Chapter 5: Tissues
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Q1) ________ tissue covers body surfaces.
A) Nervous
B) Epithelial
C) Connective
D) Muscle
Q2) Bone heals well after injury while cartilage does not.This can be attributed to the fact that ________.
A) the cells of cartilage and bone are enclosed in small cavities called lacunae
B) bone is avascular and cartilage is highly vascular
C) the matrix of bone is solid while the matrix on cartilage is semisolid
D) bone is highly vascular and cartilage is avascular
Q3) The epidermis of the skin is formed by multiple layers of flattened,irregularly shaped cells.The most superficial of these layers is filled with keratin.This type of epithelial tissue is classified as ________.
A) stratified cuboidal epithelium
B) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) The specialized cells that produce the pigment melanin are called ________.
A) keratinocytes
B) melanocytes
C) lymphocytes
D) stem cells
Q2) Perspiration cools the body by ________.
A) the retention of water from merocrine sweat glands on the surface of the skin
B) the evaporation of water from apocrine sweat glands on the surface of the skin
C) the retention of water from apocrine sweat glands on the surface of the skin
D) the evaporation of water from merocrine sweat glands on the surface of the skin
Q3) The protein that makes the skin water resistant is ________.
A) melanin
B) keratin
C) elastin
D) collagen
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8
Chapter 7: Introduction to the Skeletal System and the Axial
Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following changes in the vertebral column is most likely to occur during pregnancy?
A) osteoporosis
B) kyphosis
C) lordosis
D) scoliosis
Q2) Which of the following bones belongs in the appendicular skeleton?
A) sternum
B) metatarsal
C) rib
D) vertebra
Q3) A five-year-old boy is struck in the head with a baseball.The physician identifies in an MRI that the petrous ridge has shifted superiorly.What bone contains the petrous ridge?
A) temporal
B) occipital
C) frontal
D) sphenoid
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) What region of the pelvis contains the organs of the inferior abdominal cavity?
A) true pelvis
B) pelvic outlet
C) false pelvis
D) pelvic inlet
Q2) Which of the following bones is located in the pectoral girdle?
A) humerus
B) sternum
C) ulna
D) scapula
Q3) Which of the following anatomical landmarks on the humerus allows for the passage of a nerve?
A) radial groove
B) coronoid fossa
C) capitulum
D) olecranon fossa
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Q1) Which of the following connects the parietal and occipital bones?
A) lambdoid suture
B) squamous suture
C) sagittal suture
D) coronal suture
Q2) Which of the following ligaments supports the anterior aspect of the shoulder?
A) coracohumeral
B) coracoclavicular
C) glenohumeral
D) acromioclavicular
Q3) What is the anatomical term for moving your mandible anteriorly?
A) elevation
B) protraction
C) depression
D) retraction
Q4) What is the anatomical name for the knuckle joints?
A) intercarpal
B) radioulnar
C) metacarpophalangeal
D) intertarsal
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Skeletal Muscle
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Q1) What is the name of the area of the sarcolemma that is associated with the neuromuscular junction?
A) junctional folds
B) synaptic terminal
C) synaptic cleft
D) motor end plate
Q2) What ion enters the muscle cell upon activation of the acetylcholine receptors?
A) sodium
B) calcium
C) potassium
D) chloride
Q3) What structure contains proteins that stabilize the thin filaments?
A) Z line
B) M line
C) A band
D) I band
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Muscles of the Head, Neck, and Trunk
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Q1) Identify the prime mover that facilitates the action described in the following situation: When asked to respond to a question in class,you raise your eyebrows and your forehead wrinkles.
A) nasalis
B) levator labii superioris
C) procerus
D) frontalis
Q2) An aponeurosis is most similar to a ________.
A) muscle
B) ligament
C) bone
D) tendon
Q3) Lateral rotation of the eyeball is facilitated by the ________.
A) superior rectus, inferior rectus, and lateral rectus muscles
B) superior oblique, lateral rectus, and inferior oblique muscles
C) superior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior rectus muscles
D) lateral rectus and medial rectus muscles
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Chapter 12: Muscles of the Upper and Lower Limbs
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Q1) What is unique about the brachioradialis muscle of the anterior forearm?
A) The insertion of the brachioradialis is on the humerus.
B) The origin of the brachioradialis is on the humerus.
C) The brachioradialis muscle acts on the elbow joint.
D) The brachioradialis acts as a flexor, while the majority of the superficial layer muscles act as extensors.
Q2) Sending a text message to your roommate would be impossible without the actions of ________.
A) the muscles of the anterior forearm
B) the muscles of the posterior component of the arm
C) the intrinsic muscles of the hand
D) the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm
Q3) Which of the following terms might be found in the name of a muscle that decreases the angle at a joint?
A) abductor
B) adductor
C) extensor
D) flexor
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Chapter 13: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) An individual's measured range of motion upon abduction of the right shoulder is 90 degrees and upon adduction is 120 degrees.Which of the following statements about range of motion is true?
A) The range of motion at the shoulder joint is above average for adduction and above average for adduction.
B) The range of motion at the shoulder joint is above average for each movement.
C) The range of motion at the shoulder joint is below average for both abduction and adduction.
D) The range of motion at the shoulder joint is below average for adduction and normal for adduction.
Q2) Production and accumulation of ________ in muscle cells leads to muscle fatigue. A) lactic acid
B) ATP
C) glucose
D) glycogen
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Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Where are bipolar neurons located?
A) sensory ganglia for spinal nerves and most cranial nerve ganglia
B) retina of the eye, inner ear, and the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity
C) various brain regions
D) cerebral cortex, cerebellar cortex, and gray matter in the spinal cord
Q2) Neuron processes that carry impulses toward the cell body are called ________.
A) Nissl bodies
B) dendrites
C) nodes
D) axons
Q3) The spinal nerves of the PNS are formed by the combination of ________.
A) white matter and gray matter
B) a ventral root and a dorsal root
C) an anterior horn and a posterior horn
D) a dorsal root ganglion and a ventral root
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Chapter 15: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) The ________ are a series of interconnected cavities that are filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
A) hemispheres
B) ventricles
C) meninges
D) lobes
Q2) What is the name of the structure that connects the left and right cerebral hemispheres,allowing for interhemispheric communication?
A) cerebral cortex
B) corpus callosum
C) internal capsule
D) lateral ventricles
Q3) The ________ separates the two cerebral hemispheres.
A) longitudinal fissure
B) lateral sulcus
C) central sulcus
D) transverse cerebral fissure
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) What is the role of the adipose tissue in the epidural space?
A) The adipose tissue conducts nerve impulses.
B) The adipose tissue in the epidural cushions dura mater and protects the nerves and blood vessels that it surrounds.
C) The adipose tissue of the epidural space produces myelin.
D) There is no known function of the adipose tissue in the epidural space.
Q2) The cone-shaped terminal end of the spinal cord is called the ________.
A) subarachnoid space
B) filum terminale
C) epidural space
D) conus medullaris
Q3) How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
A) 31
B) 8
C) 12
D) 5
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Chapter 17: Human Reflex Physiology
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Q1) Proprioception plays an important role in the ability to ________.
A) climb a rope
B) maintain balance while under the influence of alcohol or drugs
C) maintain hand-eye coordination
D) navigate through a dark home
Q2) Which element of a reflex arc is responsible for receiving and processing sensory information and transferring it to motor neurons?
A) effector organ
B) motor neuron
C) sensory neuron
D) integration center
Q3) Stretch reflexes are triggered by engagement of sensory receptors called
A) sensory receptors
B) skeletal muscles
C) muscle fascicles
D) muscle spindles
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Chapter 18: Special Senses
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Q1) The role of cerumen is to ________.
A) trap foreign particles that enter the external acoustic meatus
B) facilitate vibration of the tympanic membrane
C) detect changes in linear movement and respond to gravitational forces
D) amplify sound waves
Q2) According to a recent test using a Snellen chart,your roommate's vision is 20/70.What does this mean?
A) The results indicate that your roommate's eyesight is better than normal.
B) The results are consistent with normal visual ability.
C) The results indicate that objects that your roommate can see clearly at 20 feet can be seen clearly at 70 feet by a person with normal vision.
D) The results indicate that objects that your roommate can see clearly at 70 feet can be seen clearly at 20 feet by a person with normal vision.
Q3) The ________ contains the sensory receptors for hearing.
A) eustachian tube
B) cochlea
C) ampulla
D) vestibule
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Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Q1) A patient is shown to have very low levels of thyroid hormones.The body will respond by elevating which hormone?
A) growth hormone
B) adrenocorticotropic hormone
C) prolactin
D) thyroid-stimulating hormone
Q2) Which hormone is produced by the thyroid gland?
A) thymosin
B) thyroxine
C) natriuretic peptides
D) parathyroid hormone
Q3) A morbidly obese man has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.Which of the following hormones is not being utilized effectively?
A) calcitriol
B) pancreatic polypeptide
C) insulin
D) glucagon
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Chapter 20: Blood Cells
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Q1) Activation of which type of leukocyte will diminish the effect of allergies and inflammation?
A) basophils
B) lymphocytes
C) eosinophils
D) neutrophils
Q2) A fellow student has an allergy to grass pollen.Which of the following leukocytes is most active in this student during an allergic reaction?
A) neutrophils
B) monocytes
C) eosinophils
D) basophils
Q3) Which of the following is the measure of the percentage of formed elements in the blood?
A) platelets
B) hemoglobin concentration
C) hematocrit
D) anemia
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Chapter 21: Gross Anatomy of the Heart
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Q1) At which intercostal space is the apex of the heart normally located?
A) third intercostal space
B) first intercostal space
C) sixth intercostal space
D) fifth intercostal space
Q2) What structure connects the free margins of the AV valve cusps to the papillary muscles?
A) trabeculae carneae
B) endocardium
C) chordae tendineae
D) myocardium
Q3) A 57-year-old patient has been diagnosed with inflammation of the inner lining of the heart.What is this condition called?
A) congestive heart failure
B) endocarditis
C) pericarditis
D) atrial septal defect
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23
Chapter 22: Anatomy of Blood Vessels
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Q1) Which artery originates at the inferior border of the teres major?
A) brachial
B) deep brachial
C) ulnar
D) radial
Q2) A young patient has developed a disease that is causing her elastic fibers to break down.The tunica media of which artery is most affected by this disease?
A) brachial
B) aorta
C) arteriole
D) renal
Q3) Which vein drains blood from the distal half of the large intestine?
A) superior mesenteric
B) splenic
C) inferior mesenteric
D) gastric
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) The artery at the pulse point found on the anterior surface of the lateral wrist is the
A) radial artery
B) external carotid artery
C) popliteal artery
D) femoral artery
Q2) Pulse pressure is determined by ________.
A) adding diastolic blood pressure to systolic blood pressure
B) multiplying diastolic blood pressure by systolic blood pressure
C) subtracting diastolic blood pressure from systolic blood pressure
D) subtracting systolic blood pressure from diastolic blood pressure
Q3) The artery at the pulse point found at the femoral triangle is the ________.
A) femoral artery
B) superficial temporal artery
C) popliteal artery
D) radial artery
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Chapter 24: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) Functions of the spleen include ________.
A) production of thymosins
B) purification of lymph
C) production of thymosins, initiation of immune responses, and purification of lymph
D) phagocytosis of damaged red blood cells, initiation of immune responses, and iron storage
Q2) ________ are the primary cell type involved in the defense against pathogens.
A) Osteocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Fibroblasts
Q3) You notice that your roommate has swollen lymph nodes.Based on your knowledge of the lymphatic system,what might the clinical significance of this observation be?
A) Swollen lymph nodes may indicate the presence of an infection.
B) Swollen lymph nodes cannot be observed by a physical exam.
C) Swollen lymph nodes may signal the end of an illness.
D) Swollen lymph nodes are not clinically significant.
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Chapter 25: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Q1) As airways become smaller,________.
A) the amount of cartilage decreases, the amount of smooth muscle increases, and the type of epithelium does not change
B) the amount of cartilage increases, the amount of smooth muscle decreases, and the type of epithelium changes
C) the amount of cartilage decreases, the amount of smooth muscle increases, and the type of epithelium changes
D) the amount of cartilage increases, the amount of smooth muscle increases, and the type of epithelium changes
Q2) The pharynx ________.
A) serves as a common passageway for air to the larynx and food to the esophagus
B) serves as a passageway for air to the larynx
C) consists of two pharyngeal regions
D) serves as a passageway for food to the esophagus
Q3) Which of the pharyngeal regions is most closely associated with the oral cavity?
A) nasopharynx
B) oropharynx
C) trachea
D) laryngopharynx
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) What respiratory event occurs when intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric pressure?
A) ventilation
B) exhalation
C) inhalation
D) Air movement does not occur.
Q2) The maximum amount of air that a person can exhale after a forced inhalation is called ________.
A) expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
B) inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
C) vital capacity (VC)
D) inspiratory capacity (IC)
Q3) Given the information below,calculate the inspiratory reserve volume of a female patient.Height: 67 inchesAge: 36 yearsEC: 500
A) 3948 mL
B) 3103 mL
C) 4948 mL
D) 4103 mL
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28
Chapter 27: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Q1) A patient has been identified to have a "leaky" ileum,which is causing inflammation and irritation of one of his mesenteries.Which of the following mesenteries is most likely to become inflamed?
A) mesocolon
B) mesentery proper
C) lesser omentum
D) greater omentum
Q2) Which of the following cells produce proteolytic enzymes?
A) hepatocytes
B) pancreatic islets
C) Kupffer cells
D) pancreatic acinar cells
Q3) Which organ is the only organ connected to the anterior body wall by a mesentery in the adult?
A) liver
B) transverse colon
C) stomach
D) small intestine
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Chapter 28: Actions of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) Which of the following compounds will result from the breakdown of starch in the presence of both amylase and maltase?
A) fructose
B) glucose
C) lactose
D) galactose
Q2) A young man has a congenital inability to break down maltose.Which enzyme is he unable to produce?
A) lactase
B) glucose
C) fructose
D) maltase
Q3) A young woman developed necrotizing enterocolitis,which required the removal of her small intestine.What is one of the enzymes that will no longer be present because of the removal of her small intestine?
A) amylase
B) maltase
C) maltose
D) amylose
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Anatomy of the Urinary System
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Q1) What are the urine-producing tubules of the kidney called?
A) renal pelvis
B) renal medulla
C) renal cortex
D) nephrons
Q2) What is the name of the tube that travels through the shaft of the penis?
A) membranous urethra
B) prostatic urethra
C) ureter
D) spongy urethra
Q3) Which artery or arteriole exits the glomerulus?
A) vasa recta
B) efferent arteriole
C) cortical radiate artery
D) afferent arteriole
Q4) Which region of the kidney contains the renal pyramids?
A) renal cortex
B) renal medulla
C) renal pelvis
D) renal sinus
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Urinary Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following is a type of cast that might be found in a concentrated urine sample?
A) hyaline
B) trichomonas
C) uric acid
D) cholesterol
Q2) A patient's urine tests positive for large blood proteins and red blood cells.Which of the following conditions might the person have?
A) glomerulonephritis
B) ketonuria
C) diabetes mellitus
D) bilirubinuria
Q3) Where does filtration occur in the kidney?
A) loop of Henle
B) distal convoluted tubule
C) proximal convoluted tubule
D) renal corpuscle
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Page 32
Chapter 31: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Secretions of the bulbourethral (Cowper's)gland ________.
A) contain fluid and enzymes
B) promote the growth of bacteria near the prepuce
C) lubricate the tip of the penis
D) contribute to the volume of semen
Q2) The ________ is a fibrous capsule that covers each testis.
A) scrotal cavity
B) rete testis
C) tunica albuginea
D) serous membrane
Q3) In their most primitive state,spermatogenic cells are referred to as ________.
A) spermatozoa
B) spermatogonia
C) secondary spermatocytes
D) spermatids
Q4) Spermatozoa become functionally mature in the ________.
A) urethra
B) ejaculatory duct
C) epididymis
D) ductus deferens
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Chapter 32: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which accessory organ delivers the oocyte or embryo to the uterus?
A) vagina
B) ovary
C) uterus
D) uterine (fallopian) tube
Q2) The clitoris and penis both become erect upon sexual arousal.What accounts for this similarity?
A) The clitoris and penis are both partially shrouded by a prepuce.
B) The clitoris and penis develop from the same embryonic tissue.
C) The clitoris and penis are homologous structures. Both have columns of erectile tissue.
D) The clitoris and penis are avascular, cylindrical structures.
Q3) The ovarian ________ contains developing egg cells,while the ________ contains the blood vessels,nerves,and lymphatic vessels that supply the ovary.
A) medulla; cortex
B) cortex; medulla
C) cortex; follicle
D) medulla; follicle
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