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Anatomy and Physiology II is a continuation of the foundational study of the human body, focusing on the structure and function of major organ systems beyond those covered in the introductory course. Topics typically include the cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, reproductive, and endocrine systems, as well as fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance. The course emphasizes the intricate relationships between physiological processes and anatomical structures, highlighting how the body maintains homeostasis. Students will integrate knowledge through laboratory exercises, hands-on activities, and critical analysis of physiological mechanisms to develop a comprehensive understanding of human biology at both the organ and systemic levels.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 9th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Q1) Organs systems are a component of the integumentary system which includes
A) anatomical units with related functions
B) formed by two or more organs
C) often large enough to be studied without magnification
D) interdependent on each other
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) A ________ section is produced if the body is separated into superior and inferior portions.
A) coronal
B) medial
C) frontal
D) parasagittal
E) transverse
Answer: E
Q3) The anatomical term calcaneus refers to the calf.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Which organelle determines the structural and functional characteristics of the cell by controlling protein synthesis, determining what proteins are synthesized, and in what amounts?
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) Golgi apparatus
C) ribosomes
D) mitochondria
E) nucleus
Answer: E
Q2) What is the term for the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane from a low solute concentration to a high solute concentration?
A) facilitated diffusion
B) osmosis
C) filtration
D) active transport
E) None of the answers are correct.
Answer: B
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Q1) Mucous membranes ________.
A) line the ventral body cavities that are enclosed
B) keep connective tissue surfaces moist at all times
C) are lined by stratified epithelia that perform absorptive or secretory functions
D) line passageways that communicate with the exterior and form a barrier that resists the entry of pathogens
E) None of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
Q2) What type of epithelium makes up the endothelium of blood vessels?
A) simple squamous
B) stratified cuboidal
C) transitional
D) simple columnar
E) pseudostratified columnar
Answer: A
Q3) The supporting structural material of the epiglottis is elastic cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) The hair matrix is a layer of ________.
A) loose connective tissue
B) apocrine glands
C) epithelium
D) sebum
E) dense connective tissue
Q2) What is the structure indicated by Label A?
A) Epidermis
B) Dermis
C) Hypodermis
D) Superficial fascia
E) Subcutaneous layer
Q3) Which of the following parts of a hair is/are usually seen on the surface?
A) cortex, medulla, follicle
B) bulb, root, shaft
C) follicle, bulb, cuticle, cortex
D) hard keratin, bulb, root
E) shaft only
Q4) What is "baby fat" and what is its importance?
Q5) What are the main differences between sebum and eccrine sweat?
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Q1) The central canal of an osteon usually runs parallel to the surface of a bone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the structure indicated by Label D.
A) Epiphysis
B) Endosteum
C) Periosteum
D) Diaphysis
E) Metaphysis
Q3) The central canals connect the lacunae to one another.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the structure indicated by Label T.
A) Circumferential lamellae
B) Perforating canals
C) Central canals
D) Interstitial lamellae
E) Canaliculi
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Q5) How does an extensive exercise program affect the appearance of the skeleton? Why do these changes occur?

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Q1) The parietal, temporal, frontal, and occipital bones are part of (the)________.
A) cranium
B) skull
C) facial bones
D) axial skeleton
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q2) The frontal bone, the ethmoid, and the lesser wings of the sphenoid form the
A) posterior cranial fossa
B) internal nares
C) anterior cranial fossa
D) middle cranial fossa
E) crista galli
Q3) Identify the structure indicated by Label H.
A) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid
B) Crista galli
C) Perpendicular plate of palatine bone
D) Cribriform plate of ethmoid
E) Horizontal plate of palatine bone
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Q1) The capitulum is a part of the ________.
A) scapula
B) ulna
C) humerus
D) radius
E) clavicle
Q2) Identify the structure indicated by Label E.
A) Inferior angle
B) Infraglenoid tubercle
C) Spine
D) Acromion
E) Infraspinous fossa
Q3) Identify the structure indicated by Label M.
A) Hamate
B) Pisiform
C) Lunate
D) Scaphoid
E) Capitate
Q4) How can the age of a skeleton be determined?
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Q1) Joints between the superior and inferior articulating facets of adjacent vertebrae are called ________.
A) symphyses
B) gomphoses
C) synostoses
D) syndesmoses
E) zygapophysial joints
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label D.
A) Subdeltoid bursa
B) Humerus
C) Coracoid process
D) Coronoid process
E) Acromion
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label K.
A) Coronoid process
B) Acromion
C) Coracoid process
D) Subdeltoid bursa
E) Glenoid cavity
Q4) Why do human beings lose height as they reach old age?
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Q1) Describe the composition and the arrangement of constituents within a myofibril.
Q2) Identify the specific structure indicated by Label C.
A) Dendrite
B) Myofibril
C) Cell body
D) Axon
E) Myofilament
Q3) Identify the specific structure indicated by Label B.
A) Perimysium
B) Endosteum
C) Periosteum
D) Endomysium
E) Epimysium
Q4) How many skeletal muscles are there in the muscular system?
A) 50
B) 206
C) thousands
D) 700+
E) 116
Q5) How are oxygen and nutrients supplied to the tissues of a muscle?
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Q1) The external anal sphincter muscle and the pubococcygeus muscle are located within this perineal region.
A) urogenital triangle
B) anal triangle
C) urogenital diaphragm
D) diaphragm muscle
E) both urogenital triangle and anal triangle
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label X.
A) External oblique
B) Rectus sheath
C) Gluteus maximus
D) Pectineus
E) Gluteus medius
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label FF.
A) Vastus medialis
B) Rectus femoris
C) Pectineus
D) Semimembranosus
E) Sartorius
Q4) Why can one clear the ears by swallowing?
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Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label O.
A) Adductor longus
B) Sartorius
C) Gracilis
D) Tensor fasciae latae
E) Rectus femoris
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label O.
A) Soleus
B) Tibialis anterior
C) Extensor digitorum
D) Extensor hallucis longus
E) Plantaris
Q3) The ________ tendon is the strongest, thickest tendon in the body.
A) tibialis anterior
B) fibularis longus
C) calcaneal
D) fibularis brevis
E) quadriceps
Q4) Which muscles are responsible for finger abduction?
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Q1) The trachea can be seen in a cross-section at the level of vertebra T2.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To perform a spinal tap, a health professional inserts a needle in the intervertebral spaces between the ________ vertebrae.
A) L3 and L4
B) L1 and L2
C) L2 and L3
D) L1, L2, and L3
E) L1 and L5
Q3) From an anterior view, the largest muscle of the superior trunk is the ________. A) rectus abdominis
B) external oblique
C) pectoralis major
D) serratus anterior
E) deltoid
Q4) The stomach can be seen in a cross-section at the level of vertebra L5.
A)True
B)False

Page 14
Q5) What is the femoral triangle and what is its clinical significance?
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Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label N.
A) Nucleus
B) Ependyma
C) Axolemma
D) Axon
E) Neurolemma
Q2) Collections of axons in the CNS that have a common origin and destination are called ________.
A) nerves
B) centers
C) tracts
D) ganglia
E) nuclei
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label P.
A) Neurolemma
B) Postsynaptic membrane
C) Axolemma
D) Schwann cell membrane
E) Presynaptic membrane
Q4) What is Wallerian degeneration?
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Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label D.
A) Epineurium
B) Endoneurium
C) Fascicle
D) Perineurium
E) Blood vessels
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label K.
A) Anterior median sulcus
B) Cervical enlargement
C) Lumbosacral enlargement
D) Posterior median sulcus
E) Conus medullaris
Q3) Caudally, the spinal dura mater blends with components of the ________ to form the coccygeal ligament.
A) dorsal root ganglia
B) filum terminale
C) ventral root
D) spinal nerves
E) cauda equina
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Q4) Why are spinal taps done in the lumbar region when a CNS infection is suspected?

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Q1) Axons of upper motor neurons in the reticular formation descend in the reticulospinal tracts, and cross to the opposite side of the mesencephalon in the brainstem.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which area of the brain coordinates complex motor patterns?
A) brainstem
B) thalamus
C) pons
D) cerebral cortex
E) cerebellum
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label G.
A) Rubrospinal tract
B) Anterior corticospinal tract
C) Tectospinal tract
D) Vestibulospinal tract
E) Reticulospinal tract
Q4) Ascending sensory information is relayed from one nucleus to another in a series of steps, which permits modulation of the response, but this processing takes time. Why is this delay in response not dangerous to the organism?
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Q1) Which cranial nerves have special sensory functions?
A) N III, IV, VI
B) N V, VI, VII
C) N I, II, VIII
D) N III, VII, IX
E) N IV, V, VI
Q2) Identify the structure indicated by Label H.
A) Celiac plexus
B) Cardiac plexus
C) Anterior vagal trunk
D) Hypogastric plexus
E) Otic ganglion
Q3) The thalamus on each side bulges laterally away from the fourth ventricle and anteriorly toward the cerebrum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Wernicke's area is the motor speech area of the frontal lobe.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is cerebellar dysfunction?
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Q1) Which ganglia innervate visceral effector organs in the abdominopelvic cavity?
A) ciliary ganglia
B) pterygopalatine ganglia
C) sympathetic chain ganglia
D) otic ganglia
E) collateral ganglia
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label L.
A) Duodenum
B) Rectum
C) Ileum
D) Stomach
E) Large intestine
Q3) Autonomic fibers entering the thoracic cavity intersect at which plexus(es)?
A) esophageal plexus
B) cardiac and pulmonary plexuses
C) celiac and pulmonary plexuses
D) hypogastric plexus
E) inferior mesenteric and hypogastric plexuses
Q4) A patient has suffered a spinal cord injury, affecting spinal nerves L1 and L2. What sympathetic symptoms are affected?
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Q1) Information on the volume of the urinary bladder is provided by ________.
A) thermoreceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
D) baroreceptors
E) chemoreceptors
Q2) Which term best describes receptors that detect stimuli from the external environment?
A) Interoceptors
B) Exteroceptors
C) Proprioceptors
D) Nociceptors
E) Thermoreceptors
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label A.
A) Perilymph
B) Membranous labyrinth
C) Endolymph
D) Cochlear duct
E) Bony labyrinth
Q4) What is glaucoma and what is its cause(s)?
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Q1) Autonomic centers in the ________ exert neural control over hormone secretion by the adrenal medullae.
A) hypothalamus
B) thyroid gland
C) thalamus
D) pituitary gland
E) pineal gland
Q2) The secretion of ________ by the anterior pituitary gland is not under the control of a regulatory hormone from the hypothalamus.
A) growth hormone
B) prolactin
C) thyroid-stimulating hormone
D) follicle-stimulating hormone
E) melanocyte-stimulating hormone
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label A.
A) Thalamus
B) Pituitary gland
C) Epithalamus
D) Pineal gland
E) Hypothalamus
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Q1) ________ clump together to form a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels.
A) Lymphocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Monocytes
D) Basophils
E) Platelets
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label F.
A) Platelets
B) RBCs
C) Eosinophils
D) Megakaryocytes
E) Lymphatic nodules
Q3) The ________ synthesize(s)and release(s)more than 90% of the plasma proteins.
A) liver
B) brain
C) spleen
D) kidneys
E) pancreas
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Q1) The heart rate may be influenced or modified by the autonomic nervous system.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label D.
A) Sinoatrial (SA) node
B) Purkinje fiber
C) Internodal pathway
D) Moderator band
E) AV bundle
Q3) In the cardiac cycle, as atrial systole ends, ventricular diastole begins and continues until the start of the next cardiac cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label C.
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Pulmonary vein
C) Bronchus of lung
D) Superior vena cava
E) Inferior vena cava
Q5) Describe the differences between carditis, endocarditis, and myocarditis?
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Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label I.
A) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
B) Middle cerebral artery
C) Basilar artery
D) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
E) Vertebral artery
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label HH.
A) Internal jugular vein
B) Inferior vena cava
C) Brachiocephalic vein
D) Superior vena cava
E) Great saphenous vein
Q3) Which of the following diffuses across the endothelial cells in a capillary?
A) lipid-insoluble materials
B) gases
C) glucose
D) large carbohydrates
E) nucleic acids
Q4) What is the role of the azygos vein and its tributaries in returning blood to the vena cava?
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Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label O.
A) Right lumbar trunk
B) Cisterna chyli
C) Superior vena cava
D) Inferior vena cava
E) Intestinal trunk
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label A.
A) Spleen
B) Cervical lymph nodes
C) Cisterna chyli
D) Tonsil
E) Thymus
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label B.
A) Superior vena cava
B) Cisterna chyli
C) Right internal jugular vein
D) Azygos vein
E) Hemi-azygos vein
Q4) How does the blood-thymus barrier function to prevent premature stimulation of developing T cells?
25
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Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label C.
A) Anterior bronchopulmonary segment
B) Posterior bronchopulmonary segment
C) Lateral basal bronchopulmonary segment
D) Apical bronchopulmonary segment
E) Medial bronchopulmonary segment
Q2) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label P.
A) Anterior basal bronchopulmonary segment
B) Medial basal bronchopulmonary segment
C) Apicoposterior bronchopulmonary segment
D) Posterior basal bronchopulmonary segment
E) Superior bronchopulmonary segment
Q3) Within the trachea, the ________ contains mucous glands that secrete mucus onto the epithelial surface through secretory ducts.
A) serosa
B) muscularis externa
C) lamina propria
D) submucosa
E) adventitia
Q4) Discuss the symptoms and etiology of cystic fibrosis.
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Q1) The region of the stomach at which the esophagus contacts the lateral surface of the stomach is called the cardia, so named because of its proximity to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which hepatic vessel supplies nutrients and other chemicals absorbed from the small intestine to the liver?
A) hepatic vein
B) hepatic artery proper
C) hepatic portal vein
D) sinusoid
E) central vein
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label I.
A) Cardia
B) Lesser curvature
C) Body
D) Fundus
E) Pylorus
Q4) How do aggregated lymphoid nodules protect the small intestine from infection?
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Q1) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label E.
A) Capsular space
B) Hilum
C) Medullary pyramid
D) Juxtaglomerular cells
E) Glomerulus
Q2) A typical adult kidney weighs about 150 grams and measures about ________.
A) 12 cm long, 6.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick
B) 10 cm long, 5.5 cm wide, and 3 cm thick
C) 15 cm long, 10.5 cm wide, and 4.5 cm thick
D) 8 cm long, 10.5 cm wide, and 2.5 cm thick
E) 12 cm long, 2.5 cm wide, and 8 cm thick
Q3) Identify the structure(s) indicated by Label B.
A) Left renal artery
B) Inferior mesenteric artery
C) Left adrenal artery
D) Superior mesenteric artery
E) Left renal vein
Q4) What is pyelitis? What is/are the cause(s)and consequences of this condition?
Q5) Why are women more susceptible to contracting urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
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Q1) Identify the structure indicated by Label F.
A) Prostatic urethra
B) Ductus deferens
C) Spermatic cord
D) Ureter
E) Ejaculatory duct
Q2) The external marking of the boundary between the two chambers of the scrotum is the ________.
A) spermatic cord
B) raphe of the scrotum
C) tunica albuginea
D) acrosome
E) dartos muscle
Q3) The cells of the testes that produce testosterone are the ________.
A) nurse cells
B) basal cells
C) interstitial endocrine cells
D) spermatogonial cells
E) None of the answers are correct.
Q4) Describe the mechanism that permits the penis to become erect.
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Q1) Identify the structure indicated by Label F.
A) Neural fold
B) Somite
C) Neural groove
D) Notochord
E) Neural plate
Q2) Identify the structure indicated by Label J.
A) Aorta
B) Digestive tube
C) Coelomic cavity
D) Neural tube
E) Pancreas
Q3) The process termed ________ begins when the blastocyst attaches to the endometrium and continues as the blastocyst invades maternal tissues.
A) cleavage
B) implantation
C) placentation
D) differentiation
E) embryogenesis
Q4) What might be done to the mother to widen the opening of the birth canal?
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