Q8) ________ promotes water reabsorption at the kidneys and stimulates thirst.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Q1) The male reproductive system is most closely associated with which of the following systems?
A)muscular
B)urinary
C)endocrine
D)digestive
E)integumentary
Q2) For erection to occur
A)there must be sufficient blood hydrostatic pressure.
B)the sacral spinal cord must be intact.
C)nitric oxide must be present.
D)blood flow to the penis must increase.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term myometrium?
A)thick layer of smooth muscle cells
B)supports the uterus anteriorly
C)supports the uterus laterally
D)consists of a functional zone and a basilar zone
E)after ovulation,the ovum is captured by it
Q4) The interstitial cells in the testes produce ________.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
140 Verified Questions
140 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34538
Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which a viable embryo is formed is called ________.
Q2) Identify the stage labeled "8."
A)zygote
B)early morula
C)blastomere
D)trophoblast
E)advanced morula
Q3) During implantation,the
A)syncytial trophoblast erodes a path through the endometrium.
B)inner cell mass begins to form the placenta.
C)maternal blood vessels in the endometrium are walled off from the blastocyst.
D)entire trophoblast becomes syncytial.
E)inner cell mass is temporarily deprived of nutrients.
Q4) The ________ is the portion of the endometrium not in contact with the chorion.
Q5) In polygenic inheritance,phenotypic characters are
A)determined by a double pair of alleles.
B)determined by interactions among several genes.
C)determined by multiple copies of a single gene.
D)always controlled by genes on the same chromosome.
E)determined by the genes on the Y chromosome.
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