Anatomy and Physiology II Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology II builds on foundational knowledge from earlier coursework to deepen understanding of the human body's complex systems. This course explores the structure and function of the cardiovascular, lymphatic, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems, emphasizing how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis. Students will study physiological processes, system regulation, and the integration of body functions, with practical applications through laboratory exercises and case studies. Mastery of this material is essential for advanced health science fields, providing critical insights into the mechanisms that sustain life and respond to disease.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 15th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormonal or electrical signals are sent from the control center to the A)receptors
B)stimulus
C)afferent pathway
D)effectors
E)efferent pathway
Answer: D
Q2) Measuring the movements of protons in a magnetic field is
A)computed tomography
B)magnetic resonance imaging
C)ultrasound scanning
D)radionuclide scanning
E)amniocentesis
Answer: B
Q3) Explain the relationship between the skeletal system and the urinary system?
Answer: The skeletal system supports and protects organs within the body,stores minerals.Within the bones are the cells that produce blood cells.The urinary system helps regulate the production of red blood cells and helps maintain the body's mineral balance.
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the major function of ATP in cells?
A)forms the building blocks for the synthesis of proteins.
B)transfers energy for cell functions
C)transfers information carries genetic code needed for protein synthesis
D)stores information for carries inherited genetic code that controls protein synthesis
E)transports fluids
Answer: B
Q2) A radioactive isotope of sulfur would be trackable in.
A)cysteine
B)fatty acid chain
C)glucose
D)glycine
E)nucleotide
Answer: A
Q3) Describe the structural characteristics of an amino acid.
Answer: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom with 1)a hydrogen atom,2)an amino group,3)an acidic carboxyl group,and 4)a side chain attached to it.
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4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly explain the difference between transcription and translation.
Answer: Transcription is making mRNA from DNA and it occurs in the nucleus,while translation is making a protein from the information in mRNA and happens in the cytosol of the cell.
Q2) Which cellular organelle is comprised of a pair of centrioles and the surrounding pericentriolar material.
A)cytoskeleton
B)cilia
C)centrosome
D)flagella
E)peroxisomes
Answer: C
Q3) Briefly describe how proteins move through the Golgi complex.
Answer: Proteins are packaged into transport vesicles by the rough endoplasmic reticulum membrane.These vesicles enter on the (cis)face of the Golgi complex,and the proteins move through the cisternae,from (cis)face through to exit (trans)face.Proteins will leave from the (trans)face of the Golgi complex in vesicles that will deliver the protein to plasma membrane,secretory vesicles,or to other organelles in the cell.
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.
Q2) What connective tissue is replaced by bone in the epiphyseal plates?
A)elastic connective tissue
B)dense regular connective tissue
C)hyaline cartilage
D)fibrocartilage
E)dense irregular connective tissue
Q3) Which membrane lines freely moveable joints?
A)Mucous membrane
B)Serous membrane
C)Cutaneous membrane
D)Synovial membrane
Q4) These types of cell junctions anchor adjacent cells together and resist their separation during contractile activities.
A)tight junctions and hemidesmosomes
B)gap junctions and tight junctions
C)adherens junctions and desmosomes
D)desmosomes and gap junctions
E)hemidesmosome and tight junctions
Q5) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.
Q2) Tactile epithelial cells are located in the A)stratum basale.
B)stratum spinosum.
C)stratum granulosum.
D)stratum lucidum.
E)stratum corneum.
Q3) "Goose bumps" are caused by
A)contraction of arrector pili muscles.
B)secretions from the sudoriferous glands.
C)contraction of dermal papillae.
D)stimulation of hair root plexus.
E)secretions from the sebaceous gland.
Q4) Which structure found in the skin plays an important role in thermoregulation?
A)Melanocytes
B)Sebaceous glands
C)Sweat glands
D)Stratum lucidum
E)Epidermal ridges
Q5) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing
Page 7
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are osteons in compact bone tissue aligned? How does the osteon arrangement affect bone strength?
A)horizontal to the metaphysis;the epiphyseal plate resists tearing due to the arrangement of osteons.
B)parallel to the epiphysis;the spongy bone follows the alignment of the osteons increasing the strength of the bone ends.
C)parallel to the length of the diaphysis;the shaft resists bending even when stresses are applied in certain directions.
D)randomly between the epiphyseal plates;the random arrangement of osteons makes the shaft strong no matter what direction the bone is stressed.
E)parallel to the perforating canals;the osteons running adjacent to the canals protects the vessels and nerves from becoming damaged.
Q2) Briefly describe the processes by which bone increases in length and diameter.
Q3) Jamie has a tumor of the parathyroid glands that causes a hypersecretion of PTH from these glands.Predict the effect this hypersecretion would have on the skeletal system and on the secretion of calcitonin from the thyroid gland.
Q4) Briefly describe the steps in bone resorption.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Q2) The sella turcica is a bony depression found in which cranial bone?
A)sphenoid
B)frontal
C)temporal
D)ethmoid
E)0ccipital
Q3) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?
A)tarsals
B)tibia
C)sphenoid
D)scapula
E)clavicle
Q4) The tubercle found on the neck of a rib articulates with a facet found on the
A)spinous process of a thoracic vertebra.
B)spinous process of a lumbar vertebra.
C)transverse process of a thoracic vertebra.
D)xiphoid process of the sternum.
E)manubrium of the sternum.
Q5) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common condition experienced by runners,which is caused by the kneecap tracking laterally as well as inferiorly and superiorly.
A)patellofemoral stress syndrome
B)metatarsal microfracture
C)genu valgum (knock-knee)
D)hallux valgus
E)plantar fasciitis
Q2) The neurocranium gives rise to bones of the A)upper limbs.
B)lower limbs.
C)face.
D)ribcage.
E)skull.
Q3) The coxal bones unite anteriorly at a joint called the A)pubic symphysis.
B)sacroiliac joint.
C)hip.
D)acetabulum.
E)None of these choices are correct.
Q4) Compare and contrast the male and female pelvis.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type(s)of joint(s)lack(s)a synovial cavity?
1)Fibrous joints
2)Cartilaginous joints
3)Synovial joints
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)1 and 2
E)1,2,and 3
Q2) The joints between the first pair of ribs and the sternum are structurally classified as [dropdown 1].The sternocostal joints for the second through seventh pair of ribs are functionally classified as [dropdown 2].
Dropdown 1 choices: cartilaginous fibrous
synovial
Dropdown 2 choices: amphiarthrosis
diarthrosis
synarthrosis
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A brief contraction of all muscle fibers in a motor unit in response to a single action potential moving down the somatic motor neuron is known as
A)unfused tetanus.
B)fused tetanus
C)wave summation.
D)refractory period.
E)twitch contraction.
Q2) During muscle contractions ,thin filaments are pulled towards the A)Z disc.
B)H zone.
C)M line.
D)A band.
E)I band.
Q3) Motor unit recruitment occurs when there is a(n)[increase] in the number of active motor units within a skeletal muscle.
A)increase
B)decrease
C)no change
Q4) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these muscles has fascicles parallel to the midline?
A)external obliques
B)transverse abdominis
C)rectus femoris
D)biceps femoris
E)orbicularis oculi
Q2) jWhich of these groups includes only muscles that move the humerus but do NOT originate on the axial skeleton?
A)serratus anterior,latissimus dorsi,trapezius
B)supraspinatus,teres major,teres minor,infraspinatus
C)deltoid,brachioradialis,latissimus dorsi,pectoralis major
D)trapezius,pectoralis minor,pectoralis major,triceps brachii
E)triceps brachii,biceps brachii,brachioradialis
Q3) What anatomical structures of the musculoskeletal system correspond to the components of a lever system? Describe the arrangement of these parts in first,second,and third class lever systems.
Q4) Chuck has a rotator cuff injury.Which muscles and associated structures are most commonly involved in this type of injury? What sorts of activities commonly cause this injury?
Q5) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the difference between spatial and temporal summation in a postsynaptic neuron.
Q2) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse.
Q3) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Q4) Sensory receptors such as corpuscle of touch and tactile epithelial cells would be associated with neurons that are classified functionally as [dropdown 1] and structurally as [dropdown 2].
Dropdown 1 and 2 choices: bipolar interneuron motor multipolar sensory unipolar
Q5) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q6) Describe the events that occur with the voltage-gated sodium channel during the depolarizing phase of an action potential.
Q7) List the three major factors that contribute to the creation of the resting membrane potential in excitable cells.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc can be monosynaptic or polysynaptic?
A)Sensory receptor
B)Sensory neuron
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Integrating center
Q2) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc would involve the posterior root ganglion?
A)Integrating center
B)Sensory neuron
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Interneuron
Q3) The nerves that supply the thigh and calf of leg emerge from the
A)lumbar enlargement
B)filum terminale
C)cauda equina
D)conus medullaris
E)cervical enlargement
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with Wernicke's aphasia would exhibit what issues upon examination?
A)Slow,non-fluent speech devoid of meaning
B)Can understand what is being said,but unable to repeat the words
C)Difficulty pronouncing multisyllabic words
D)No expression of fear or emotions
E)Unable to recognize faces
Q2) Damage to which cranial nerve may result in death?
A)glossopharyngeal
B)vagus
C)vestibulocochlear
D)oculomotor
E)facial
Q3) Which cranial nerve is associated with nuclei in both the medulla oblongata and pons?
A)V
B)VI
C)VII
D)VIII
E)IX
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are just about to perform a clinical procedure for the first time and your palms begin to sweat.This is due to
A)increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing alpha 1 receptors.
B)increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing beta 2 receptors.
C)increased parasympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing nicotinic receptors.
D)increased parasympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing muscarinic receptors.
E)increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing muscarinic receptors.
Q2) Jennifer is at a stoplight and begins to accelerate into traffic when the light turns green.She stops suddenly as a truck runs the red light and is only a few inches away from her front bumper.Which effect would you NOT expect to see in Jennifer's body?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Airway dilation
C)Increased pupil diameter
D)Increased secretion of digestive juices
E)Increased secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor, and Integrative Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which proprioceptors are found in the articular capsules of synovial joints?
A)Tendon organs
B)Gamma motor neurons
C)Muscle spindles
D)Kinesthetic receptors
E)Tactile receptors
Q2) Synesthesia is a condition in which stimulation of one sensory modality results in perception of another.One man reportedly tastes shapes.Many synesthetic people hear colors.Based on what you know about sensation,propose a physiological mechanism that explains the phenomenon of synesthesia.
Q3) You have a pillow in one hand and are about to pick up your Anatomy and Physiology textbook.What receptor will help determine the muscular effort needed for these two objects?
A)proprioceptors
B)nociceptors
C)mechanoreceptors
D)chemoreceptors
E)Type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors
Q4) Describe the role of the reticular activating system in sleep,arousal,and consciousness.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement accurately describes the changes in the membrane potential of a photoreceptor cell when light rays strike its photopigments?
A)The photoreceptor cell undergoes rapid depolarization.
B)The photoreceptor cell undergoes hyperpolarization.
C)A graded potential proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus occurs in the photoreceptor cell.
D)No changes in the membrane potential occur.
E)The photoreceptor cell creates action potentials at a frequency proportional to the intensity of the light stimulus.
Q2) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
Q3) When you inhale slowly and deeply,this helps identify odors.Why?
A)The receptors need more air to the odors.
B)The threshold for odor detection is high.
C)More odorants are brought into contact with the olfactory epithelium.
D)Adaptation to odors is slow.
E)Olfactory transduction can only occur if a certain level of odorant concentration is available.
Q4) Explain how the inhibitory neurotransmitter prevents visual signals from being sent to the brain.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a hormone is present in excessive levels,the number of target-cell receptors may decrease.This is called
A)receptor recognition.
B)sensory adaptation.
C)paracrine regulation.
D)up-regulation.
E)down-regulation.
Q2) Leptin is a hormone produced by the A)placenta.
B)ovaries.
C)testes.
D)pituitary gland.
E)adipose tissue.
Q3) Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)?
A)Thyrotrophs
B)Gonadotrophs
C)Somatotrophs
D)Lactotrophs
E)Corticotrophs
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) During hemopoiesis,some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into A)proerythroblasts.
B)T lymphoblasts.
C)B lymphoblasts.
D)NK lymphoblasts.
E)all of these choices.
Q2) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Q3) Serum is
A)the same as plasma.
B)plasma without the clotting factors.
C)the same as lymph.
D)formed during the first step in blood clotting.
E)pulmonary interstitial fluid.
Q4) Describe the negative feedback loop that controls the rate of erythropoiesis.Under what circumstances would you expect the rate of erythropoiesis to increase? How would it be possible to tell if the rate of erythropoiesis is elevated?
Q5) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.
Q6) List and briefly describe the major functions of blood.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which wave in an electrocardiogram represents repolarization of the ventricles?
A)R wave
B)T wave
C)S wave
D)P wave
E)Q wave
Q2) Which layer of the heart wall consists of cardiac muscle tissue?
A)Epicardium
B)Pericardium
C)Myocardium
D)Endocardium
E)Hypocardium
Q3) Pectinate muscles extend from the atrial internal wall into the pouch-like structures that increase the total filling capacity of the atrium.These structure are the A)ventricles
B)coronary sulci
C)fossa ovalis
D)interatrial septa
E)auricles
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Page 22
Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) Which of the following is the most important method of capillary exchange?
A)diffusion
B)facilitated diffusion
C)bulk flow
D)primary active transport
E)secondary active transport
Q2) The pressure-driven movement of fluids and solutes from blood into interstitial fluid is called
A)reabsorption.
B)filtration.
C)bulk flow.
D)osmosis.
E)transcytosis.
Q3) Which of the following vessels carries the venous blood from the lower body into the right atrium?
A)Inferior vena cava
B)Superior vena cava
C)Tibial vein
D)Coronary vein
E)Iliac vein
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT considered an organ of the immune system?
A)Spleen
B)Lymph node
C)Red bone marrow
D)Thymus
E)Pancreas
Q2) Which type of allergic reaction is the most common type?
A)Type I (anaphylactic)reaction
B)Type II (cytotoxic)reaction
C)Type III (immune-complex)reactions
D)Type IV (cell-mediated)reactions
E)All of these types are common allergic reactions.
Q3) An individual in a coma who is not able to move,will most likely have a reduction in activity of the
A)respiratory pump
B)skeletal muscle pump
C)both the skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps
D)lymphocytes
E)macrophages
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is a deep inhalation through a widely opened mouth producing an exaggerated depression of the mandible,the precise cause of which is unknown?
A)sobbing
B)yawning
C)coughing
D)laughing
E)hiccupping
Q2) Which of the following is a long drawn and deep inhalation followed by a complete closure of the rima glottidis,which results in a strong exhalation,pushing the rima glottidis open and sending a blast of air through the upper respiratory passages?
A)crying
B)sneezing
C)coughing
D)sighing
E)Valsalva maneuver
Q3) Describe and explain the effects of smoking on the functioning of the respiratory system.
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25
Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following enzymes acts to produce monoglycerides along with other products?
A)Lipase
B)Amylase
C)Trypsin
D)Phosphatase
E)Ligase
Q2) The secretion of gastric juice,strengthening of contractions of the lower esophageal sphincter,increased motility of the stomach and relaxation of the pyloric sphincter are stimulated by which hormone?
A)cholecystokinin
B)gastrin
C)enterogastrone
D)secretin
E)ghrelin
Q3) Explain why food does not normally go up into your nasal cavity or down into your lungs when you swallow-even if you are standing on your head when you swallow.
Q4) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
Q5) Describe the role of the liver in protein metabolism.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Nutrition
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Q1) The most important product of the reactions of the Krebs cycle is
A)Carbon dioxide
B)GTP
C)Reduced coenzymes
D)pyruvate
E)water
Q2) An individual suffers from easily fractured bones.Which vitamin deficiency is he most likely experiencing?
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
E)E
Q3) The most dramatic metabolic change that occurs with fasting is
A)Decrease in the formation of ketone bodies
B)Increase in ATP production
C)Inhibition of insulin
D)Decrease in heart rate and blood pressure
E)Increase in lipolysis
Q4) How does the hypothalamus regulate food intake?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a way angiotensin II affects the kidneys?
A)It increases GFR
B)It can decrease GFR
C)It enhances reabsorption of certain ions
D)It stimulates the release of aldosterone
E)None of these choices
Q2) This is the formation of a new glucose molecule.
A)glycolysis
B)gluconeogenesis
C)glucosamine
D)glucose
E)calcitriol
Q3) What is the normal volume of urine produced in humans?
A)1-2 L / hr
B)1-2 L / day
C)2-3 L / hr
D)3-4 L / week
E)10 L / 24 hours
Q4) Describe the structural features of the renal corpuscle that enhance its blood filtering capacity.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Homeostasis
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Q1) A patient's blood pH is 7.48;partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 32 mm Hg and levels of bicarbonate in the blood are 20 mEq/liter.What can you tell about this patient's condition? Explain your answer.
Q2) In extracellular fluid the most abundant anion is:
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)Cl<sup>-</sup>
C)K<sup>+</sup>
D)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
E)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
Q3) Which of the following is the most plentiful buffer in the tubular fluid of the kidney collecting duct?
A)Bicarbonate ion
B)Monohydrogen phosphate ion
C)Ammonium ion
D)Dihydrogen phosphate ion
E)None of these
Q4) Describe the fluid and electrolyte disorders to which the elderly are particularly susceptible.
Q5) Explain why infants suffer dehydration far more easily than adults.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which structure is composed of three cylindrical masses of erectile tissue each surrounded by a fibrous tissue?
A)Testes
B)Prostate
C)Bladder
D)Penis
E)Urethra
Q2) The uterine phase where the thickness of the endometrium doubles is the
A)Menstrual phase
B)Preovulatory phase
C)Proliferative phase
D)Follicular phase
E)Postovulatory phase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a sexually transmitted disease?
A)Syphilis
B)Gonorrhea
C)Genital Herpes
D)Genital Warts
E)All of these are sexually transmitted diseases
Q4) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
83 Verified Questions
83 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67083
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the terms below describes the beginning or first discernable indication of the development of an organ or structure?
A)Conceptus
B)Primordium
C)Epigenesis
D)Karyotype
E)Fertilization age
Q2) Which of the following is the connection between the placenta and the embryo?
A)Amnion
B)Chorion
C)Umbilical cord
D)Placenta
E)Capillary beds
Q3) Which condition listed is a sex chromosome aneuploidy characterized by at least 3 X chromosomes (XXX)?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Metafemale syndrome
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Lethal gene
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
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