Anatomy and Physiology I Exam Answer
Key
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology I provides an in-depth introduction to the structure and function of the human body, focusing on the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems. Students will learn fundamental concepts in human anatomy, including terminology, basic chemistry principles, cell structure, and tissue organization. The course emphasizes the relationships between anatomical structures and physiological functions, preparing students to understand how the body maintains homeostasis and responds to internal and external changes. Laboratory components may include hands-on activities such as dissections, microscopic examinations, and physiological experiments to reinforce theoretical knowledge.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Q1) Which subspecialty of physiology deals with the study of the chemical regulators in the blood?
A)endocrinology
B)cardiovascular physiology
C)neurophysiology
D)immunology
E)pathophysiology
Answer: A
Q2) List and briefly describe the six basic life processes.
Answer: The six basic life processes include:1)Metabolism is the sum of all chemical processes in the body.2)Responsiveness is the body's ability to detect and respond to internal and external stimuli.3)Movement includes motions that range from movements within individual cells to movement of the entire body.4)Growth means an increase in body size or an increase in the number of cells.5)Differentiation is the process that converts a cell from unspecialized to specialized.6)Reproduction refers to formation of new cells for growth and repair or production of a new individual.
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Q1) Which of the following is a common function of RNA?
A)produce electrical impulses
B)storage of energy
C)transfer information for protein synthesis
D)long-term storage of information for protein synthesis
E)transport of fluids
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following subatomic particles are shared by two atoms to form covalent bonds?
1)neutron
2)electron
3)proton
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)2 & 3 only
E)1,2 & 3
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Q1) During phagocytosis,binding of a particle to a plasma membrane receptor triggers formation of _____,which are extensions of the plasma membrane of the phagocyte that eventually surround the particle forming a phagosome.
A)podocytes
B)exterior vesicles
C)interior vesicles
D)pseudopods
E)lysosomes
Answer: D
Q2) Briefly describe alternative splicing.
Answer: Alternative splicing of mRNA is a process in which the pre-mRNA transcribed from a gene is spliced in different ways to produce several different mRNAs.The different mRNAs are used to make different proteins.
Question
Q3) Briefly describe the fluid mosaic model.
Answer: The fluid mosaic model states that the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane resembles an ever-moving sea of fluid lipids containing a mosaic of many different proteins.
Question
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Q1) Which type of exocrine gland accumulates its secretory product in the cytosol of its cells until the cell ruptures and becomes part of the secretory product?
A)Apocrine
B)Exocrine
C)Holocrine
D)All of these answer choices are correct.
E)None of these answer choices are correct.
Q2) Reticular fibers in soft organs like the spleen and liver form a supporting framework called the
A)matrix.
B)ground substance.
C)basement membrane.
D)stroma.
E)glycosaminoglycans.
Q3) Name and briefly describe the different categories of epithelial tissues based on cell shape and number of layers of cells found in the tissue.
Q4) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
Q5) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
Q6) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System Unit Ii: Principles of
Support and Movement
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Q1) Which of the following terms refers to an inflammation of the skin characterized by patches of redness,blistering,and extreme itching?
A)papule
B)laceration
C)keratosis
D)frostbite
E)eczema
Q2) Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing.
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to reddened,elevated,and itchy patches of skin commonly caused by emotional stress,physical trauma,or certain food allergies?
A)wart
B)hives
C)papule
D)cyst
E)eczema
Q4) Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing.
Q5) Describe the major differences between thin skin and thick skin.
Q6) List and briefly describe the major functions of the skin.
Q7) Describe the structure and function of arrector pili.
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following substances are stored in the structure of adult bones for use by other tissues in the body?
A)calcium
B)phosphorous
C)triglycerides
D)iron
E)More than one of these substances is stored in bone.
Q2) Which type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children?
A)open
B)comminuted
C)impacted
D)greenstick
E)stress
Q3) Which of the following structures contain osteocytes?
A)central (Haversian)canals
B)perforating (Volkmann's)canals
C)concentric lamellae
D)lacunae
E)canaliculi
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Q1) Sella turcica is a bony depression found in this cranial bone.
A)Sphenoid
B)Frontal
C)Temporal
D)Ethmoid
E)Occipital
Q2) Which cranial bone is anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones and contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve?
A)Ethmoid
B)Frontal
C)Palatine
D)Maxilla
E)Temporal
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
A)Parietal
B)Nasal
C)Maxillae
D)Zygomatic
E)Palatine
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: the Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) The portion of the bony pelvis that is found inferior to the pelvic brim is called
A)the false pelvis.
B)the greater pelvis.
C)the true pelvis.
D)both the false pelvis and the greater pelvis.
E)all of these choices are correct.
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the human hand?
A)There are 5 carpals,8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges.
B)There are 8 carpals,6 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
C)There are 8 carpals,5 metacarpals and 15 phalanges
D)There are 8 carpals,5 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
E)There are 5 carpals,8 metacarpals and 14 phalanges
Q3) This is a spool-shaped process on distal end of the humerus that is found medial to the capitulum and articulates with the ulna.
A)Coronoid fossa
B)Trochlea
C)Medial epicondyle
D)Lateral epicondyle
E)Lesser tubercle
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) A suture joint fits into which functional joint classification?
A)synarthrosis.
B)amphiarthrosis.
C)diarthrosis.
D)synovial.
E)cartilaginous.
Q2) Which type of motion results from relatively flat bone surfaces moving back and forth and from side to side with respect to one another?
A)Flexion
B)Extension
C)Gliding
D)Circumduction
E)Hyperextension
Q3) Briefly describe the functions of synovial fluid.
Q4) Which of the following is a correct description of arthroplasty?
A)resurfacing of cartilage in a joint
B)reshaping of the ends of the bones in a joint
C)surgically replacing a joint with an artificial joint
D)injection of synovial fluid into the joint
E)a,b,and d
11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Q1) Discuss the steps involved in contraction of smooth muscle and explain why smooth muscle has a slower contraction cycle.
Q2) The contractile organelles of a skeletal muscle fiber are thread-like structures called
A)myofibrils.
B)myoglobin.
C)mitochondria.
D)Z discs.
E)M lines.
Q3) Which of the regions of a sarcomere contain titin?
A)the A band only
B)the H zone only
C)the zone of overlap only
D)from M line to Z disc
E)the I band only
Q4) Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue.
Q5) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.
Q6) In embryonic muscle development,what happens to the somites?
Q7) How does a nerve impulse elicit a muscle action potential?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System Unit Iii: Control Systems of the Human Body
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Q1) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic commonly used to name skeletal muscles?
A)Size
B)Shape
C)Number of origins
D)Sites of origins
E)Thickness of fibers
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a common arrangement of muscle fascicles?
A)pennate
B)triangular
C)oval
D)parallel
E)fusiform
Q4) A muscle that raises or elevates a body part is called a
A)pronator.
B)tensor.
C)flexor.
D)depressor.
E)levator.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) List the three ways that neurotransmitters can be removed from a synapse.
Q2) With respect to neurons,the term "nerve fiber" refers to A)an axon.
B)a dendrite
C)a Nissl body.
D)both axons and dendrites.
E)all of these choices
Q3) Plasticity means
A)ability to regenerate after being damaged.
B)sending a signal through a converging circuit.
C)signal transmission at a synapse.
D)ability to change based on experience.
E)ability to stretch and recoil without damage.
Q4) Which of the following types of electrical signals allow rapid long-distance communication within the nervous system?
A)resting potential
B)nerve action potential
C)muscle action potential
D)graded potential
E)long-term potentiation
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) What type(s)of axons are wrapped in a protective endoneurium?
1)Myelinated
2)Unmyelinated
3)Only dendrites are surrounded by endoneurium
A)1 only
B)2 only
C)3 only
D)Both 1 and 2
E)None of these choices
Q2) Intercostal nerves
A)are also known as cervical nerves.
B)do not enter into a plexus and directly connect to the structures they supply.
C)are found in the C6-T4 area of the vertebral column.
D)extend through the sacrum.
E)do not exist in humans.
Q3) Discuss the clinical significance of dermatomes.
Q4) Describe the gross external anatomy of the spinal cord.
Q5) Describe the basic anatomy of a spinal nerve plexus.
Q6) Identify and describe the function of each of the components of a spinal reflex arc.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following cranial nerves carries sensory information coming from the nasal cavity to the olfactory area of the cerebrum?
A)olfactory (I)nerve (cranial nerve I)
B)trigeminal (V)nerve (cranial nerve V)
C)abducens (VI)nerve (cranial nerve VI)
D)vestibulocochlear (VIII)nerve (cranial nerve VIII)
E)vagus (X)nerve (cranial nerve X)
Q2) Which of the following glands is directly controlled by hormones produced by the hypothalamus?
A)Posterior pituitary gland
B)Anterior pituitary gland
C)Thymus gland
D)Pancreas
E)Pineal gland
Q3) Which of the following are NOT controlled by the hypothalamus?
A)Hunger
B)Thirst
C)Blood calcium concentration
D)Emotional behavior
E)Body temperature
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) A postganglionic neuron in the ANS
A)releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
B)is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
C)has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
D)has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
E)carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.
Q2) Interoceptors are found in
A)blood vessels
B)visceral organs
C)muscles
D)all of these choices
E)none of these choices
Q3) Autonomic tone is regulated by the A)medulla oblongata.
B)cerebellum.
C)cerebrum.
D)vermis.
E)hypothalamus.
Q4) Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors,explain how beta blockers are able to manage conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure)?
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Q1) Which condition is characterized by a lack of memory for events occurring after the trauma or disease that caused the condition?
A)narcolepsy
B)retrograde amnesia
C)sleep apnea
D)coma
E)anterograde amnesia
Q2) List the six types of sensory receptors categorized based on the type of stimulus they detect and describe the types of stimuli that each type can detect.
Q3) Which of the following types of neurons conduct impulses from the peripheral somatic sensory receptors to the brain stem or spinal cord?
A)First order neuron
B)Second order neuron
C)Third order neuron
D)Fourth order neuron
E)Higher order neuron
Q4) What is phantom limb sensation and describe why the patient experiences these sensations?
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Q1) Emily was very ill with an upper respiratory infection.Her roommate gave her some chicken soup to make her feel better.Neither Emily nor her roommate realized that the soup was too hot to eat until after Emily put a spoonful in her mouth.Now Emily says she can't taste anything.Why? When will she be able to taste again?
Q2) List the cells,structures,and fluids that light must pass through to reach the photoreceptor cells.
Q3) Which structure regulates the amount of light entering the eyeball through the pupil?
A)Retina
B)Cornea
C)Iris
D)Choroid
E)Ciliary muscle
Q4) The axons of the ganglion neurons of the retina terminate in the A)optic disk.
B)optic chiasm.
C)visual cortex of cerebrum.
D)lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.
E)primary somatosensory area of cerebral cortex.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System Unit Iv: Maintenance of the Human Body
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Q1) Which of the following glands is NOT an endocrine gland?
A)pituitary gland
B)thyroid gland
C)adrenal gland
D)sebaceous gland
E)pineal gland
Q2) All the following hormones are produced and secreted by the ovaries EXCEPT
A)estradiol.
B)estrone.
C)progesterone.
D)inhibin.
E)follicle-stimulating hormone.
Q3) Parathyroid hormone is the major regulator of the plasma concentration of which of the following ions?
A)Calcium
B)Sodium
C)Potassium
D)Chloride
E)Manganese
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Q1) During hemopoiesis,some of the myeloid stem cells will eventually develop into A)proerythroblasts.
B)T lymphoblasts.
C)B lymphoblasts.
D)NK lymphoblasts.
E)all of these choices.
Q2) Which of following correctly lists the sequence of steps that occur during hemostasis in response to a damaged blood vessel?
A)vascular spasm,clotting,polycythemia
B)hemolysis,vascular spasm,platelet plug formation
C)emigration,clotting,hemolysis
D)vascular spasm,platelet plug formation,clotting
E)anemia,hemogenesis,platelet plug formation
Q3) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in disease resistance?
A)Albumin
B)Globulins
C)Fibrinogen
D)Myoglobin
E)Hemoglobin
Q4) Why does damaged endothelium present an increased risk of blood clotting?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Q1) Which of the following electrocardiogram (EKG)waves represents atrial depolarization?
A)R wave
B)T wave
C)S wave
D)P wave
E)Q wave
Q2) Which of the following would lead to a decreased heart rate?
A)Increased norepinephrine release
B)Increased thyroid hormone release
C)Increased potassium levels in plasma
D)Increased calcium levels in plasma
E)Increased sympathetic stimulation
Q3) The membrane that surrounds and protects the heart is called the A)pericardium.
B)pleura.
C)myocardium.
D)mediastinum.
E)endocardium.
Q4) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) What would the pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure be for an individual with a blood pressure of 120/80?
A)40;100
B)40;93.3
C)40;103.3
D)200;100
E)100;200
Q2) Which layer of the arterial wall is primarily composed of elastic and collagen fibers?
A)tunica interna
B)tunica media
C)tunica externa
D)tunica albuginea
E)tunica fascia
Q3) Identify and discuss the factors that contribute to systemic vascular resistance.
Q4) Describe the vessel wall characteristics of the five main types of blood vessels that blood travels through from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it returns to the right atrium.
Q5) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?
A)Drain excessive interstitial fluid
B)Transport dietary lipids
C)Carry out immune responses
D)All of these are functions of the lymphatic system
E)None of these are functions of the lymphatic system
Q2) Which of the following is a small hormone that can stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions?
A)Enzyme
B)Kinins
C)Cytokine
D)MHC
E)Leukocyte
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic and immune system?
A)Draining excess interstitial fluid
B)Maintaining water homeostasis in the body
C)Transporting dietary lipids
D)Carrying out immune responses
Q4) Describe how lymphatic capillaries are one-way only vessels.
Q5) Describe the ways to acquire adaptive immunity.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is the sum of the residual and the expiratory reserve volume?
A)Total lung capacity
B)Functional residual capacity
C)Inspiratory capacity
D)Vital capacity
E)Minimal volume
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects pulmonary ventilation?
A)Lung compliance
B)Suface tension of alveolar fluid
C)Elastic recoil of the chest wall and lungs
D)Airway resistance
E)All of these are factors that affect pulmonary ventilation
Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the upper respiratory system?
A)Nose
B)Oral cavity
C)Pharynx
D)Trachea
E)Nasal meatuses
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following is the forerunner of the gastrointestinal tract?
A)primitive gut
B)foregut
C)midgut
D)hindgut
E)endoderm
Q2) Which portion of the peritoneum drapes over the transverse colon and coils of the small intestine?
A)Greater omentum
B)Falciform ligament
C)Lesser omentum
D)Mesentery
E)Mesocolon
Q3) Which portion of the peritoneum attaches the liver to the anterior abdominal wall and diaphragm?
A)Greater omentum
B)Falciform ligament
C)Lesser omentum
D)Mesentery
E)Mesocolon
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Chapter 25: Metabolism
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Q1) Keto acids
A)Can enter the Krebs cycle
B)Are used for ATP production
C)Can be used to make lipids
D)Can enter Krebs or be used for ATP production
E)Convert into aldehydes in the liver
Q2) Where does the Krebs cycle take place?
A)Cytosol
B)Plasma membrane
C)Nucleus
D)Mitochondria
E)Golgi Apparatus
Q3) Glycolysis,formation of acetyl CoA,Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain are all involved in:
A)Lipogensis
B)Gluconeogenesis
C)Glucose catabolism
D)Formation of Glycogen
E)Formation of vitamin C
Q4) What is the difference between a complete protein and an incomplete protein?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Increased secretion of aldosterone would result in a(n)______________ of blood
____________?
A)increase,potassium
B)decrease,volume
C)increase,calcium levels
D)decrease,pH
E)increase,sodium
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a way angiotensin II affects the kidneys?
A)It increases GFR
B)It can decrease GFR
C)It enhances reabsorption of certain ions
D)It stimulates the release of aldosterone
E)None of these choices
Q3) These are tiny masses of material,hardened in the lumen of the urinary tubule and are flushed out when filtrate builds up behind them:
A)ketone bodies
B)erythrocytes
C)casts
D)microbes
E)urobilinogen
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Homeostasis
Unit V: Continuity
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism that maintains pH of body fluids?
A)Buffer systems
B)Proteins
C)Phosphates
D)Carbonic acid-bicarbonate
E)All of these correct
Q2) Which of the following makes up the largest single component of the human body?
A)Skin
B)Water
C)Blood
D)Organs
E)Electrolytes
Q3) 80% of the extracellular fluid is
A)Plasma
B)Cytosol
C)Interstitial fluid
D)Lymph
E)Bile
Q4) Describe the fluid and electrolyte disorders to which the elderly are particularly susceptible.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which structure is the site of sperm production?
A)Vas deferens
B)Seminiferous tubules
C)Albuginea
D)Epididymis
E)Raphe
Q2) In male embryos,which hormone is responsible for the development of the urethra,prostate,and external genitals?
A)LH
B)FSH
C)Progesterone
D)Estrogen
E)Dihydrotestosterone
Q3) How many seminiferous tubules are found in each lobule?
A)1-3
B)50-100
C)200-300
D)500 or more
E)Millions
Q4) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Q1) Which condition listed gives rise to sterile females with virtually no ovaries and limited development of secondary sex characteristics?
A)Emesis gravidarum
B)Deformation
C)Turner's syndrome
D)Breech presentation
E)Klinefelter's syndrome
Q2) Which of the following is an agent or influence that causes developmental defects in an embryo?
A)Carcinogen
B)Toxin
C)Nicotine
D)Radiation
E)Teratogen
Q3) Fertilization normally occurs within which structure?
A)Ovary
B)Fallopian tube
C)Ovarian ligament
D)Body of uterus
E)Vagina
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