Anatomy and Physiology I Test Questions
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology I offers a foundational exploration of the structure and function of the human body, focusing on the interrelationships between form and function at the cellular, tissue, organ, and system levels. This course covers major body systems including the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, and endocrine systems, emphasizing fundamental concepts such as homeostasis, anatomical terminology, and physiological mechanisms. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and interactive learning, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the normal anatomy and physiology necessary for further studies in health and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 7th Edition by Elaine N. Marieb
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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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Q1) Select from the following techniques the best method for assessing brain function in a stroke patient: X-ray imaging, sonography, MRI. Explain why the other choices are not the best choice.
Answer: MRI is the best method of assessing brain function. X-rays do not image soft tissues well or with high resolution. They also produce only two-dimensional images of a structure. Sonography cannot be used to study the brain because sound waves cannot pass through the body skull.
Q2) Which organ is not found in the ventral body cavity?
A) heart
B) liver
C) spinal cord
D) urinary bladder
Answer: C
Q3) The perineal region is the
A) side of the leg.
B) region between the external genitals and the anus.
C) point of the shoulder.
D) superior part of the gluteal region.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Living Units
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Q1) In the process of phagocytosis, the organelles whose enzymes break down ingested foreign cells are the
A) nucleoli.
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
C) peroxisomes.
D) lysosomes.
Answer: D
Q2) Which membranous organelle stores calcium and is a primary site of lipid metabolism?
A) Golgi apparatus
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) mitochondrion
D) peroxisome
Answer: B
Q3) The process of cellular aging may involve all of the following except
A) accumulated damage by free radicals.
B) decreased production of lysosomes.
C) excessive metabolic rate.
D) progressive shortening of telomeres.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Basic Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for birth defect is
A) birth illness.
B) teratogenesis.
C) congenital abnormality.
D) prenatal pathology.
Answer: C
Q2) The ability of one group of cells to influence development of neighboring cells is called gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The wall and lining of the gut develop from the mesoderm and ________, respectively.
Answer: endoderm
Q4) During the blastocyst stage, there are three cell layers evident.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) Somites differentiate into dermatomes, myotomes, and ________.
Answer: sclerotomes
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Chapter 4: Tissues
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Q1) Cardiac muscle cells are connected to each other by intercalated discs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An ________ gland releases its products through ducts onto body surfaces or into body cavities.
Q3) The major function of pseudostratified columnar epithelium is A) secretion. B) filtration.
C) protection.
D) absorption.
Q4) During repair of a scrape or cut through the skin, a blood clot is replaced with collagen-rich granulation tissue in a process called A) inflammation. B) organization.
C) repair.
D) regeneration.
Q5) The outermost layers of intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis are comprised of this type of cartilage.
Q6) The smallest diameter blood vessels, capillaries are comprised of ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Identify the layer of the skin that contains most of the sensory receptors.
A) dermis
B) hypodermis
C) epidermis
Q2) In the skin, the rich capillary beds and the ________ glands aid in thermoregulation.
Q3) Which is the most abundant and widespread type of sweat gland?
A) eccrine
B) apocrine
C) holocrine
D) endocrine
Q4) The epidermal stem cells that give rise to hair matrix cells are located in a bulge in the ________, near the insertion of the arrector pili muscle.
Q5) Which layer of the integument are toenails and fingernails derived from?
A) dermis
B) hypodermis
C) epidermis
Q6) The process that causes premature damage to skin with prolonged exposure to ultraviolet radiation is called ________.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissues
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Q1) Which hormone is primarily responsible for bone matrix resorption rather than bone matrix deposition during puberty?
A) growth hormone
B) parathyroid hormone
C) sex hormones
D) thyroid hormone
Q2) Which letter indicates the perforating, or Volkmann's canals which lie at right angles to central canals?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Which of these diseases is characterized by a pathological loss of bone density?
A) osteomalacia and rickets
B) osteomyelitis
C) osteoporosis
D) achondroplasia
E) Paget's disease
Q4) ________ canals lie perpendicular to the central, or Haversian, canals.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Bones, Part 1: The Axial Skeleton
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Q1) Which cranial bones meet at the lambdoid suture?
A) frontal and parietal
B) parietal and occipital
C) frontal and nasal
D) parietal and temporal
Q2) An example of a False rib that is also a floating rib is
A) rib 11.
B) rib 8.
C) rib 1.
D) rib 7.
Q3) The sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
A) anchors the brain into the anterior cranial fossa.
B) attaches neck muscles the skull.
C) forms the superior portion of the nasal septum.
D) holds the pituitary gland.
Q4) Regarding the thoracic vertebrae, do the superior articular facets face anteriorly or posteriorly?
Q5) What bony structures form the nasal cavity? (Hint: there are seven separate bones, and the number of parts of these bones is greater than the number of bones; name the parts as best you can.)
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Bones, Part 2: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of carpal tunnel syndrome?
A) compression of the carpal bones
B) fibrosis of the interosseous membrane
C) compression of the median nerve
D) damage to the radioulnar joint
Q2) The clavicle functions to
A) transmit compression forces from the upper limb to the axial skeleton.
B) protect the lungs.
C) allow the arm to extend further for reaching.
D) provide balance for the scapula on the other side of the body.
Q3) In anatomical position,
A) the head of the radius is medial to the ulna.
B) the radius is lateral to the ulna.
C) the styloid process of the radius is medial to the ulna.
D) the ulna is lateral to the radius.
Q4) In anatomical position, the ________ is the most lateral bone in the leg.
Q5) The thumb has no middle phalanx.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The pectoral girdle consists of the clavicle and the ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) The term synovial joint contains the root word ov, referring to ovum, or egg, because the synovial fluid is viscous like the white of the egg.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Synovial fluid is slippery because of glycoproteins that are secreted by fibroblasts located within the articular cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most freely moving large joint of the body is the ________ joint.
Q4) Baseball players often damage the ________ cuff at the shoulder region.
Q5) One type of cartilage, fibrocartilage, characterizes all cartilaginous joints.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The largest ball-and-socket joint in the body is the A) hip.
B) shoulder.
C) knee.
D) interphalangeal joint.
Q7) Describe the three types of fibrous joints, including examples of each.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Q1) The type of attachment in which the muscle fibers seem to attach directly to a bone is
A) a tendon.
B) an aponeurosis.
C) an insertion.
D) a fleshy attachment.
Q2) This indicates an individual fascicle.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Which region of the sarcomere does not change in length during contraction?
A) A band
B) H zone
C) I band
D) Z disk to Z disk
Q4) The repeating segments seen in a skeletal muscle fiber are the T tubules.
A)True
B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Muscles of the Body
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Q1) The temporalis and ________ muscles are the prime movers of jaw closure as they elevate the mandible.
Q2) Identify the letter that indicates the Linea alba.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) You can locate the iliac crests by resting your hands on your hips.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A prime mover for lateral rotation at the shoulder is the A) pectoralis major.
B) supraspinatus.
C) teres major.
D) teres minor.
Q5) Muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement act as ________.
Q6) The ________ is composed of the iliocostalis, longissmus, and spinalis.
Q7) The elbow joint serves as a(n) ________ as the biceps brachii muscle flexes the forearm.
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Chapter 12: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microglia are derived from blood stem cells rather than from neural tube and crest cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) White matter is white in color because of ________.
Q3) Which of the following statements concerning sensory neurons is incorrect?
A) Most are pseudounipolar.
B) Most have their cell bodies in ganglia outside the CNS.
C) They have peripheral and central processes.
D) They contain only dendrites.
Q4) ________ are the neuroglial cells with cilia.
Q5) Which cells provide the myelin sheath for neurons in the PNS?
A) astrocytes
B) microglial cells
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendrocytes
Q6) These neurons reside only in the CNS and connect motor and sensory neurons.
Q8) The simplest of all reflexes is the ________ reflex. Page 14
Q7) The ________ matter of the spinal cord forms a butterfly-shaped structure.
Q9) ________ form the myelin sheaths in the brain and spinal cord.
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Chapter 13: The Central Nervous System
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Q1) Long-term storage of memories involves the ________ of the limbic system.
Q2) Which letter indicates the corpora quadrigemina, meaning "four bodies?"
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Which of these regions of the brain, besides the cerebrum, has an outer cortical layer of gray matter?
A) hypothalamus
B) cerebrum
C) cerebellum
D) thalamus
Q4) Which letter indicates the primary visual cortex, which receives information from neurons in the retina of the eye?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
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Chapter 14: The Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the cranial nerves listed below provides innervation to one of the extrinsic eye muscles?
A) trigeminal
B) trochlear
C) optic
D) facial
Q2) If one likens a spinal nerve to the trunk of a tree, then the two roots of this tree are the dorsal and ventral roots. What would represent the two large branches of this tree?
A) rami communicantes
B) dorsal and ventral root ganglia
C) ventral and dorsal rami
D) the brachial plexus
Q3) Tactile corpuscles (Meissner's corpuscles)
A) occur in hairy skin.
B) occur in dermal papillae.
C) are nociceptors.
D) are free unencapsulated dendritic endings.
Q4) Ventral rami from all spinal nerves except numbers ________ contribute to nerve plexuses.
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Sensory Neurons
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Q1) Division of the ANS most active when the body is at rest describes the A) parasympathetic division.
B) sympathetic division.
C) autonomic nervous system.
Q2) Location in the brain of the cardiorespiratory and vasomotor control centers.
A) hypothalamus
B) medulla
C) medulla oblongata
D) rami communicantes
E) sympathetic trunk
Q3) The adrenal medulla is stimulated by preganglionic neurons localized to gray matter of the spinal cord
A) in the cervical region.
B) in the upper thoracic region.
C) in the lower thoracic region.
D) in the lower lumbar region.
Q4) This division can also be called the craniosacral division.
A) parasympathetic division
B) sympathetic division
C) autonomic nervous system
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Chapter 16: The Special Senses
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Q1) In most Asians, a vertical fold of skin called the ________ often covers the medial corner of the eye.
Q2) Microvilli from gustatory cells project through this structure.
A) taste bud
B) taste pore
C) tongue papilla
D) olfactory bulb
E) gustatory epithelial cells
Q3) Which is true about a retinal detachment?
A) It can result from a blow to the eye.
B) It is a detachment of the complete thickness of the retina from the choroid.
C) It causes blindness immediately.
D) The detached portion contains no capillaries.
Q4) Nearsightedness is more properly called
A) myopia.
B) hyperopia.
C) presbyopia.
D) emmetropia.
Q5) The lens of the eye is attached to stringlike ________, which are anchored by ciliary bodies attached to the sclera.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) In diabetes mellitus, the posterior lobe of the pituitary does not produce sufficient antidiuretic hormone.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The artery that supplies most of the pituitary gland (but not the pars nervosa) is the
A) primary plexus of the hypophyseal portal system.
B) basilar artery on the brain stem.
C) superior hypophyseal artery.
D) hypophyseal branch of the external carotid artery.
Q3) Which arrangement of endocrine cells does not allow for maximum contact with blood capillaries?
A) branching networks
B) clusters
C) cords
D) ducts
Q4) Gonadotropic cells of the anterior lobe of the pituitary secrete prolactin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ________ consists of four endocrine cell types: A, B, D, and PP.
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Chapter 18: Blood
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Q1) Plasma minus clotting factors.
A) hematocrit
B) buffy coat
C) serum
D) albumin
E) myeloid
Q2) An eosinophil can be distinguished from a basophil because the eosinophil
A) has a lobed (versus nonlobed) nucleus.
B) contains cytoplasmic granules.
C) has pink (versus dark purple) granules.
D) is smaller.
Q3) Leukocytes function primarily within the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following groups of cells are most structurally related?
A) basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes
B) eosinophils, basophils, and neutrophils
C) lymphocytes, erythrocytes, and basophils
D) monocytes, platelets, and macrophages
Q5) Leukocytes can exit the blood vessels through a process called ________.
Page 21
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Chapter 19: The Heart
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Q1) This blood vessel is located in the anterior interventricular sulcus.
A) anterior cardiac vein
B) great cardiac vein
C) middle cardiac vein
D) small cardiac vein
Q2) Describe the histological features of cardiac cells that allow for coordinated contractions.
Q3) The sequence of pericardial layers from superficial to deep is the fibrous, ________, and visceral pericardium.
Q4) Identify the letter that indicates the left common carotid artery.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q5) Atherosclerosis in the marginal artery may cause ischemia in the left side of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe the function of the cardiac skeleton of the heart.
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Blood Vessels
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Q1) The presence of ________ in the veins and the action of skeletal muscle pressing on the walls ensure that blood return to the heart is in one direction.
Q2) Identify the letter that indicates one of the primary arteries that contributes to the superficial palmar arch-the ulnar artery.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Veins with compromised valves are called ________ veins.
Q4) The ________ pulse can be palpated near the temple anterior to the auricle of the ear.
Q5) The cerebral arterial circle forms a loop around which structures?
A) the great vessels at the base of the heart
B) the internal and external carotid arteries
C) the cerebellum
D) the pituitary gland and the optic chiasma
Q6) Define and explain the significance of vascular anastomoses.
Q7) Describe the function of the fetal shunts from the pulmonary circuit.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lymphoid organ that atrophies with age.
A) thymus
B) tonsils
C) aggregated lymphoid nodules
D) lymph nodes
E) spleen
Q2) Identify the letter that indicates inguinal lymph nodes that filter lymph from the lower limbs.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Lymphangitis is inflammation of a lymphatic vessel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The tonsils located just behind the openings of the pharyngotympanic tubes in the pharynx are the ________ tonsils.
Q5) The ________ prevents premature activation of immature thymic lymphocytes.
Page 24
Q6) Congestion of the tonsils with bacteria results in ________.
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) The ________ tonsil, or adenoids, is located on the wall of the nasopharynx.
Q2) Gas exchange occurs across the bronchi and bronchioles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the wall of the trachea and bronchi, the cartilage rings lie within which tissue layer?
A) inner epithelium
B) mucosa
C) submucosa
D) fibromusculocartilaginous layer
Q4) In a runner who is breathing heavily during a race, the rima glottidis is A) half closed.
B) half open.
C) open as far as possible.
D) all the way closed.
Q5) The part of the brain that generates the basic respiratory rhythm is the A) medulla oblongata.
B) limbic system.
C) hypothalamus.
D) cerebrum.
25
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Q1) ________ is a dangerous inflammation of herniations in the colonic wall.
Q2) What is the function of the hepatopancreatic sphincter?
A) It controls the entry of bile and pancreatic juices into the alimentary canal.
B) As it contracts, it squeezes pancreatic secretions into the duodenum.
C) It inhibits defecation in the upper alimentary canal while the anal sphincters do the same in the lower regions.
D) It prevents the movement of bile into the gallbladder.
Q3) The portion of the large intestine closest to the liver is the A) cecum.
B) rectum.
C) transverse colon.
D) descending colon.
Q4) Explain the relationships and distinguish among the following structures of the small intestine: villi, microvilli, and circular folds.
Q5) The porta hepatis contains the hepatic arteries, hepatic ducts, and ________.
Q6) Thin myofilaments of smooth muscle fibers are anchored to intermediate filaments through ________.
Q7) The region between your teeth and lips is called the ________.
Page 26
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Q1) When Melinda was asked to identify a "mystery" slide on a histology test, she immediately identified it as renal cortex because of the presence of scattered A) renal corpuscles.
B) thin segments.
C) renal papillae.
D) vasa recta.
Q2) Knot of capillaries that directs blood into the efferent arteriole.
A) arcuate arteries
B) cortical radiate arteries
C) glomerulus
D) afferent arterioles
E) peritubular capillaries
Q3) Infection of the renal pelvic and calyces is known as A) nephritis.
B) cystitis.
C) hydronephritis.
D) pyelitis.
Q4) Blood pressure is regulated by a specialized structure, known as the ________, that contacts both the afferent arteriole and the terminal end of the nephron loop.
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Q1) In males, the paramesonephric (Müllerian) ducts
A) give rise to the penile urethra.
B) give rise to the prostate gland.
C) give rise to the vas deferens.
D) degenerate and don't form any structures in males.
Q2) The acrosomal reaction occurs
A) just before fertilization.
B) during meiosis of the sperm.
C) during spermiogenesis.
D) during placentation.
Q3) Spermatogonia are located near the lumen of seminiferous tubules.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cells that secrete estrogens in females are
A) oocytes.
B) cells in the pituitary gland.
C) granulosa cells.
D) germinal epithelium of the ovary.
Q5) The ________ is formed by the union of the ductus deferens and seminal vesicles.
Page 28
Q6) The uterus is composed of three basic layers. The inner layer is the ________.
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