Anatomy and Physiology I Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology I provides a comprehensive introduction to the structure and function of the human body, focusing on foundational concepts in anatomy and physiology. The course covers topics such as cellular organization, tissue types, and the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding the interrelationship between structure and function and how different body systems work together to maintain homeostasis. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and practical demonstrations, students develop a solid knowledge base necessary for advanced studies in health and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Holes Human Anatomy Physiology 13th Edition by David Shier
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2278 Verified Questions
2278 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Human Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lengthwise cut that divides the body into right and left portions is termed
Answer: sagittal
Q2) One characteristic that centenarians share is
A)a high level of exercise throughout life.
B)long-lived relatives.
C)following the Mediterranean diet.
D)never having smokeD.
Answer: D
Q3) Cell death first occurs
A)at age 60.
B)at age 50.
C)at puberty.
D)in the fetus.
Answer: D
Q4) Ceroid pigments and lipofuscin accumulate with aging,impairing a cell's ability to withstand the damaging effects of oxygen free radicals.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Chemical Basis of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parts of an atom that carry single negative electrical charges are called
Answer: electrons
Q2) Lipids
A)are insoluble in water.
B)include phospholipids,cholesterol,and fats.
C)contain C,H,and O,but with proportionately less oxygen than in carbohydrates.
D)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) When forming a bond,an atom that has 3 electrons in its second shell and a filled first shell will
A)lose 3 electrons from its second shell.
B)lose all of the electrons from its first shell.
C)lose all of the electrons from both its first and second shells.
D)gain 5 electrons in its second shell.
Answer: A
Q4) Sodium and chloride atoms combine readily because they both lose electrons.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cell undergoing ________ loses its shape,forms blebs,and falls apart. Answer: apoptosis
Q2) Proteins are manufactured on mitochondria.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The organelle where energy is captured and stored in the chemical bonds of ATP is a
A)mitochondrion.
B)ribosome.
C)peroxisome.
D)Golgi apparatus.
Answer: A
Q4) Transcytosis combines diffusion and active transport.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The process by which a cell receives and responds to incoming messages is called __________ transduction.
Answer: signal
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synthesis of a protein stops when
A)any of three specific anticodons are encountered in the mRNA.
B)there is no more DNA.
C)any of three "stop" codons are encountered in the mRNA.
D)the ribosome becomes fatigueD.
Q2) Catabolism refers to
A)chemical reactions that acquire energy.
B)chemical reactions that release energy.
C)synthesis of large molecules.
D)the formation of genetic material.
Q3) A DNA molecule is a double helix in which A pairs with C and T pairs with G. A)True
B)False
Q4) Releasing the energy in glucose molecules is an example of catabolism.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The correspondence between a unit of DNA information and an amino acid is the genetic ______.
Q6) The complete set of genetic instructions in an individual is the ______.
Q7) The molecule that an enzyme affects is its _________.
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Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cartilage cells occupy small chambers called ___________.
Q2) The inner lining of the abdomen is a _______ membrane.
Q3) Cardiac muscle can function without nervous stimulation but skeletal muscle cannot.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A basement membrane anchors
A)muscle tissue to nervous tissue.
B)epithelial tissue to connective tissue.
C)connective tissue to muscle tissue.
D)brain tissue to nervous tissue.
Q5) The tissue that forms the inner lining of the respiratory passages is
A)mucus-secreting and transitional.
B)stratified,sputum-secreting,and non-ciliated.
C)mucus-secreting,ciliated,and pseudostratified.
D)serous fluid-secreting,simple,and columnar.
Q6) Blood is composed of red blood cells,white blood cells,and platelets suspended in a fluid extracellular matrix called plasma.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Skin and the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Skin cancer is most likely to develop from
A)pigmented epithelial cells.
B)pigmented melanocytes.
C)nonpigmented epithelial cells.
D)nonpigmented melanocytes.
Q2) Shafts of hair are composed of
A)living dermal cells.
B)dead epidermal cells.
C)living epidermal cells.
D)dead dermal cells.
Q3) Cutaneous carcinomas are usually caused by regular exposure to A)X-rays.
B)gamma radiation.
C)ultraviolet light.
D)mutagenic chemicals.
Q4) The tough layer of waterproof material that makes up the outermost part of the epidermis is the stratum lucidum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Two or more types of tissue functioning together constitute a(n)___________.
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compact bone has ________,whereas spongy bone has __________.
A)spaces that reduce the weight of bone;tightly packed matrix that is solid
B)osteons;trabeculae
C)trabeculae;osteons
D)osteocytes;no osteocytes
Q2) Which of the following are components of the pelvic girdle?
A)hip bones.
B)coxal bones.
C)sacrum.
D)all of the above.
Q3) The sternum develops in three parts: the lower manubrium,middle body,and upper xiphoid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A young woman is in a car accident.When she regains consciousness,she notices a sharp pain in her left arm.Looking down,she sees a bone sticking out.This is a compound fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The xiphoid process is part of the ______.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Joints of the Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _______ is a joint formed where a bony socket meets a cone-shaped bony process.
Q2) Rotation of the forearms so the palms face upward is called pronation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A muscle end attached to a less movable or relatively fixed part is called the A)symphysis.
B)articulation.
C)origin.
D)insertion.
Q4) Most of the joints in the ankle and wrist are A)hinge joints.
B)pivot joints.
C)plane joints.
D)condylar joints.
Q5) Which of the following is not a synovial joint?
A)Condylar
B)Ball-and-socket
C)Hinge
D)Symphysis
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transverse tubules
A)store sodium ions for the action potential at the cell surface.
B)transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior.
C)store calcium ions.
D)connect actin and myosin.
Q2) Regina began an exercise program six months ago,and the muscles of her upper limbs and lower limbs are more prominent.Exercise can lead to formation of new muscle by
A)stimulating synthesis of myoglobin.
B)stimulating skeletal muscle cells to release IL-6,which stimulates satellite cells to divide,producing more muscle cells.
C)stimulating connective tissue to differentiate as muscle tissue.
D)stimulating motor neurons to divide and innervate more muscle cells.
Q3) A motor neuron and the muscle fibers that it controls constitute a motor unit.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The rhythmic,wavelike motion produced by smooth muscles in tubular visceral organs is called _______.
Q5) The pigment responsible for the reddish brown color of skeletal muscle is ______.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System I
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Sample Questions
Q1) An excitatory postsynaptic potential lasts for about A)15 minutes.
B)15 seconds.
C)15 milliseconds.
D)15 microseconds.
Q2) The types of neurons that are organized into neuronal pools are A)interneurons.
B)intraneurons.
C)Schwann cells.
D)astrocytes.
Q3) If a neurotransmitter hyperpolarizes a cell membrane and an action potential is less likely,the change is called ______ ______ ______.
Q4) _________ support the axon from within.
A)Dendrites.
B)Nodes of Ranvier.
C)Neurofibrils.
D)Collaterals.
Q5) Enkephalins are neuropeptides.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Nervous System II
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a reflex arc,___________ neurons pass out of the central nervous system to stimulate effectors.
Q2) Basal ganglia are located in the ______ and ______.
A)brainstem;relay motor impulses from the cerebral cortex
B)frontal lobe;aid in control of motor activities
C)deep regions of the cerebral hemispheres;aid in control of motor activities
D)cerebral hemispheres;control the senses
Q3) The basal nuclei include the A)putamen.
B)pons.
C)midbrain.
D)corpus callosum.
Q4) The somatic nervous system consists of nerve fibers that connect the CNS to the ______,whereas the autonomic nervous system consists of fibers that connect the ______.
A)skin and skeletal muscles;brain to the spinal cord
B)visceral organs;CNS to the skin and skeletal muscles
C)heart and intestines;CNS to the cardiac and smooth muscles
D)skin and skeletal muscles;CNS to the visceral organs
Q5) The _________ root of a spinal nerve consists of motor neuron axons.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous System III
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impulses from taste receptors can travel in the facial,glossopharyngeal,and vagus nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Impulses from the spiral organ travel on the vestibulocochlear nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A person who associates sounds with tastes has synesthesia.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Taste receptors are
A)found only on the tongue.
B)unable to divide.
C)modified connective tissue cells.
D)modified epithelial cells.
Q5) Sensory impulses are stimulated at receptors by A)neurotransmitters.
B)decreasing permeability of nerve cell membranes.
C)subthrehold potential.
D)local changes in their cell membrane potentials.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone that stimulates calcium deposition into bone is
A)calcitonin.
B)parathyroid hormone.
C)thyroxine.
D)insulin.
Q2) The ______ gland is located deep between the cerebral hemispheres attached to the roof of the third ventricle.
Q3) Cortisol
A)increases the permeability of capillary walls.
B)increases the permeability of lysosomal membranes.
C)stimulates the production of glucose from noncarbohydrates.
D)promotes the storage of amino acids in the form of proteins.
Q4) Tropic hormones
A)only function in the tropics.
B)function in only one sex.
C)stimulate certain endocrine glands to secrete hormones.
D)block the actions of hormones that endocrine glands secrete.
Q5) The target cells of releasing hormones are in the anterior pituitary gland.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal white blood cell count is
A)500-1,000 cells per microliter of blood.
B)4,500-10,000 cells per microliter of blood.
C)45,000-100,000 cells per microliter of blood.
D)5,000,000-10,000,000 cells per microliter of blooD.
Q2) Blood is a type of epithelial tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following usually accounts for the smallest percentage of leukocytes in a blood sample?
A)Monocytes
B)Eosinophils
C)Basophils
D)Neutrophils
Q4) Two substances that are useful for dissolving blood clots are
A)thrombus and embolus.
B)urokinase and streptokinase.
C)factor IV and factor XII.
D)calcium ions and prothrombin activator.
Q5) The most abundant type of plasma protein is ____________ .
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Cardiovascular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The aorta is the largest artery in the pulmonary circuit.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Heart rate in a fetus is about ____,in a newborn about _____,and in an adult about ___.
A)145;140;70
B)70;140;145
C)100;100;100
D)200;160;120
Q3) The systemic circuit
A)sends oxygen-poor blood to the heart.
B)brings oxygen-rich blood from the tissues.
C)brings oxygen-poor blood from the lungs.
D)sends oxygen-rich blood to the tissues.
Q4) Which of the following is most life threatening?
A)Atrial flutter
B)Ventricular flutter
C)Atrial fibrillation
D)Ventricular fibrillation
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Chapter 16: Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The order in which HIV breaches barriers and affects immunity is
A)inhalation,entering the circulation,entering helper T cells.
B)ingestion,entering the circulation,entering helper T cells.
C)crossing the mucosal barrier,entering macrophages,then B cells,then natural killer cells.
D)crossing the mucosal barrier,entering macrophages,entering helper T cells,then cytotoxic T cells.
Q2) Which of the following are cytokines?
A)Antibodies and antigens
B)Colony stimulating factors,interferons,interleukins,tumor necrosis factor
C)Autoantibodies and immunosuppressants
D)Histamine and leukotrienes
Q3) In an autoimmune disease,the immune response is directed toward A)foreign cells.
B)cells of the body ("self").
C)all antigens.
D)all antibodies.
Q4) As a result of the allergen-antibody reaction,mast cells release histamine.
A)True
B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secretion of cholecystokinin from the intestinal wall is stimulated by A)protein in the stomach.
B)protein in the small intestine.
C)fat in the stomach.
D)protein and fat in the small intestine.
Q2) Salivary amylase digests
A)carbohydrates.
B)proteins.
C)fats.
D)vitamins.
Q3) The double-layered folds of peritoneum that support portions of the small intestine are called ______.
Q4) Pancreatic digestive secretions are regulated by A)bile salts.
B)cholesterol.
C)cholecystokinin.
D)the amount of food eaten.
Q5) The _________ reflex regulates the rate at which chyme leaves the stomach.
Q6) Bile salts aid the absorption of _________ vitamins.
Q7) The passageway through the digestive tube is called the _____.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Provitamins are special vitamins that elite athletes take.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is a trace element?
A)Magnesium
B)Sulfur
C)Iron
D)Chlorine
Q3) Hannah eats tremendous amounts of food,but then takes laxatives,vomits,and exercises to keep from gaining weight.She has an eating disorder called ____.
Q4) Which of the following vitamins is necessary for producing collagen?
A)Vitamin D
B)Vitamin C
C)Thiamine
D)Biotin
Q5) Ribose and deoxyribose are carbohydrates.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Nutrients necessary for health that human cells cannot synthesize are called
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A simple spirometer cannot measure which of the following air volumes?
A)Tidal volume
B)Vital capacity
C)Residual volume
D)Expiratory reserve volume
Q2) The inverse relationship between pressure and volume is known as
A)Dalton's law.
B)Newton's law.
C)Boyle's law.
D)Starlings's law.
Q3) The hypoxia associated with high altitude can cause
A)vasodilation of the major arterial blood vessels.
B)vasoconstriction of the pulmonary blood vessels.
C)vasoconstriction of the coronary blood vessels.
D)vasodilation of the major venous blood vessels.
Q4) The cartilaginous structure at the base of the tongue that helps to prevent food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing is the ______.
Q5) Another word for breathing is ventilation.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the osmotic pressure of the blood plasma is decreased,the glomerular filtration rate is increased.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A by-product of amino acid catabolism in the liver is A)uric acid.
B)urea.
C)ammonia.
D)water.
Q3) Inulin clearance measures the rate of glomerular filtration.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The glomerular filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule is isotonic to the plasma of the peritubular capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The juxtaglomerular apparatus consists of the juxtaglomerular cells and the cells of the _____ _____.
Q6) Water is reabsorbed throughout most of the renal tubule by the process of _____.
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Q7) Nephrons whose corpuscles are near the renal medulla are called _____ _____.
Chapter 21: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parathyroid hormone increases phosphate reabsorption from the renal tubules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Symptoms of respiratory alkalosis include
A)light headedness.
B)agitation.
C)tingling sensations.
D)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following would be most helpful in treating hypocalcemia?
A)Removing the parathyroid glands
B)Administering high doses of vitamin D and calcium salts
C)Stimulating calcium excretion by the kidneys
D)Avoiding foods that are high in calcium
Q4) When sodium ions are reabsorbed in response to the action of aldosterone,potassium ions are
A)actively reabsorbed.
B)passively reabsorbed.
C)secreted.
D)reabsorbeD.
Q5) Carbon dioxide reacts with water to form _____ _____.
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Chapter 22: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the first meiotic division
A)sperm and egg form.
B)homologous chromosome pairs separate.
C)homologous chromosome pairs join.
D)the cell becomes diploiD.
Q2) The last fluid expelled from the urethra during ejaculation comes from the A)testes.
B)bulbourethral gland.
C)prostate gland.
D)seminal vesicles.
Q3) Tamoxifen and raloxifene act by
A)blocking estrogen receptors.
B)activating progesterone receptors.
C)breaking up cancer cell DNA.
D)depriving cancer cell of growth factors.
Q4) The structures of the female reproductive system that surround the openings to the urethra and vagina comprise the mons pubis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Pregnancy, Growth, and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) After birth,the foramen ovale is closed as a result of
A)increasing pressure in the right atrium.
B)increasing pressure in the left atrium.
C)increased resistance in the pulmonary circuit.
D)decreased blood volume in the pulmonary veins.
Q2) The primary function of surfactant is to increase surface tension in the newborn's lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Some factors that help to stimulate the newborn's first breath are increasing CO<sub>2</sub>,decreasing pH,decreasing O<sub>2</sub>,decreasing body temperature,and mechanical stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Fetal hemoglobin becomes largely replaced with adult hemoglobin
A)after the first trimester.
B)at birth.
C)from 4 months after birth.
D)when a child starts school.
Q5) In the day or two before milk secretion begins,the breasts secrete ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Genetics and Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gender determination for males reflects expression of
A)the SRY gene but not the Wnt4 gene.
B)the Wnt4 gene but not the SRY gene.
C)both the SRY and Wnt4 genes.
D)the entire Y chromosome.
Q2) Which of the following prenatal tests is non-invasive?
A)Amniocentesis
B)Chorionic villi sampling
C)Ultrasound
D)Inserting a shunt into a fetus with water on the brain
Q3) A human cell with 46 chromosomes is
A)aneuploid.
B)euploid.
C)polyploid.
D)haploiD.
Q4) In incomplete dominance,
A)the heterozygous phenotype is intermediate between that of either homozygote.
B)one allele masks the effect of the other.
C)one allele is inactive.
D)only one sex is affecteD.
Page 26
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