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Anatomy and Physiology II is a continuation of the foundational study of the human body, building upon concepts introduced in the first course. This course delves into the structure and function of major organ systems, including the endocrine, cardiovascular, lymphatic, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the integration of these systems and their roles in maintaining homeostasis, as well as the physiological processes that ensure normal body function. Laboratory components reinforce theoretical knowledge through hands-on examination of anatomical models, physiological experiments, and analysis of clinical case studies. This course is essential for students pursuing careers in the health sciences, providing a comprehensive understanding of how the human body operates at both a systemic and cellular level.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Human Physiology 4th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Q1) Every organ system of the human body is focused on homeostasis as its primary function.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) sweating
A)controlled variable
B)integrator
C)sensor
D)effector
E)effect to bring about change
Answer: E
Q3) body temperature
A)controlled variable
B)integrator
C)sensor
D)effector
E)effect to bring about change
Answer: A
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Q1) takes place in the cytosol
A)glycolysis
B)citric-acid cycle
C)oxidative phosphorylation
Answer: A
Q2) ATP synthase is located in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Lysosomes contain ____________________ enzymes that are capable of digesting and removing unwanted debris from the cell.
Answer: hydrolytic
Q4) Peroxisomes form ________ from molecular oxygen and the hydrogen atoms stripped from the toxic molecule.
Answer: hydrogen peroxide
Q5) Contents become concentrated over time.
A)transport vesicles
B)coated vesicles
C)secretory vesicles
Answer: C
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Q1) Which structure permit unregulated passage of their selected ion?
Answer: Leak channels
Q2) Which of the following substances is most likely to passively diffuse across the plasma membrane by dissolving in the membrane?
A) a cation
B) an anion
C) a nonpolar or nonionized molecule
D) a polar molecule
E) a molecule less than 0.8 nm in diameter
Answer: C
Q3) Acts as a barrier to water soluble substances.
A)protein
B)carbohydrate
C)lipid bilayer
Answer: C
Q4) In ____________________ transport, sodium and the accompanying molecule are moved in opposite directions across the membrane.
Answer: antiport
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Q1) What would occur if presynaptic neuron B is fired rapidly?
A)There will be no change in potential of the postsynaptic cell.
B)Spatial summation will occur.
C)Temporal summation will occur.
Q2) As the stimulus strength increases, the amplitude of a graded potential decreases.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Threshold potential is the peak potential achieved during an action potential.
A)True
B)False
Q4) synapse
A)junction between neurons
B)covering on the axon
C)abundant, branching process from cell body
D)last part of the neuron to send an impulse
E)neurotransmitter
F)site of action potential initiation
Q5) The portion of DNA where steroid hormones interact is known as ___________.
Q6) Pre-threshold stage
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Q1) Damage to which spinal cord component will affect only motor activity?
A) spinal nerve
B) dorsal root
C) ventral root
D) ascending tracts
E) dorsal root ganglion
Q2) Dopamine cannot be used to treat Parkinson's disease because it cannot cross the blood-brain-barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Helps monitor and coordinate slow, sustained contractions, especially those related to balance and posture.
A)cerebellum
B)hypothalamus
C)brain stem
D)basal nuclei
E)cerebral cortex
Q4) A(n) ____________________ organ is a muscle or gland carrying out a response.
Q5) The ____________________ lobes of the cerebral cortex are responsible for initial processing of visual input.
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Q1) Contains the organ of Corti whose hair cells are bent during vibration of the basilar membrane.
A)external ear
B)middle ear
C)cochlea in the inner ear
D)semicircular canal in the inner ear
E)utricle and saccule in the inner ear
Q2) Uses substance P as its neurotransmitter
A)pain
B)vision
C)hearing
D)motion/equilibrium
E)taste
F)smell
Q3) The tympanic membrane
A) vibrates when struck by sound waves.
B) contains the organ of Corti.
C) produces ear wax.
D) is connected to the stapes.
E) none of these answers.

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Q1) The ____________________ fibers of the autonomic nerve pathway are located in the central nervous system.
Q2) The parasympathetic nervous system
A) has long preganglionic fibers that end on terminal ganglia, which lie in or near the effector organ.
B) dominates in quiet, relaxed situations.
C) releases a postganglionic neurotransmitter that binds with muscarinic receptors.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) The autonomic nervous system affects the motor activity of cardiac and smooth muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) causes bladder emptying
A)the parasympathetic division
B)the sympathetic division
C)both parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions
Q5) Sympathetic fibers issue from ________-________ regions of the spinal cord. .
Q6) Describe the importance of afferent visceral information in normal ANS function.
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Q1) Composed of thick and thin filaments.
A)A band
B)I band
C)H zone
Q2) Positioned on either side of Z line.
A)A band
B)I band
C)H zone
Q3) Which is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
A) under involuntary control.
B) does not have troponin.
C) contraction is initiated neurogenically.
D) found in the walls of hollow tube-like organs.
E) innervation by the ANS.
Q4) The contractile tissues of muscle are referred to as the "series-elastic component."
A)True
B)False
Q5) A(n) ____________________ develops following sustained anaerobic activity of muscles.
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Q1) The first heart sound signals the onset of ventricular systole.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements concerning action potentials in the heart is correct?
A) The rising phase of the action potential in cardiac autorhythmic cells is due to a rapid Ca<sup>2+</sup> influx.
B) The rising phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a rapid Na<sup>+</sup> influx.
C) The plateau phase of the action potential in cardiac contractile cells is due to a slow Ca<sup>2+</sup> influx.
D) Two of these answers are correct.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q3) The ____________________ is the volume of blood in the ventricle when filling is complete.
Q4) Parasympathetic stimulation slows the rate of depolarization of the SA node and thus decreases the heart rate.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Increasing the length of a vessel.
A)This change would increase blood flow.
B)This change would decrease blood flow.
C)This change would have no effect on blood flow.
Q2) Vessels that pick up fluid that is filtered but not reabsorbed.
A)arteries
B)arterioles
C)capillaries
D)veins
E)lymphatics
Q3) The sounds heard when determining blood pressure are the same as the heart sounds associated with valve closure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Caused by decreased oxygen level
Q5) Caused by increased levels of carbon dioxide
Q6) parasympathetic discharge on skeletal muscle arterioles
A)would produce arteriolar vasoconstriction
B)would produce arteriolar vasodilation
C)would not cause any change in arteriolar caliber
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Q1) Which of the following is a component of innate immunity?
A) inflammation.
B) antibody production.
C) T cell function
D) B cell function
E) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a hereditary abnormality?
A) aplastic anemia
B) hemorrhagic anemia
C) pernicious anemia
D) sickle cell disease
E) folic acid deficiency
Q3) Secrete B-cell growth factor.
A)applies to cytotoxic T cells
B)applies to helper T cells
C)applies to regulatory T cells
D)applies to both helper T and regulatory T cells
E)applies to all three types of T cells
Q4) ____________________ markedly enhances the actions of cell-killing cells..
Q5) phagocytic secretions

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Q1) A pneumothorax would exist if intrapleural pressure is 756 mm Hg and the intrapleural pressure is 758 mm Hg.
A)True
B)False
Q2) 2,3-diphosphoglycerate
A) is produced within red blood cells.
B) production is inhibited by HbO<sub>2</sub> .
C) concentration gradually increases whenever Hb in the arterial blood is chronically undersaturated.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q3) Respiration is accomplished entirely by the respiratory system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In addition to providing for gas exchange what are the other functions of the respiratory system?
Q5) tidal volume
Q6) Elastic recoil refers to the tendency of the chest wall to expand.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The functional unit of the kidneys is the ____________________.
Q2) Glomerular filtration occurs primarily by active transport.
A)True
B)False
Q3) About _________% of the filtered urea is reabsorbed as compared to __________ % of glucose.
Q4) What mechanisms are responsible for producing concentrated urine?
A) the juxtamedullary nephrons become active.
B) the counter-current mechanism pulls out much water.
C) vasopressin causes facultative water reabsorption in distal tubule.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q5) Increased aldosterone secretion _____ Na<sup>+</sup> reabsorption.
A)increases
B)decreases
C)has no effect on
Q6) Describe the forces involved in glomerular filtration and explain how it is regulated by the sympathetic system.
Q7) ____________________ are water channels in the tubular cells of the nephron.
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Q8) water conserved
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Q1) H<sub>2</sub> generated from CO<sub>2</sub> at the tissue level is
A) the major source of hydrogen ion in the body.
B) normally buffered in transit between the tissues and the lungs by hemoglobin.
C) responsible for the fact that the pH of the venous blood is higher than the pH of the arterial blood.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q2) Vomiting of gastric contents
A) can lead to dehydration.
B) can cause metabolic acidosis.
C) can cause metabolic alkalosis.
D) both can lead to dehydration and cause metabolic acidosis.
E) both can lead to dehydration and cause metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Is primarily important to prevent fluid shifts between the ECF and ICF.
A)refers to regulation of ECF volume
B)refers to regulation of ECF osmolarity
Q4) A hypertonic solution has a higher concentration of solutes and a lower concentration of H<sub>2</sub>O than an isotonic solution.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Secrete HCl.
A)chief cells
B)parietal cells
C)mucous cells
D)G cells of PGA
Q2) Bile acts in conjunction with:
A) distention of the stomach.
B) gastrin.
C) amylase action
D) lipase action
E) pepsin action
Q3) The defecation reflex
A) is initiated when mass movements force fecal material into the rectum, stimulating stretch receptors in the rectal wall.
B) involves relaxation of the internal anal sphincter and contraction of the sigmoid colon and rectum.
C) can be overridden by voluntary contraction of the external anal sphincter.
D) both (a) and (b) above.
E) all of these answers.
Q4) Compare peristalsis and segmentation.
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Q1) emission of heat energy from the surface of a warm body in the form of electromagnetic waves
A)convection
B)evaporation
C)radiation
D)conduction
Q2) produced by cells in arcuate nucleus, suppresses appetite
A)Ghrelin
B)PYY3-36
C)CCK
D)Leptin
E)Neuropeptide Y
F)Melanocortins
G)Insulin
H)thyroid hormone
Q3) We lose or gain heat through ____________________ to the layer of air in direct contact with our bodies.
Q4) Endogenous ________ raises the set point of the hypothalamic thermostat during fever
Q5) The ____________________ serves as the body's thermostat.
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Q1) Tri-iodothyronine and tetraiodothyronine are produced by the C-cells of the thyroid gland.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glucocorticoids cause all of the following except
A) carbohydrate conservation.
B) protein degradation.
C) increased metabolic rate.
D) mobilization of fats for energy.
E) anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects at pharmacological levels.
Q3) ____________________ is primarily controlled by the release of renin.
Q4) Which of the following statements concerning adrenocortical hormones is incorrect?
A) the glucocorticoids are examples.
B) some are steroids.
C) they are all controlled primarily by TSH.
D) they are secreted from the outer layer of the adrenal gland.
E) aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid.
Q5) cortisol
Q6) Thyroid hormone is a derivative of the amino acid ____________________.
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Q1) placenta
A)Special milk produced during the first five days postpartum.
B)Evacuated from the uterus as "afterbirth."
C)Super-rich endometrial tissue at the implantation site.
D)The two-cell layered trophoblastic tissue that forms the fetal portion of the placenta.
E)The intervening membrane between the developing oocyte and surrounding granulosa cells.
Q2) The single gene within the Y chromosome that is responsible for sex determination is the ____________________.
Q3) Which of the following is not true regarding penile erection?
A) involves dilation of the arterioles supplying the cavernous spaces of the penis.
B) is induced by nitric oxide.
C) involves venous constriction
D) occurs in response to parasympathetic nervous stimulation of the penis.
E) is a higher order brain reflex
Q4) The four phases of the sexual cycle in both sexes are ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________ phases.
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