Anatomy and Physiology II Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology II is a continuation of the comprehensive study of the structure and function of the human body, building upon the foundational concepts introduced in the first course. This course explores the organization and physiological mechanisms of key systems including the cardiovascular, lymphatic, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Students will deepen their understanding of how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis and support health. Emphasis is placed on integrating anatomical knowledge with physiological processes through laboratory exercises, case studies, and clinical applications, preparing students for advanced studies in health and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marie
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anabolic reactions are chemical reactions of the body that build things,make them bigger or more complex.Catabolic reactions break things down making them smaller or less complex.If the rate of anabolic reaction in the body is much faster than the rate of catabolic reactions which of the following necessary life function will be accomplished?
A) digestion
B) responsiveness
C) growth
D) movement
Answer: C
Q2) Generally what is the result of the negative feedback process?
A) to keep the body's blood sugar level high
B) to control body movement
C) to regulate excretion via the kidneys
D) to maintain homeostasis
Answer: D
Q3) Can lungs carry out excretory functions? Explain your answer.
Answer: Yes,carbon dioxide is a metabolic waste the lungs excrete.
Q4) The term that describes the back of the elbow is ________.
Answer: olecranal
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) A charged particle is generally called an ion or electrolyte.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Combination of two or more atoms of the same element held together by chemical bonds.
A)Atom
B)Nuetron
C)Cation
D)Molecule
Answer: D
Q3) Forming glycogen as energy storage in the liver is an example of ________.
A) exergonic
B) anabolism
C) catabolism
D) oxidation
Answer: B
Q4) Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy.
Answer: Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work.Kinetic energy is energy in action.
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Apoptosis is programmed cell suicide; cancer cells do not undergo this process.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Compare a gap junction to a channel protein,how are they alike and how are the different?
Answer: Both allow ions and small molecules to pass through by diffusion.However,gap junctions are embedded within in the plasma membranes of two neighboring cells.The alignment and connection of the gap junctions between the neighboring cells allows the passage of ions and small molecules directly from one cell into another.
Q3) Dense spherical bodies in the nucleus that are the synthesis site for ribosomal RNA.
A)Microtubules
B)Nucleoli
C)Ribosomes
D)Endoplasmic reticulum
E)Nucleus
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Supports and protects; insulates against heat loss; reserve source of fuel.
A)E
B)A
C)D
D)B
E)C
Q2) The first step in tissue repair involves ________.
A) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells
B) formation of scar tissue
C) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue
D) inflammation
Q3) Healing of a surgical incision through the body wall will tend to increase the amount of areolar tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In terms of structure and function,compare the type of epithelium lining the trachea,air sacs of the lungs,and the epidermis of the skin.
Q5) What type of membrane lines closed ventral body cavities? List three examples.
Q6) How is epithelial tissue the opposite of connective tissue?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the regressive phase of hair growth,the matrix is inactive and the follicle atrophies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Epidermis.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q3) What are vellus hairs?
Q4) Cradle cap in infants is called ________.
Q5) Hypodermis.
A)A
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q6) The 68-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital medical floor with a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis.His wife asks the nurse why his skin looks blue.How would you explain cyanosis to the patient and his wife?
Q7) What is the function of skin dermal folds and deep skin creases?
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the structures that most directly provide nutrients and remove wastes from osteocytes in compact bone.
A) nutrient foramens
B) perforating (Volkmann's) canals
C) canaliculi
D) central canals
Q2) Small channels that radiate through the matrix of bone.
A)Lamellae
B)Osteoblasts
C)Endosteum
D)Canaliculi
E)Osteoclasts
Q3) Bone 5.
A)Irregular
B)Flat
C)Sesamoid
D)Short
E)Long
Q4) Compare the function of the organic materials in the bone matrix with the function of the inorganic materials in the matrix.
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lacrimal bone contains a grove that forms part of lacrimal fossa.Along with the soft tissue of the lacrimal sac,these structures drain tears from the eye into the nasal passage.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The suture that connects the two parietal bones together is the ________.
A) coronal
B) squamous
C) lambdoid
D) sagittal
Q3) The hyoid bone is unique because it ________.
A) is composed of three bones joined together
B) is the only bone of the body that does not articulate with any other bone
C) is the only irregular bone found in the neck
D) is the only bone formed by the fusion of right and left halves
Q4) Describe the differences between the bones of the lower and upper limb and briefly state why these differences exist.
Q5) Why is the area just distal to the tubercles of the humerus called the surgical neck?
Q6) Your "cheekbone" is mostly formed from the ________ bone.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synovial membrane.
A)A
B)C
C)D
D)E
E)B
Q2) The gripping of the trochlea by the trochlear notch constitutes the "hinge" for the elbow joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________.
A) menisci
B) ligaments
C) tendons
D) bursae
Q4) A friend finally completes a basement floor tiling project that required extensive time on his knees.Afterwards,knee pain took him to a doctor who diagnosed bursitis.Help explain to your friend what bursitis is and what can be done to relieve it.
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myosin filaments are located in the ________.
A)A band
B)Z discs
C)I band
D)Myosin
Q2) Hypothetically,if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped,________.
A) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel
B) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract
C) no muscle tension could be generated
D) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin
Q3) An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.
A) glycolysis
B) the electron transport chain
C) the citric acid cycle
D) hydrolysis
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?
A) a first-class lever
B) a second-class lever
C) a fourth-class lever
D) a third-class lever
Q2) The muscles of facial expression insert into skin or other muscles,not bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A patient has a stroke and has weakness on his right side.How will the weakness affect his ability to swallow?
Q4) Deltoid.
A)C
B)D
C)B
D)E
E)A
Q5) Tom has been told that he has an inguinal hernia.What is an inguinal hernia and what is its possible cause?
Q6) Damage to the ischiocavernosus muscle would have what effect?
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Q7) Bodybuilders are known for their "great quads." Describe the quadriceps muscles.
Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Loss of function in the enzyme acetylcholine esterase would result in which of the following?
A) inability to destroy and remove acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft
B) stimulation of the production of acetylcholine
C) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh
D) inability to release acetylcholine
Q2) One incoming axon triggers responses in ever-increasing numbers farther and farther along the circuit.
A)Parallel after-discharge circuit
B)Reverberating circuit
C)Diverging circuit
D)Converging circuit
Q3) The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly.Which of the following cells is most responsible for this?
A) satellite cells
B) astrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendrocytes
Q4) What are the basic divisions of the peripheral nervous system?
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where nerves serving the upper limbs arise.
A)Conus medullaris
B)Cauda equina
C)Filum terminale
D)Cervical enlargement
Q2) Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) loss of fine motor control
B) loss of body temperature control
C) sleep disturbances
D) dehydration
Q3) White matter is found in all of the following locations EXCEPT the ________.
A) cerebral cortex
B) outer portion of the spinal cord
C) corpus callosum
D) corticospinal tracts
Q4) What is the somatosensory homunculus? Which body region would be larger in the homunculus,the face or the hips? Why?
Q5) Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres.
A)True
B)False
14
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
A) ulnar
B) radial
C) median
D) axillary
Q2) A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________.
A) flexor reflex
B) tendon reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) plantar reflex
Q3) A doctor asks her patient to follow the motion of her finger as she moves it up and down,left and right.Which of the following cranial nerves is not being tested?
A) the oculomotor nerve (III)
B) the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
C) the abducens (VI)
D) the trochlear nerve (IV)
Q4) A nurse is asked about the cause of the excruciating pain of tic douloureux.How should s/he answer?
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thermoregulatory responses to increased heat are mediated by the sympathetic nervous division.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The craniosacral division is another name for the parasympathetic division.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Active after you have eaten a meal.
A)Sympathetic
B)Parasympathetic
Q4) Increases blood pressure.
A)Sympathetic
B)Parasympathetic
Q5) Mark eats a very big meal in the evening.After the meal his wife would like him to help clean up,but Mark explains that he is "too tired" and promptly goes to sleep.What seems to be his problem?
Q6) In what ways are the autonomic and the somatic nervous systems different?
Q7) Norepinephrine-releasing fibers are called cholinergic fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is administering Pilocarpine eye drops.The nurse instructs the patient to press on the nasolacrimal duct for 30 seconds because the medication can have some systemic side effects,such as affecting the heart rate.Explain the rationale for pressing on the nasolacrimal duct.
Q2) Another name for the primary visual cortex is ________.
A) prefrontal cortex
B) prestriate cortex
C) collicular cortex
D) striate cortex
Q3) Damage to the medial rectus muscles would probably affect ________.
A) convergence
B) pupil constriction
C) accommodation
D) refraction
Q4) A condition of deafness that may result from otosclerosis.
A)Conduction deafness
B)Otitis media
C)Night blindness
D)Glaucoma
Q5) The synapse of the olfactory nerves with the mitral cells is called a ________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucocorticoids are steroid hormones that usually enhance the immune responses when an individual is suffering from severe stress.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Aldosterone production.
A)Neural stimulus
B)Hormonal stimulus
C)Humoral stimulus
Q3) What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acid-based hormones?
A) sodium
B) calcium
C) iron
D) chlorine
Q4) Produces aldosterone.
A)D
B)A
C)B
D)C
Q5) What is the role of hormone producing cells found within the heart?
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Q6) A person who drinks a lot of alcoholic beverages must urinate frequently.Why?
Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Releases granules that kill parasitic worms.
A)B
B)D
C)C
D)A
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
A) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
B) They are nucleated.
C) They are phagocytic.
D) They have cytoplasmic granules.
Q3) What is the buffy coat found in centrifuged whole blood?
Q4) Produced by platelets.
A)Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
B)Erythropoietin
C)Spectrin
D)Heparin
E)Interleukins and CSFs
Q5) Leukocytes move through the circulatory system by amoeboid motion.
A)True
B)False
19
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atrioventricular (AV)node.
A)E
B)D
C)B
D)A
E)C
Q2) The myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During the period of ventricular filling ________.
A) the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves are open
B) blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open atrioventricular (AV) valves into the ventricles
C) the atria remain in diastole
D) pressure in the heart is at its peak
Q4) Difference between resting and maximal cardiac output.
A)Bradycardia
B)Cardiac reserve
C)Tachycardia
D)Vagal tone
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sinusoid capillary.
A)A
B)B
C)C
Q2) A drug that restricts the activity of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)would like result in all of the following physiologic changes but one.Which of the following is the least likely to result from a drug blocking ACE activity?
A) decreased peripheral resistance due to decreases vasomotor tone
B) lower levels of circulating aldosterone and lowered sodium reabsorption
C) increased thirst and higher blood volume
D) increased urine output due to reduction in circulating antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Q3) These capillaries may be lined with phagocytes that can extend their process into the plasma to catch "prey."
A) fenestrations
B) anastomoses
C) thoroughfare channels
D) sinusoids
Q4) What are the sounds of Korotkoff?
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digested fats are absorbed from the intestine by the lymph capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does the structure of a lymph node allow lymphocytes and macrophages to perform their protective function?
Q3) Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine.
A)Peyer's patches
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thoracic duct
D)Lymph
E)Spleen
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a normal component of lymph?
A) plasma proteins
B) red blood cells
C) water
D) ions
Q5) Peyer's patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found primarily in the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Q1) Soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) B-lymphocytes are categorized as part of the adaptive branch of the immune system for all of the following reason but one.Which of the following is not one of the reasons B-lymphocytes are considered part of the adaptive immunity?
A) Their receptors will bind to only one antigen.
B) They are a first line of defense that can begin killing pathogens immediately.
C) They require costimulation from an activated T-helper cell.
D) They produce memory cells when activated.
Q3) Immunocompetence ________.
A) prevents intercellular communication so that only specific cell types respond to the invader
B) occurs in one specific organ of the adaptive immune system
C) is the ability of individual cells to recognize a specific antigen by binding to it
D) requires exposure to an antigen
Q4) The most common type of immediate hypersensitivity is ________.
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Using spirometry,a patient discovers their forced expiratory volume (FEV)after the first second is 40%.What does this suggest?
A) exposure to asbestos
B) restrictive disease
C) obstructive pulmonary disease
D) healthy lungs
Q2) Which respiratory-associated muscles would contract or relax during forced expiration,for example blowing up a balloon?
A) external intercostals would contract and diaphragm would relax
B) internal intercostals and abdominal muscles would contract
C) diaphragm contracts, internal intercostals would relax
D) diaphragm would contract, external intercostals would relax
Q3) Most inspired particles such as dust fail to reach the lungs because of the
A) action of the epiglottis
B) ciliated mucous lining in the nose
C) porous structure of turbinate bones
D) abundant blood supply to nasal mucosa
Q4) How is alveolar gas exchange affected by emphysema and pneumonia?
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is salivation regulated?
Q2) Hepatocytes do not ________.
A) store fat-soluble vitamins
B) produce digestive enzymes
C) process nutrients
D) detoxify toxic chemicals
Q3) Increases output of enzymatic-rich pancreatic juice.
A)Secretin
B)Cholecystokinin
C)Gastric Inhibitory Peptide
D)Gastrin
Q4) Produces enzymes that break down all categories of foodstuffs.
A)C
B)D
C)B
D)A
E)E
Q5) Gastric accommodation is an example of smooth muscle plasticity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Involves the use of oxygen to pick up excess hydrogen and electrons.
A)Glycolysis
B)Citric acid (Krebs) cycle
C)Electron transport chain
Q2) The primary function of carbohydrates is energy production within cells.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Carbohydrate and fat pools are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy,but amino acid pools must first be converted to a carbohydrate intermediate before being sent through cellular respiration pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements best describes complete protein?
A) derived from meat and fish only
B) must contain all the body's amino acid requirements for tissue maintenance and growth
C) derived only from legumes and other plant material
D) meets all the minimum daily requirements for a healthy diet
Page 26
Q5) Define amino acid pool and explain how the pool is maintained even though we excrete amino acids daily.
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Q1) Explain what is meant by the terms cotransport process and transport maximum.
Q2) ADH activated water channels called ________ are essential for water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
Q3) Both the male and female urethras serve both the urinary and the reproductive systems.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Reabsorption of nutrients like glucose and amino acids takes place in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)via cotransporters that utilize secondary active transport.Which of the following would stop the reabsorption of glucose at the apical surface of the cells in the PCT?
A) loss of Na+-K+ ATPase in the basolateral surface of PCT cells
B) loss of K+ leak channels at the apical surface
C) increasing Na+ concentration in the filtrate
D) increasing Na+ in the interstitial fluid
Q5) The collecting duct is impermeable to water in the presence of ADH.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What are aquaporins?
Q7) Explain the role of aldosterone in sodium and water balance.
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) A patient is breathing slowly and blood pH analysis indicates an abnormally high value.What is the likely diagnosis?
A) metabolic acidosis
B) respiratory acidosis
C) metabolic alkalosis
D) respiratory alkalosis
Q2) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis?
Q3) The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________.
A) always involves filtration
B) is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces
C) requires active transport
D) requires ATP for the transport to take place
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a disorder of water balance?
A) hypotonic hydration, in which sodium content is normal but water content is high
B) excessive hydration due to excess atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion
C) edema or tissue swelling, which is usually due to an increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D) excess water in interstitial spaces due to a low level of plasma proteins
Q5) What is the effect of acidosis on the body? Of alkalosis?
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Location of nucleus.
A)C
B)B
C)A
D)D
Q2) Primary follicles.
A)E
B)A
C)C
D)D
E)B
Q3) The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is inhibin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of FSH alone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ of the testis nourish the newly formed sperm cells.
Page 29
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Q1) By 72 hours after fertilization,the egg has divided into more than 160 cells and is called the morula.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The placenta and its attached fetal membranes are collectively called the afterbirth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a primary germ layer?
A) epiderm
B) endoderm
C) mesoderm
D) ectoderm
Q4) A pregnancy test involves antibodies that detect growth hormone (GH)levels in a woman's blood or urine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Human placental lactogen initiates labor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true concerning environmental influence on genetic expression?
A) The only time a gene can be influenced by environmental factors is in the second trimester of pregnancy.
B) Drugs and nutrition can alter normal gene expression.
C) It is impossible to alter in any way the expression of a gene in humans.
D) Environmental factors determine the way in which 90 percent of our genes are expressed.
Q2) Genes not expressed unless they are present in homozygous condition.
A)Homozygous
B)Sex chromosomes
C)Recessive
D)Genotype
Q3) This is a first pregnancy for a 22-year-old woman.She is in her 16th week of pregnancy.She is scheduled for an amniocentesis and expresses concern that the "baby will be stuck with the needle." What should the nurse say to the woman?
Q4) How might carriers of deleterious genes be recognized?
Q5) Is the trait dominant or recessive?
Q6) Identify,by numbers,any other possible carriers.
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