Anatomy and Physiology I Lab Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology I Lab is a hands-on laboratory course designed to complement and reinforce the concepts covered in Anatomy and Physiology I lectures. Students will engage in practical exercises and experiments focused on the structure and function of the human body, with emphasis on cells, tissues, and the major organ systems such as the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems. Through the use of models, microscopes, dissections, and physiological experiments, students will develop essential laboratory skills, improve their understanding of anatomical terminology, and gain a deeper appreciation for the complexity of human physiology.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology Lab Manual Main Version 2nd Edition by Stephen N. Sarikas
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32 Chapters
640 Verified Questions
640 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Body Organization and Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a structure that contains at least two types of tissue and carries out a specific function.
A) An organism
B) An organ system
C) A cell
D) An organ
Answer: D
Q2) Transverse (horizontal)planes divide the body into ________.
A) anterior and posterior portions
B) superior and inferior portions
C) equal left and right portions
D) left and right portions
Answer: B
Q3) The muscles are ________ to the skin.
A) posterior
B) deep
C) superficial
D) medial
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Care and Use of the Compound Light
Microscope
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Sample Questions
Q1) The total magnification of a specimen can be calculated by multiplying the ocular lens magnification by the ________ lens magnification.
A) low power
B) scanning
C) high power
D) objective
Answer: D
Q2) As the user switches to a higher-power lens to increase total magnification,the field of view ________.
A) decreases
B) decreases 4×
C) increases
D) remains the same
Answer: A
Q3) The coarse and fine adjustment knobs are used to ________.
A) nosepiece
B) make initial and subsequent focusing adjustments when viewing a specimen.
C) secure the specimen on the stage
D) illuminate the specimen
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular events of muscle contraction require a large amount of energy.Which of the following organelles might be abundant in the cells that coordinate these events?
A) mitochondria
B) Golgi apparatus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleus
Answer: A
Q2) The ________ produces ribosomes.
A) Golgi apparatus
B) nucleolus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleus
Answer: B
Q3) ________ is the period of time when the cell is not dividing.
A) Anaphase
B) Prophase
C) Interphase
D) Metaphase
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Membrane Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a red blood cell,which has an internal solute concentration of 280 mOsm,is placed in a solution of pure water (0 mOsm)________.
A) the cell is hypotonic compared to the environment and will quickly lose water
B) the cell is hypertonic compared to the environment and will quickly lose water
C) the cell is hypertonic compared to the environment and will quickly gain water
D) the cell is hypotonic compared to the environment and will quickly gain water
Q2) At which temperature would the rate of diffusion of dye molecules be the lowest?
A) 25 degrees C
B) 10 degrees C
C) 95 degrees C
D) 5 degrees C
Q3) A membrane that allows some substances to travel across it while restricting the passage of others is ________.
A) selectively permeable
B) impermeable
C) hypotonic
D) freely permeable
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6
Chapter 5: Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons and neuroglia are cell types found in ________ tissue.
A) epithelial
B) nervous
C) connective
D) muscle
Q2) The epidermis of the skin is formed by multiple layers of flattened,irregularly shaped cells.The most superficial of these layers is filled with keratin.This type of epithelial tissue is classified as ________.
A) stratified cuboidal epithelium
B) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
C) simple squamous epithelium
D) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Q3) Adipose,cartilage,bone,and blood are all types of ________ tissue.
A) muscle
B) epithelial
C) connective
D) nervous
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an accessory structure in the integumentary system?
A) exocrine glands and hair follicles
B) endocrine glands
C) nails and exocrine glands
D) hair follicles and nails
Q2) The ________ is the white,crescent-moon-shaped region of the nail plate.
A) nail bed
B) phalanx
C) lunula
D) cuticle
Q3) The secretions of merocrine and apocrine sweat glands differ in that apocrine sweat
A) contains proteins that, when combined with bacteria on the surface of the skin, produce a distinct odor
B) is composed of water and electrolytes and participates in the temperature regulation process
C) is a secretion of eccrine sweat glands
D) determines the amount of pigment proteins produced by skin cells
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8
Chapter 7: Introduction to the Skeletal System and the Axial
Skeleton
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Q1) A doctor informs you that your son has fractured a sesamoid bone.Which of the following is the most likely bone that was fractured?
A) radius
B) scapula
C) patella
D) humerus
Q2) Which of the following sutures connects the two parietal bones of the skull?
A) lambdoid
B) coronal
C) sagittal
D) squamous
Q3) Which bone is found within the pelvis?
A) ilium
B) radius
C) tibia
D) humerus
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following metatarsal bones articulates with the cuboid?
A) talus
B) metatarsal V
C) navicular
D) medial cuneiform
Q2) What is the name for the thick,projecting ridge of bone on the posterior aspect of the scapula?
A) coracoid process
B) acromion
C) scapular spine
D) supraspinous fossa
Q3) Which bone articulates with the manubrium of the sternum?
A) scapula
B) third rib
C) humerus
D) clavicle
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Q1) Which of the following joints is representative of a gomphosis?
A) distal tibiofibular
B) joint between maxillae and upper teeth
C) squamous suture
D) coracoclavicular
Q2) What is the anatomical name for the knuckle joints?
A) intercarpal
B) radioulnar
C) metacarpophalangeal
D) intertarsal
Q3) Which of the following connects the parietal and occipital bones?
A) lambdoid suture
B) squamous suture
C) sagittal suture
D) coronal suture
Q4) With what structure does the capitulum of the humerus articulate?
A) condyle of the radius
B) trochlear notch of the ulna
C) head of the radius
D) metacarpophalangeal
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Skeletal Muscle
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the anatomical name for the tube-like structures that are open to the surface of the sarcolemma and form a portion of a triad?
A) cisternae
B) myofibril
C) sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) T-tubules
Q2) Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?
A) sodium
B) acetylcholine
C) glutamate
D) acetylcholinesterase
Q3) Which of the following is both a protein and a structural component of thin filaments?
A) actin
B) myosin
C) myofibrils
D) T-tubules
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12
Chapter 11: Muscles of the Head, Neck, and Trunk
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ attach muscles to bones.
A) Cartilages
B) Cords
C) Tendons
D) Ligaments
Q2) An agonist ________.
A) opposes a specific action
B) promotes or facilitates a specific action
C) serves as the fixed attachment of a muscle
D) is also known as a prime mover. Contraction results in a specific action
Q3) The muscles of the head,neck,and trunk are referred to as the ________ muscles.
A) smooth
B) appendicular
C) axial
D) skeletal
Q4) The diaphragm ________.
A) originates and inserts on the ribs
B) is the primary muscle of respiration
C) elevates the ribs
D) depresses the ribs
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Chapter 12: Muscles of the Upper and Lower Limbs
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Q1) Based on the name gluteus maximus,which of the following statements about the muscle is true?
A) This is the smallest muscle of the femoral region.
B) This is the largest muscle of the gluteal region.
C) This is the intermediate muscle of the gluteal region.
D) This is the largest muscle of the femoral region.
Q2) Which of the following terms might be found in the name of a muscle that is the larger of two similar muscles in a specific location?
A) medius
B) major
C) brevis maximus
D) minor
Q3) The common action of the pectoralis minor,subclavius,and serratus anterior muscles is to ________.
A) rotate the scapula
B) stabilize the pectoral girdle when the shoulder moves
C) elevate the ribs
D) protract the shoulder
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) How do dynamic and static flexibility differ?
A) Dynamic flexibility considers resistance to a motion as well as the difficulty of a movement.
B) Dynamic flexibility only measures range of motion.
C) Static flexibility considers resistance to a motion as well as the difficulty of a movement.
D) There is no difference between the two.
Q2) Extension at the knee involves ________.
A) concentric contraction of the hamstring group and eccentric contraction of the quadriceps femoris group
B) eccentric contraction of the hamstring group and concentric contraction of the quadriceps femoris group
C) isometric contraction of the hamstring group and isotonic contraction of the quadriceps femoris group
D) isotonic contraction of both the hamstring group and the quadriceps femoris group
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Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Myelin sheaths form an insulating layer around the axons of neurons in the central and peripheral nervous systems. These structures function to slow the transmission of impulses along the axon.
B) Myelin sheaths form an insulating layer around the axons of neurons in the central and peripheral nervous systems. These structures function to speed up the transmission of impulses along the axon.
C) Myelin sheaths form an insulating layer around the axons of neurons only in the peripheral nervous system. These structures function to speed up the transmission of impulses along the axon.
D) Myelin sheaths form an insulating layer around the cell bodies of neurons in the central and peripheral nervous systems. These structures function to speed up the transmission of impulses along the axon.
Q2) The spinal nerves of the PNS are formed by the combination of ________.
A) white matter and gray matter
B) a ventral root and a dorsal root
C) an anterior horn and a posterior horn
D) a dorsal root ganglion and a ventral root
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) The ________ regulates the autonomic nervous system and the pituitary gland.
A) cerebrum
B) pineal gland
C) cerebellum
D) hypothalamus
Q2) Which of the cranial nerves originate in the nasal cavity?
A) oculomotor nerve (CN III)
B) trigeminal nerve (CN V)
C) olfactory nerves (CN I)
D) optic nerves (CN II)
Q3) Which of the following cranial nerves innervates the muscles that move the tongue?
A) facial
B) hypoglossal
C) abducens
D) accessory
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Chapter 16: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) The bony structure that encloses and protects the spinal cord is called the
A) cauda equina
B) conus medullaris
C) dura mater
D) vertebral canal
Q2) The ________ connect(s)the pia mater to the dura mater of the spinal cord.
A) denticulate ligaments
B) conus medullaris
C) spinal nerves
D) filum terminale
Q3) How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?
A) 31
B) 8
C) 12
D) 5
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Chapter 17: Human Reflex Physiology
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Q1) Proprioception plays an important role in the ability to ________.
A) climb a rope
B) maintain balance while under the influence of alcohol or drugs
C) maintain hand-eye coordination
D) navigate through a dark home
Q2) Which element of a reflex arc is responsible for carrying out an action in response to a stimulus?
A) motor neuron
B) effector organ
C) sensory receptor
D) sensory neuron
Q3) Which element of a reflex arc is responsible for receiving and processing sensory information and transferring it to motor neurons?
A) effector organ
B) motor neuron
C) sensory neuron
D) integration center
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Chapter 18: Special Senses
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Q1) The role of cerumen is to ________.
A) trap foreign particles that enter the external acoustic meatus
B) facilitate vibration of the tympanic membrane
C) detect changes in linear movement and respond to gravitational forces
D) amplify sound waves
Q2) ________ deafness results from damage along the neural pathway for hearing,whereas ________ deafness involves altered transmission of sound waves.
A) Conductive; sensorineural
B) Rinne; conductive
C) Weber; sensorineural
D) Sensorineural; conductive
Q3) Taste buds,sensory receptors for gustation,are located ________.
A) in structures called papillae
B) in the olfactory epithelium
C) in the semicircular canals
D) in the cochlear duct
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Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Which region of the pituitary produces melanocyte-stimulating hormone in fetuses,young children,and pregnant women?
A) hypothalamus
B) adenohypophysis
C) pars intermedia
D) neurohypophysis
Q2) The production of what hormone is influenced by parathyroid hormone?
A) calcitriol
B) triiodothyronine
C) thyroxine
D) luteinizing hormone
Q3) Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH)produced?
A) pituitary
B) pineal gland
C) adrenal medulla
D) hypothalamus
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Chapter 20: Blood Cells
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Q1) A young woman has been tired recently and went to see her physician.A blood test revealed a reduction in the oxygen-carrying capacity of her blood.What is the name of this condition?
A) leukemia
B) diapedesis
C) hemoglobin concentration
D) anemia
Q2) Which of the following is the measure of the percentage of formed elements in the blood?
A) platelets
B) hemoglobin concentration
C) hematocrit
D) anemia
Q3) Which of the following leukocytes is pale-staining and destroys pathogens by engulfing them via the process of phagocytosis?
A) eosinophils
B) neutrophils
C) lymphocytes
D) basophils
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Gross Anatomy of the Heart
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Q1) Which pericardial structure makes contact with the heart wall?
A) pericardial cavity
B) parietal pericardium
C) visceral pericardium
D) fibrous pericardium
Q2) The cusps of the AV valves are extensions of which layer of the heart wall?
A) epicardium
B) parietal pericardium
C) myocardium
D) endocardium
Q3) What is the name of the area within the thoracic cavity where the heart is located?
A) fossa ovalis
B) auricle
C) mediastinum
D) thoracic cavity
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23
Chapter 22: Anatomy of Blood Vessels
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Q1) Which layer of a blood vessel contains smooth muscle and elastic fibers?
A) tunica intima
B) tunica externa
C) endothelium
D) tunica media
Q2) Which of the following arteries is the first to arise from the aortic arch?
A) left subclavian artery
B) brachiocephalic trunk
C) bronchial artery
D) left common carotid
Q3) Which type of blood vessel possesses valves?
A) elastic arteries
B) arterioles
C) muscular arteries
D) veins
Q4) Which artery originates at the inferior border of the teres major?
A) brachial
B) deep brachial
C) ulnar
D) radial
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Chapter 23: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between recovery time and physical fitness?
A) Shorter recovery time equates to better physical fitness.
B) Shorter recovery time equates to poor physical fitness.
C) Longer recovery time equates to better physical fitness.
D) There is no relationship between recovery time and physical fitness.
Q2) Which of the following accounts for the heart sounds "lubb-dubb"?
A) closing of the semilunar and atrioventricular valves, respectively
B) opening of the semilunar and atrioventricular valves, respectively
C) closing of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves, respectively
D) opening of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves, respectively
Q3) The ________ is generated by the expansion and recoil of the arteries.
A) blood pressure
B) heartbeat
C) mean arterial pressure
D) pulse
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Chapter 24: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) Functions of the spleen include ________.
A) production of thymosins
B) purification of lymph
C) production of thymosins, initiation of immune responses, and purification of lymph
D) phagocytosis of damaged red blood cells, initiation of immune responses, and iron storage
Q2) You notice that your roommate has swollen lymph nodes.Based on your knowledge of the lymphatic system,what might the clinical significance of this observation be?
A) Swollen lymph nodes may indicate the presence of an infection.
B) Swollen lymph nodes cannot be observed by a physical exam.
C) Swollen lymph nodes may signal the end of an illness.
D) Swollen lymph nodes are not clinically significant.
Q3) Which of the following may occur as a result of removal of the palatine or pharyngeal tonsils?
A) heightened susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens
B) decreased susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens
C) Removal of the tonsils would have no clinical consequences.
D) Susceptibility to ingested or inhaled pathogens would not be affected.
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Chapter 25: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Q1) What might be the clinical significance of loss of surfactant production by type II alveolar cells?
A) Failure of type II alveolar cells to produce surfactant may result in alveolar collapse.
B) Reduced amounts or absence of surfactant will result in more efficient alveolar inflation upon inspiration.
C) Surfactant is not needed for proper lung function, so there would be no consequence if it were not produced.
D) Because surfactant is produced by type I alveolar cells, there would be no clinical effect of reduced surfactant production by type II alveolar cells.
Q2) Which of the following distributes air to particular regions of the lung?
A) trachea
B) respiratory airways
C) conducting airways
D) pulmonary capillaries
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) Your predicted vital capacity is 3603 mL.During an anatomy and physiology lab,your actual vital capacity was measured and recorded as 2482 mL.What is the clinical interpretation of this information?
A) Your pulmonary function is above normal, indicative of a consistent exercise program.
B) Your pulmonary function is below normal, indicative of pulmonary disease or a history of smoking.
C) Your pulmonary function is normal.
D) There is not enough information provided to assess pulmonary function.
Q2) Given the information below,calculate the inspiratory reserve volume of a female patient.Height: 67 inchesAge: 36 yearsEC: 500
A) 3948 mL
B) 3103 mL
C) 4948 mL
D) 4103 mL
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Chapter 27: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Q1) A patient has been identified to have a "leaky" ileum,which is causing inflammation and irritation of one of his mesenteries.Which of the following mesenteries is most likely to become inflamed?
A) mesocolon
B) mesentery proper
C) lesser omentum
D) greater omentum
Q2) Which of the following is the largest salivary gland?
A) sublingual
B) parotid
C) gastric glands
D) submandibular
Q3) Pepsinogen is released by which of the following gastric cell types?
A) mucous cells
B) G cells
C) chief cells
D) parietal cells
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29
Chapter 28: Actions of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) What is the name for a biological catalyst?
A) enzyme
B) active site
C) polysaccharide
D) substrate
Q2) A young woman developed necrotizing enterocolitis,which required the removal of her small intestine.What is one of the enzymes that will no longer be present because of the removal of her small intestine?
A) amylase
B) maltase
C) maltose
D) amylose
Q3) Starch is broken down into which of the following sugar moieties by amylase?
A) galactose
B) maltose
C) lactose
D) glucose
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Chapter 29: Anatomy of the Urinary System
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Q1) Blood drains from the peritubular and vasa recta capillary beds into small veins.Which is the smallest of these veins (also called the interlobular veins)?
A) renal vein
B) segmental veins
C) cortical radiate (also called interlobar veins)
D) arcuate veins
Q2) Which activity of the nephron will remove unwanted substances from the filtrate?
A) collecting system
B) glomerular filtration
C) tubular reabsorption
D) tubular secretion
Q3) Which region of the kidney contains the renal pyramids?
A) renal cortex
B) renal medulla
C) renal pelvis
D) renal sinus
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Chapter 30: Urinary Physiology
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Q1) Inflammation due to a urinary tract infection will cause which of the following abnormalities in the urine?
A) pyuria
B) urobilinogenuria
C) ketonuria
D) renal tubular acidosis
Q2) Which of the following compounds can give urine a reddish color?
A) hydrogen ions
B) nitrite
C) glucose
D) porphyrin
Q3) In which part of the nephron are excess ions removed from the blood?
A) glomerulus
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) loop of Henle
D) distal convoluted tubule
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32
Chapter 31: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The ________ of a spermatozoon consists of mitochondria arranged in a spiral formation.
A) tail
B) head
C) acrosome
D) middle piece
Q2) The male reproductive system is responsible for ________.
A) the production of sex hormones
B) the production of sex hormones, the production and storage of sperm, and transportation of sperm to the female reproductive tract during intercourse
C) the production of sex hormones as well as the production and storage of sperm
D) the production and storage of sperm as well as transportation of sperm to the female reproductive tract during intercourse
Q3) In their most primitive state,spermatogenic cells are referred to as ________.
A) spermatozoa
B) spermatogonia
C) secondary spermatocytes
D) spermatids
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33
Chapter 32: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following structures serves as the site of fetal development?
A) uterine (fallopian) tubes
B) vagina
C) ovaries
D) uterus
Q2) Breast milk is stored in the ________ prior to breastfeeding.
A) lactiferous sinus
B) lobules
C) nipple
D) lactiferous duct
Q3) Which of the following represents the most mature stage of follicular development?
A) primordial follicle
B) tertiary follicle
C) secondary follicle
D) primary follicle
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