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Anatomy and Physiology for Nursing provides students with a comprehensive understanding of the structure and function of the human body, focusing on the systems most relevant to patient care. This course covers the organization of the body from the cellular to the organ system level, including the musculoskeletal, cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, digestive, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis and support overall health. Throughout the course, students develop the foundational knowledge needed to assess, monitor, and support patients in clinical settings, linking physiological principles to common health issues and nursing interventions.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology 6th Edition by Valerie C. Scanlon
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5039 Verified Questions
5039 Flashcards
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of body sections (Select all that apply)?
A)A transverse section involves a horizontal plane.
B)A coronal section is the same as a frontal section.
C)A cross-section is useful for showing the internal structure of a tubular organ.
D)Right and left parts of the body are obtained with a sagittal section.
E)A midsagittal section of the body would pass through the nose and navel.
F)Anterior and posterior parts of the body are obtained with a frontal section.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E,F
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of body areas (Select all that apply)?
A)The femoral area is both dorsal and ventral.
B)The iliac area is medial to the umbilical area.
C)The most distal area of the lower limb is the femoral area.
D)The deltoid area is superior to the sacral area.
E)The axillary area is to the upper limb as the inguinal area is to the lower limb.
F)The hepatic area is superficial to the cutaneous area.
Answer: A,D,E
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Q1) The type of feedback mechanism in which the response keeps the stimulus going is called _______________________.
Answer: positive
Q2) The organ system that is a framework that supports the body is the _________________ system.
Answer: skeletal
Q3) The spinal cavity is formed by the _________________. Answer: vertebrae spine backbone
Q4) The horizontal boundary between the upper and lower abdominal quadrants is a line through the _____________________.
Answer: umbilicus
Q5) The peritoneum lines the _________________________.
Answer: abdominal cavity
Q6) The thoracic cavity is part of the larger _________________ cavity. Answer: ventral
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Q7) The thoracic cavity is lined by a membrane called the ___________________. Answer: parietal pleura
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Q1) The diaphragm separates:
A)the dorsal and ventral cavities
B)the thoracic and dorsal cavities
C)the ventral and abdominal cavities
D)the thoracic and abdominal cavities
Answer: D
Q2) The abdominal cavity contains the:
A)small intestine
B)stomach
C)gallbladder
D)all of these
Answer: D
Q3) Which of these areas is NOT on the sagittal midline of the body?
A)sacral
B)frontal
C)cervical
D)patellar
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of chemical reactions (Select all that apply)?
A)In a synthesis reaction,bonds are formed.
B)In a decomposition reaction,bonds are broken.
C)The body's chemical reactions take place in water.
D)Synthesis reactions are directly necessary for energy release from food.
E)The ionization of a molecule of sodium chloride is a synthesis reaction.
F)Digestion of food involves decomposition reactions.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of water and the body's water compartments (Select all that apply)?
A)Once water is part of plasma,it always remains part of plasma.
B)The spaces between cells contain tissue fluid.
C)Lymph is the name for the fluid in lymphatic vessels.
D)Water in veins is called plasma.
E)Intercellular water is the water within cells.
F)Intracellular water is another name for tissue fluid.
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Q1) Amino acids are the subunits of __________________________.
Q2) An atom of carbon has _________ electrons to share with other atoms.
Q3) An ionic bond is formed when atoms gain or lose _______________________.
Q4) The steroid molecule that is part of cell membranes is __________________________.
Q5) The mucus of the large intestine is an example of the _______________________ function of water.
Q6) The transport of minerals in the blood depends on the _______________________ function of water.
Q7) The lipids that form the largest part of cell membranes are the _________________________.
Q8) Carbonic acid is a _____________ acid that will only slightly _____________ pH.
Q9) The excretion of waste products in urine depends on the _______________________ function of water.
Q10) For the elements sodium and sulfur,the chemical symbols are ________ and
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Q11) Cells in the testes use cholesterol to synthesize
Q12) Two minerals that provide strength in bones are ______________________ and __________________________.
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Q1) The catalysts of cellular reactions are:
A)phospholipids
B)nucleic acids
C)hexose sugars
D)enzymes
Q2) Heat may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
A)human enzymes function only at 98.6°F
B)heat can break peptide bonds
C)water molecules are attracted to the enzyme,and denature it
D)heat can break hydrogen bonds and denature the enzyme
Q3) A cation has a:
A)positive charge
B)negative charge
C)neutral charge
D)none of these,because the charge may vary
Q4) A blood pH of 7.36 is:
A)slightly alkaline and in the normal range
B)slightly acidic and in the normal range
C)slightly alkaline and too high for the normal range
D)slightly acidic and too low for the normal range
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of mitosis and meiosis (Select all that apply)?
A)Both processes are important for the repair of tissue.
B)Both processes are important for the growth of organs and the body as a whole.
C)Only meiosis can form an ovum.
D)Sperm cells are formed by either mitosis or meiosis.
E)New red blood cells are formed by the mitosis of stem cells in the red bone marrow.
F)If the skin is cut,mitosis will repair the damage.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of solutions (Select all that apply)?
A)Any substance that dissolves in water is called a solute.
B)Compared to human cells,hypertonic solutions have a greater percentage of water.
C)Compared to human cells,hypotonic solutions have a smaller percentage of water.
D)Human cells placed in a hypotonic solution will shrivel.
E)Human cells placed in a hypertonic solution will swell and burst.
F)Blood plasma is isotonic to red blood cells.
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Q1) In mitosis,the pairs of chromatids line up on the equator of the cell during
Q2) The cell organelles that permit sperm cells to move are
Q3) The movement of molecules from an area of lesser concentration to an area of greater concentration is called ______________________________.
Q4) Within cells,the process of protein synthesis takes place on the organelles called _______________________.
Q5) Lysosomes are cell organelles that contain ____________________ to destroy pathogens or damaged cellular parts.
Q6) The presence of ____________________ in a cell membrane will increase the surface area of the membrane.
Q7) The cell organelles that are the site of protein synthesis are
Q8) The stability of cell membranes is increased by the presence of
Q9) Cells that take in small proteins by pinocytosis are found in the __________________ (organ).
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Q10) Channels in a cell membrane are made of _________________________.
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Q1) The movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of lesser concentration is called:
A)active transport
B)diffusion
C)pinocytosis
D)filtration
Q2) The process of meiosis produces ___ cells,each with the ___ number of chromosomes.
A)2/diploid
B)2/haploid
C)4/diploid
D)4/haploid
Q3) The cells of the small intestine receive oxygen by ___,absorb glucose by ___,and absorb water by ___.
A)osmosis/active transport/filtration
B)diffusion/active transport/osmosis
C)diffusion/pinocytosis/filtration
D)osmosis/facilitated diffusion/diffusion
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of skeletal and smooth muscle (Select all that apply)?
A)Skeletal muscle is attached to bone or to major blood vessels.
B)Both skeletal and smooth muscle are considered voluntary.
C)A voluntary muscle cell must receive nerve impulses in order to contract.
D)Another name for visceral muscle is striated muscle.
E)The striations of a striated muscle cell are formed by the layers of the cell membrane.
F)Smooth muscle is found in the iris of the eye and in the wall of the uterus.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the tissues of the digestive tract (Select all that apply)?
A)The salivary glands are made of areolar connective tissue.
B)Columnar epithelium forms the lining of the small intestine.
C)Goblet cells secrete enzymes in the small intestine.
D)Peristalsis of the intestines is brought about by smooth muscle.
E)Ciliated cells help sweep food through the small intestine. f.Microvilli help increase the surface area of the stomach lining.
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Q1) Preventing friction between serous membranes is the function of
Q2) Of uterus,artery,and trachea,the one NOT lined with mucous membrane is the ______________________.
Q3) The group of tissues that forms glands or covers surfaces is the ________________________ tissues.
Q4) The protein hemoglobin is found in _____________________ cells,and contains the mineral ________________________.
Q5) Fibrous connective tissue is made primarily of the protein ___________________,and its cells are called
Q6) All muscle contraction moves something; cardiac muscle contraction moves _____________.
Q7) Glands that have ducts are called ______________________ glands.
Q8) The _______________________ connective tissue between the skin and muscles contains white blood cells to destroy pathogens.
Q9) The cells of bone tissue are called _________________________,and the bone matrix is made primarily of ________________________________.
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Q10) The myelin sheath provides ____________________________ for nerve cells.
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Q1) The tissue that keeps the trachea an open airway is:
A)smooth muscle
B)cartilage
C)bone
D)ciliated epithelium
Q2) The tissue that lines the urinary bladder,in which the surface cells flatten as the bladder expands,is:
A)simple squamous epithelium
B)columnar epithelium
C)cuboidal epithelium
D)transitional epithelium
Q3) The part of a neuron that contains the nucleus and is essential for the life of the neuron is the:
A)axon
B)dendrite
C)cell body
D)myelin sheath
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the integumentary system (Select all that apply)?
A)Functions of the system include immune responses and vitamin E production.
B)An important function is to separate the internal environment from the external environment.
C)Temperature regulation involves the arterioles of the epidermis.
D)The entire dermis is living tissue.
E)The skin is an organ,because it is made of different kinds of tissues.
F)Subcutaneous tissue is between the epidermis and the muscles.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the cutaneous senses (Select all that apply)?
A)Most of the receptors are in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue.
B)The more receptors per square inch,the more sensitive the skin is.
C)Free nerve endings are only for pain.
D)Receptors for pressure and itch are encapsulated nerve endings.
E)These senses provide information about the external environment.
F)Receptors are most numerous in the skin of the palms and soles.
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Q1) In the epidermis,new cells are produced by the process of ___________________ in the ________________________________.
Q2) For the cutaneous receptors of touch and pressure,the receptors are _________________________________________.
Q3) The outermost layer of the epidermis is the ____________________________.
Q4) The new cells of the epidermis produce the protein _______________________.
Q5) The glands that secrete sebum are called _______________________________.
Q6) The ends of fingers and toes are protected from mechanical injury by ________________.
Q7) The outer layer of the skin is the _____________________,which is made of ______________________________ tissue.
Q8) In a stressful situation,the arterioles in the dermis will _______________ to allow blood to flow to the ______________________.
Q9) A cold environment stimulates ____________________________ in the dermis in order to ______________________ heat.
Q10) For the cutaneous senses of pain and heat,the receptors are _________________________. Page 17
Q11) The living part of a nail is the __________________.
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true of the cutaneous senses?
A)Most of the receptors are in the dermis of the skin.
B)Cutaneous senses provide information about changes in the external environment.
C)The receptors for pressure are encapsulated nerve endings.
D)The fingertips are very sensitive to touch because there are few receptors there.
Q2) Subcutaneous adipose tissue has all of these functions except:
A)cushioning of some bones
B)providing some insulation from cold
C)storing excess,or potential,energy
D)producing collagen fibers
Q3) The stimulus for the production of vitamin D in the skin is:
A)heat
B)friction
C)pressure
D)ultraviolet rays
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the paranasal sinuses (Select all that apply)?
A)They are lined with simple squamous epithelium that is smooth to prevent friction.
B)They are air cavities in the frontal and parietal bones.
C)If they fill with mucus,they may become painful.
D)An upper respiratory pathogen may infect these sinuses.
E)They make the skull lighter in weight.
F)They provide more air to vibrate when we speak.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of bone tissue (Select all that apply)?
A)Osteons are found only in spongy bone.
B)An osteon consists of one osteocyte surrounded by capillaries.
C)Spongy bone is found on the surfaces of flat and irregular bones.
D)Compact bone forms the diaphyses of short bones.
E)The blood vessels in compact bone come from the periosteum.
F)Osteoblasts are the cells that reabsorb excess bone during remodeling.
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Q1) The function of synovial fluid is to _______________________________.
Q2) Two vitamins necessary for the calcification process in growing bones are _____ and _____.
Q3) The heart and liver are protected from mechanical injury by the ______________________.
Q4) The mandible and temporal bone form a(n)________________________ joint.
Q5) The two pubic bones form a(n)________________________ joint.
Q6) The ribs that do not articulate with the sternum are called ______________________,and there are ________ pairs.
Q7) The skull is made lighter in weight by the presence of __________________ in some of the bones.
Q8) The air cavities in the maxillae and frontal bones are called _________________________.
Q9) Flat and irregular bones are made primarily of ____________________ bone.
Q10) The rib cage with its muscles is directly involved in the functioning of the ___________________ system.
Q12) In a child's long bones,growth occurs at the Page 21
Q11) The shoulder and hip joints are similar in that both are _______________________ joints.
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Q1) Which pair of bones directly helps to protect the brain?
A)maxilla and frontal
B)zygomatic and temporal
C)parietal and mandible
D)sphenoid and occipital
Q2) Which statement is NOT true of the paranasal sinuses?
A)They contain air.
B)They are lined with ciliated epithelium.
C)They provide resonance for the voice.
D)They make the skull heavier in weight.
Q3) The hormone that decreases the reabsorption of calcium from bones is:
A)thyroxine
B)calcitonin
C)parathyroid hormone
D)growth hormone
Q4) Paranasal sinuses are found in all of these bones except the:
A)mandible
B)maxillae
C)sphenoid
D)frontal
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of electrical changes at the sarcolemma (Select all that apply)
A)A polarized muscle fiber has more Na+ ions inside that outside.
B)Depolarization is the movement of K+ ions into the cell.
C)Repolarization is the movement of Na+ ions out of the cell.
D)A polarized muscle fiber has a positive charge inside and a negative charge outside.
E)Depolarization is a reversal of charges; the cell has a positive charge outside and a negative charge inside.
F)An action potential is depolarization followed by repolarization.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of movement (Select all that apply)?
A)The respiratory system brings oxygen into the body.
B)The skeletal system moves the muscles.
C)The circulatory system removes CO2 from the muscles.
D)The nervous system provides impulses to stimulate muscle contraction.
E)Voluntary movement is completely dependent on nerve impulses.
F)If breathing stops,lack of oxygen makes movement impossible after 20 to 30 seconds.
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Q1) The muscle on the buttock that extends the thigh is the _____________________________.
Q2) Lactic acid is produced in muscles that lack __________________,and it contributes to ____________________.
Q3) The muscle on the chest that flexes and adducts the arm is the ________________________.
Q4) The muscle group on the back of the thigh that extends the thigh is the _______________________________.
Q5) The organ system that is moved by muscles is the _______________________ system.
Q6) Exercise that involves contraction with movement is called _____________________.
Q7) The muscle on the ventral side of the trunk that flexes the vertebral column is the _____________________________.
Q8) In cell respiration,the ________________ produced contributes to body temperature.
Q9) The contraction of skeletal muscles is initiated by the __________________ lobes of the ___________________________.
Q11) The direct energy source for muscle contraction is ___________________. Page 25
Q10) During exercise,excess heat is given off as ___________________ increases.
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Q1) During muscle contraction,oxygen is brought to muscles by:
A)hemoglobin in blood plasma
B)hemoglobin in RBCs
C)myoglobin in RBCs
D)myoglobin in muscle cells
Q2) In the neuromuscular junction,the end of the motor neuron is called the:
A)synapse
B)axon terminal
C)sarcolemma
D)sarcomere
Q3) Which muscle is NOT paired with an antagonist?
A)rectus abdominis and sacrospinalis
B)pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi
C)tibialis anterior and gastrocnemius
D)semispinalis capitis and trapezius
Q4) The muscle on the lateral surface of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the:
A)deltoid
B)triceps brachii
C)biceps brachii
D)pectoralis major
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Q1) The electrical change called __________________________ takes place when a neuron receives a stimulus.
Q2) The number of pairs of spinal nerves,in order,from cervical down,is _____,_____,_____,_____,and _____.
Q3) The part of a reflex arc that detects a stimulus is the ___________________________.
Q4) The functions of cerebrospinal fluid are to ________________________ and ________________________ the central nervous system.
Q5) The __________________________ division of the autonomic nervous system dilates the bronchioles and increases heart rate.
Q6) The cranial nerve pair that is motor to the tongue is the _____________________.
Q7) The part of a reflex arc that performs the reflex is the ________________________.
Q8) The ____________________ tracts of the spinal cord carry ________________ impulses away from the brain.
Q9) Interneurons carry impulses within the ________________.
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Q10) The _________________________ division of the autonomic nervous system has its ganglia near or in the visceral effectors.
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (Select all that apply)?
A)Its other name is cervicalsacral.
B)It dominates in nonstressful situations.
C)Its neurotransmitters are acetylcholine and norepinephrine.
D)Its ganglia are near or in the visceral effectors.
E)It promotes normal urination and defecation.
F)It constricts the pupils of the eyes.
G)It causes vasodilation in skeletal muscles.
H)It slows digestion to conserve energy.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the nervous system (Select all that apply)?
A)The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord.
B)Movement and sensation are functions of this system.
C)The nervous system regulates body functions by means of electrochemical impulses.
D)Only the brain is protected by bone.
E)The autonomic nervous system is a special subdivision of the CNS.
F)The PNS consists of cranial nerves and spinal nerves.
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Q1) Which cranial nerve pair is NOT paired with its correct function?
A)vagus - decreases heart rate
B)accessory - moves the tongue
C)optic - vision
D)trigeminal - sensory to the face
Q2) The layer of the meninges that has villi for the reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid is the:
A)dura mater
B)arachnoid membrane
C)pia mater
D)choroid plexus
Q3) The cranial nerve pair that is sensory for hearing is the:
A)trigeminal
B)acoustic
C)abducens
D)accessory
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of arterial receptors (Select all that apply)?
A)Pressoreceptors detect changes in blood pressure.
B)These receptors are found in the carotid arteries,which are within the brain.
C)These receptors are also in the aortic arch,which is in the thoracic cavity.
D)Arterial chemoreceptors detect changes in nutrient levels in the blood.
E)The information from these receptors is used to make changes in breathing and heart rate.
F)The cranial nerves that are sensory are the facial and glossopharyngeal.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of muscle sense (Select all that apply)?
A)The receptors detect the contraction of muscles.
B)The brain forms a mental picture of where the muscles are.
C)Conscious muscle sense is integrated in the cerebellum.
D)Unconscious muscle sense contributes to the coordination of voluntary movements.
E)Muscle sense may be conscious when learning a motor skill,and then become unconscious when the skill is mastered.
F)The receptors are called proprioceptors.
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Q1) The cranial nerve pair concerned with equilibrium is the _______________________.
Q2) For the sense of thirst,receptors are located in the _________________________,and the sensation is projected to the ________________________.
Q3) The ganglion neurons of the retina form the _______________________.
Q4) The layer of the eyeball that forms the white of the eye is the _____________________.
Q5) The sensory areas for the cutaneous senses are in the ____________________ lobes.
Q6) The only part of the eye that adjusts to focus light rays is the ________________________.
Q7) The cutaneous receptors for pain,itch,heat,and cold are ______________________ endings.
Q8) The photoreceptors in the retina are the _______________ and _________________.
Q9) The receptors that detect motion are located in the ______________________ of the inner ear.
Q10) The part of a sensory pathway that feels and interprets the sensation is the __________________________. Page 32
Q11) Tears contain _________________________ to inhibit the growth of bacteria.
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Q1) The part of the eye that contracts to change the shape of the lens is the:
A)iris
B)cornea
C)ciliary muscle
D)optic nerve
Q2) The aqueous humor of the eye:
A)is found in the posterior cavity
B)nourishes the lens and cornea
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and is a stationary fluid
Q3) The hair cells in the semicircular canals of the ear bend in response to:
A)sound waves
B)motion
C)electrical energy
D)vibrations from the cochlea
Q4) The lobes of the cerebrum that contain the visual areas are the:
A)frontal
B)parietal
C)temporal
D)occipital

Page 34
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)and oxytocin (Select all that apply)?
A)Both of these hormones are produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the anterior pituitary gland.
B)ADH may also be called vasopressin because in large amounts it causes vasoconstriction.
C)Oxytocin inhibits contractions of the uterus to prevent premature labor.
D)After birth,oxytocin causes release of milk from the mammary glands.
E)ADH causes the kidneys to reabsorb more water to increase urinary output.
F)The stimulus for secretion of ADH is any decrease in body water.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of cortisol (Select all that apply)?
A)It is secreted by the adrenal medulla.
B)It limits the damage that the process of inflammation can cause.
C)Hunger or physical injury will increase secretion of cortisol.
D)It stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver.
E)It stimulates protein synthesis in muscles for "fight or flight."
F)It helps raise blood pressure and lower heart rate.
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Q1) The direct stimulus for secretion of PTH is _____________________________.
Q2) The direct stimulus for secretion of calcitonin is _________________________.
Q3) The endocrine glands that have two distinct parts are the __________________________ and the _______________________________.
Q4) The site of action of prostaglandins is usually ____________________________.
Q5) Two hormones that increase the rate of protein synthesis in cells are _________________ and _________________________.
Q6) The hormone ______________________ has an anti-inflammatory effect because it stabilizes the _________________________ within cells.
Q7) The hormone that causes contractions of the uterus is ______________________,which is secreted by the ____________________________ gland.
Q8) When blood pressure decreases,secretion of aldosterone is stimulated by the ________________________________ mechanism.
Q9) The hormones necessary for growth of the endometrium are _____________________ and _________________________.
Q10) The direct stimulus for secretion of epinephrine is _______________________________. Page 36
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true of the functions of insulin and glucagon?
A)Insulin enables cells to take in glucose from the blood to use for energy production.
B)Glucagon increases the conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates to be used for energy production.
C)Insulin enables cells to take in fatty acids and amino acids for synthesis reactions.
D)Glucagon decreases the use of fats for energy,since this is not important between meals.
Q2) Which hormone is NOT paired with its correct stimulus for secretion?
A)insulin - hyperglycemia
B)glucagon - hyperglycemia
C)PTH - hypocalcemia
D)calcitonin - hypercalcemia
Q3) The hormone that causes ovulation is:
A)GH
B)LH
C)FSH
D)ACTH
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of CBC values (Select all that apply)?
A)An RBC count of 4.0 million/µL is in the normal range.
B)A WBC count of 9500/µL is considered high normal.
C)A platelet count of 100,000/µL is considered low normal.
D)A hematocrit of 40% is within the normal range.
E)A hemoglobin level of 17 grams/100 mL is considered high normal.
F)An RBC count of 6.0 million/µL is considered high normal.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of blood disorders (Select all that apply)?
A)Thrombocytopenia is a deficiency of platelets,and may lead to bleeding episodes.
B)Leukemia is an excess of WBCs,but the WBCs are not functional.
C)Anemia is a deficiency of RBCs or of hemoglobin.
D)A deficiency of WBCs is leukocytosis.
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Q1) If less carbon dioxide is carried by the blood,the pH of the blood will
Q2) The kind of WBC that recognizes foreign antigens is the ____________________________.
Q3) Old RBCs are phagocytized by cells called ________________________,which are located in the _________________,___________________,and
Q4) An abnormal clot that forms within a vessel is called a(n)__________________________.
Q5) The most numerous WBCs are the ________________________,and the second most numerous are the __________________________.
Q6) The kind of WBC that differentiates into a macrophage is the ________________________.
Q7) A count of 8600 cells per microliter of blood is within the normal range for __________________.
Q8) The term for a low platelet count is _________________________.
Q9) A newly formed clot is made smaller by the process of ____________________________.
Q10) The vitamin necessary for chemical clotting is ________________.
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Q1) A hematocrit is a laboratory test that is a measure of:
A)an RBC count
B)a WBC count
C)the types of WBCs present
D)the percent of RBCs in the blood
Q2) When old RBCs are destroyed,the iron may be stored by the:
A)liver
B)red bone marrow
C)spleen
D)lymph nodes
Q3) The term for an abnormal clot that forms in a vessel is:
A)platelet plug
B)thrombus
C)thrombocytosis
D)embolism
Q4) Which pH is NOT in the normal range for blood?
A)7.40
B)7.30
C)7.37
D)7.39
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Q1)
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the great vessels of the heart (Select all that apply)?
A)The pulmonary artery takes blood from the left ventricle to the lungs.
B)The superior vena cava returns blood from the upper body to the right atrium.
C)The inferior vena cava returns blood from the lower body to the left atrium.
D)The aorta takes blood from the right ventricle to the body.
E)The pulmonary veins return oxygenated blood from the lungs to both atria.
F)There are two caval veins and four pulmonary veins.
Q3) Which of the following statements are true of the cardiac conduction pathway (Select all that apply)?
A)The electrical events along the pathway are triggered by the mechanical events of the chambers.
B)The AV node depolarizes most rapidly.
C)The heart's natural pacemaker is the SA node.
D)The right and left bundle branches are in the interatrial septum.
E)Purkinje fibers are in the walls of the ventricles.
F)The AV bundle (of His)has a slower natural rate of contraction than does the AV node.
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Q1) Impulses carried by the vagus nerves to the heart will __________________ the heart rate.
Q2) For the myocardium,the most important substance in the blood is ____________________.
Q3) The sensory nerves for the carotid sinus and body are the _____________________ nerves.
Q4) In the cardiac cycle,the most important pumping of blood occurs from the ________________________ to the ________________________.
Q5) The heart is a double pump: the left side of the heart receives blood from the ______________ and pumps it to the ________________.
Q6) The _________________________ returns blood from the lower body to the right atrium.
Q7) A certain level of cardiac output is needed at all times to maintain a normal ____________________ and to deliver sufficient ____________________ to all tissues.
Q8) The pulmonary artery takes blood from the ___________ ventricle to the ______________.
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Q1) In the cardiac cycle,which statement is true of blood flow from the atria to the ventricles?
A)All blood flows passively.
B)Most blood flows passively.
C)Most blood is actively pumped.
D)All blood is actively pumped.
Q2) As the heart beats,friction between the pericardial membranes is prevented by:
A)serous fluid
B)plasma
C)mucus
D)endocardial fluid
Q3) The outer layer of the pericardial membranes is the:
A)parietal pericardium
B)fibrous pericardium
C)endocardium
D)visceral pericardium
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the nervous regulation of blood pressure (BP)(Select all that apply)?
A)The vasomotor center is in the hypothalamus of the brain.
B)Pressoreceptors throughout the length of the aorta detect changes in BP.
C)The vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves are sensory for BP changes.
D)Increased vasoconstriction,to raise BP,is brought about by an increase in sympathetic impulses to the walls of arteries.
E)Nervous regulation of BP is a negative feedback mechanism.
F)If BP is high and must be brought back to normal,heart rate will decrease and vasodilation will occur.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the locations of arteries and veins (Select all that apply)?
A)The femoral artery and vein are in the thigh.
B)The common iliac veins empty into the superior vena cava.
C)The celiac artery branches into the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries.
D)The right and left common carotid arteries are branches of the ascending aorta.
E)The jugular veins drain blood from the shoulders and arms.
F)The renal arteries are branches of the thoracic aorta.
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Q1) The _____________________ of the brain regulates the diameter of arteries and veins,and has a _______________________ area and a ______________________ area.
Q2) In capillaries,the process of filtration depends on _________________________.
Q3) Smooth muscle tissue forms the _______________________ layer of an artery,and its function is to ___________________________.
Q4) The outer layer of the wall of a vein is thin because ________________________ in veins is low.
Q5) When venous return increases,the heart contracts more forcefully; this is called __________________________.
Q6) Capillaries are made of _______________________ tissue,and its important characteristic is its ____________________________.
Q7) A venous anastomosis provides an alternate pathway for blood to flow back to the __________________.
Q8) In fetal circulation,the umbilical arteries carry blood from the __________________ to the ____________________________.
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Q9) The _____________________ of the brain regulates the diameter of arteries and veins.

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Q1) Which artery is NOT paired with the part of the body to which it supplies blood?
A)superior mesenteric - spleen
B)bronchial - bronchial tubes
C)gastric - stomach
D)hepatic - liver
Q2) The function of valves in veins is to:
A)help pump blood
B)keep the blood moving
C)prevent blood from flowing too fast
D)prevent backflow of blood
Q3) In capillaries,waste products dissolved in tissue fluid are returned to the blood by the process of:
A)diffusion
B)osmosis
C)filtration
D)phagocytosis
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of adaptive immunity (Select all that apply)?
A)Antibody production is characteristic of both antibody-mediated and cell-mediated immunity.
B)Opsonization is a reaction of cell-mediated immunity that attracts macrophages.
C)Memory B cells provide the memory of a pathogen in cell-mediated immunity.
D)Helper T cells help out with phagocytosis.
E)Cytotoxic T cells destroy cellular antigens by producing toxic chemicals.
F)Complement fixation is triggered by antigen-antibody complexes.
G)Helper T cells work with macrophages in the recognition of foreign antigens.
H)Antibodies are proteins produced by plasma cells that have differentiated from B cells.
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Q1) In innate immunity,the signs of inflammation are pain,redness,___________________,and _________________________.
Q2) The cisterna chyli collects lymph from the ____________________________.
Q3) The component of immunity that may become more efficient with repeated exposures is _____________________ immunity.
Q4) Tissue fluid is made from __________________ by the process of ______________________.
Q5) In adaptive immunity,the labeling of a foreign antigen by antibodies is called _______________________,and it results in ________________________ of the antigen.
Q6) An antibody molecule is made of _______________ and is shaped like a(n)___________.
Q7) Recovery from a disease provides ____________________ acquired ___________________ immunity.
Q8) In innate immunity,the purpose of inflammation is to destroy _____________________ and to permit ___________________________ to begin.
Q10) Lymphatic tissue is the site of ________________________ of lymphocytes. Page 49
Q9) A vaccine may contain a(n)______________________ or a(n)_______________________ as an antigen.
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true of antibody-mediated immunity?
A)Some B cells become plasma cells that produce antibodies.
B)Antibodies label the specific foreign antigen for phagocytosis by macrophages.
C)Some B cells become memory B cells.
D)The antigen is recognized as foreign by helper B cells and helper T cells.
Q2) Which class of antibodies is able to cross the placenta?
A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgE
D)IgM
Q3) Which statement is true of the mechanism of cell-mediated immunity?
A)Complement fixation is activated.
B)Opsonization takes place.
C)Memory B cells remember the specific foreign antigen.
D)Cytotoxic T cells destroy a specific foreign antigen.
Q4) An example of naturally acquired passive immunity is:
A)placental transmission of antibodies
B)transmission of antibodies in breast milk
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and immunity from an asymptomatic infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the larynx and trachea (Select all that apply)?
A)The thyroid cartilage can be felt on the front of the neck.
B)The trachea is lined with ciliated epithelium; the cilia sweep upward.
C)The vocal cords usually vibrate during exhalation.
D)The epiglottis is the most inferior cartilage of the larynx,to prevent swallowed food from entering the trachea.
E)A series of D-shaped cartilages keeps the trachea open.
F)Irritation of the mucosa of the larynx stimulates a cough reflex.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of O<sub>2</sub> and CO<sub>2</sub> transport in the blood (Select all that apply)?
A)Most CO<sub>2</sub> is carried in the blood as bicarbonate ions.
B)Most oxygen is carried by the iron in blood plasma.
C)As the pH of tissues decreases,more oxygen is released from hemoglobin.
D)Increased CO<sub>2</sub> in the blood makes the blood pH more alkaline.
E)As the temperature of tissues increases,less oxygen is released from hemoglobin.
F)Too much CO<sub>2</sub> in the blood results in hypoxia.
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Q1) The CNS respiratory centers are located in the ___________________ and __________________.
Q2) In internal respiration,oxygen diffuses from the _______________________ to the ________________________.
Q3) Hypoxia is a stimulus for the breathing rate to _______________________ in order to __________________________.
Q4) To compensate for a metabolic alkalosis,the respiratory rate will __________________ in order to ____________________ more carbon dioxide.
Q5) In external respiration,the PO? in the alveoli is ________________,and the PO? in the surrounding blood is ________________.
Q6) The part of the pharynx that is an air passageway only is the
Q7) The diaphragm contracts during ________________________ and relaxes during __________________________.
Q8) The apneustic and pneumotaxic centers are located in the ___________________ of the brain.
Q9) During exhalation,intrapulmonic pressure _______________________,and air moves ________________ the lungs.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemoglobin will release oxygen where the:
A)PO<sub>2</sub> is low
B)PCO<sub>2</sub> is low
C)temperature is low
D)all of these
Q2) The parietal pleura is found:
A)covering the chest cavity
B)lining the chest cavity
C)covering the lungs
D)lining the lungs
Q3) The internal intercostal muscles are important for a:
A)normal exhalation
B)normal inhalation
C)forced exhalation
D)deep inhalation
Q4) The cause of respiratory acidosis is:
A)accumulating oxygen
B)not enough oxygen
C)accumulating carbon dioxide
D)not enough carbon dioxide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the digestive processes (Select all that apply)?
A)Chewing and the churning of the stomach are the only forms of mechanical digestion.
B)Chemical digestion requires enzymes,each of which is specific for one type of food.
C)An enzyme that requires a pH of 2 usually will not work at a pH of 8.
D)Mechanical digestion is helpful because it increases the surface area of food for enzymes to function efficiently.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the stomach (Select all that apply)?
A)Parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid and the intrinsic factor.
B)The hormone gastrin decreases gastric motility.
C)Pepsin begins the chemical digestion of proteins.
D)The external muscle layer has only the typical circular and longitudinal layers.
E)The pyloric sphincter prevents backup of stomach contents into the esophagus.
F)Parasympathetic impulses carried by the vagus nerves increase the motility of the stomach.
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Q1) The surface area of the small intestine is increased by folds of the cell membranes of the surface cells called _______________________________.
Q2) The part of gastric juice that protects the stomach lining is
Q3) The common bile duct opens into the _________________________ of the small intestine.
Q4) The liver synthesizes the nonessential amino acids by the process of _____________________.
Q5) The actions of pepsin and lipase are examples of _______________________ digestion.
Q6) Backup of food from the stomach to the esophagus is prevented by the __________________________.
Q7) The colon absorbs a great deal of _______________,and also absorbs _______________ and __________________________.
Q8) Proteins are digested by enzymes from the __________________,____________________,and

Q9) In gastric juice,pepsin is activated by __________________________.
Q10) The _______________________ in saliva digests starch to maltose.
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Q1) The part of gastric juice that protects the stomach lining is:
A)water
B)mucus
C)pepsin
D)gastrin
Q2) The function of the enteric nervous system is to regulate:
A)the secretions and contractions of the alimentary tube
B)only the secretions of the entire digestive system
C)only the contractions of the alimentary tube
D)the secretions and contractions of the entire digestive system
Q3) Carbohydrates are digested by enzymes from the:
A)salivary glands,pancreas,and small intestine
B)stomach,pancreas,and small intestine
C)stomach and liver
D)salivary glands,stomach,and pancreas
Q4) The purpose of chemical digestion is to:
A)change complex food molecules into simpler ones
B)change simple food molecules into complex ones
C)use food for energy production
D)break food into smaller pieces with more surface area
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of metabolism (Select all that apply)?
A)Catabolic reactions are synthesis or building reactions.
B)Energy production can be measured as heat production,which is measured in kilocalories.
C)An infant has a higher metabolic rate than does an adult,because the infant is much younger.
D)Muscle tissue has a lower metabolic rate than does adipose tissue.
E)Anabolic reactions include the stages of cell respiration.
F)Basal metabolic rate is the energy production of the body at rest.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the stages of cell respiration (Select all that apply)?
A)Glycolysis takes place in the mitochondria.
B)The enzymes for the Krebs citric acid cycle are in the cytoplasm of the cell.
C)The cytochromes of the electron transport system are in the mitochondria.
D)Oxygen is required for the Krebs cycle,but not for glycolysis.
E)Oxygen is required for the electron transport chain,but not for the Krebs cycle.
F)Oxygen is required for the Krebs cycle but not for the electron transport chain or for glycolysis.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypothalamus is the thermostat of the body because it balances the _______________________ responses and the _______________________ responses.
Q2) The collective term for all of the decomposition reactions within the body is ____________________.
Q3) Within a 24-hour period,body temperature usually fluctuates ______ to _____ degrees Fahrenheit,and is lowest during _____________.
Q4) In cell respiration,the minerals __________________ and ___________________ are part of some cytochromes.
Q5) A fever-causing substance that is produced by the person's own cells is called a(n)__________________________.
Q6) The term for the total heat production by the body is _______________________.
Q7) The hormone _____________________ is most important for day-to-day regulation of cell respiration and heat production.
Q8) Much of the body's heat is produced by active organs,especially the _____________________ and the _____________________.
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Q9) In cell respiration,some ATP is formed during ___________________________ (stage).

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Q1) The essential fatty acids are those that:
A)cannot be synthesized by the liver
B)are needed to synthesize cholesterol
C)are needed to enable fats to be stored for energy
D)must be synthesized by the liver
Q2) In the cell respiration of glucose,pyruvic acid is formed during which stage?
A)glycolysis
B)the Krebs cycle
C)the cytochrome transport system
D)all three stages
Q3) The mineral phosphorus is necessary as part of:
A)DNA
B)ATP
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and RNA
Q4) Vasodilation in the dermis will:
A)increase the loss of body heat by radiation
B)decrease the loss of body heat by sweating
C)increase the loss of body heat by sweating
D)decrease the loss of body heat by radiation
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the locations of the organs of the urinary system (Select all that apply)?
A)Each ureter extends from the real cortex to the urinary bladder.
B)The urethra in men is posterior to the rectum.
C)The kidneys are lateral to the backbone and anterior to the peritoneum.
D)The urinary bladder is behind the pubic bones.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of hormone effects on the kidneys (Select all that apply)?
A)ADH increases the reabsorption of water,but has no effect on sodium.
B)Parathyroid hormone increases the secretion of calcium ions into the renal filtrate.
C)ANP increases the secretion of potassium ions into the renal filtrate.
D)Aldosterone indirectly increases the reabsorption of water because it directly increases the reabsorption of sodium ions.
E)The hormones that help preserve blood volume and raise blood pressure are ADH and aldosterone.
F)Aldosterone increases the secretion of potassium ions into the renal filtrate.
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Q1) The renal artery is a branch of the _______________________.
Q2) A state of hypoxia will cause the kidneys to secrete ___________________________,which will increase the rate of
Q3) In the kidneys,the hormone that increases the reabsorption of sodium ions and water is ___________________________.
Q4) The two sets of capillaries in the kidneys are the __________________________ and the ________________________,and filtration takes place in the ________________________.
Q5) The cavity on the medial side of a kidney is called the ___________________________.
Q6) The normal pH range of urine is ____________ to ______________.
Q7) The kidneys secrete erythropoietin during a state of _______________________.
Q8) Compared to blood or tissue fluid,urine is ____________tonic,which means it has a _______________________ concentration of dissolved materials.
Q9) The functions of angiotensin II are to cause ________________________ and to increase the secretion of __________________________.
62
Q10) In tubular reabsorption,vitamins are reabsorbed by the process of
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Q1) The effect of aldosterone on the kidneys is to:
A)increase the reabsorption of water only
B)increase the reabsorption of sodium ions and water
C)decrease the reabsorption of water only
D)decrease the reabsorption of sodium ions and water
Q2) The part of the CNS that controls the external urethral sphincter is the:
A)medulla
B)hypothalamus
C)spinal cord
D)cerebrum
Q3) The enzyme renin is produced by the ___ of the kidney.
A)cortex cells
B)juxtaglomerular cells
C)podocytes
D)medulla cells
Q4) In the kidney,the calyces are part of the:
A)renal cortex
B)renal medulla
C)renal fascia
D)renal pelvis

64
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of fluid volume and hormones (Select all that apply)?
A)Increased secretion of ADH will help prevent the loss of body fluid.
B)Aldosterone increases the excretion of sodium ions and the retention of potassium ions and water.
C)ANP increases the retention of sodium ions and has no effect on potassium ions.
D)Dehydration (any form or cause)will stimulate secretion of ADH.
E)An increase in BP stimulates secretion of aldosterone by way of the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
F)The kidneys are target organs of ADH,ANP,and aldosterone.
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Q1) The body fluids in which proteins are significant organic anions are __________________ and __________________________.
Q2) The electrolyte that is essential for blood clotting is ________________________.
Q3) In plasma and tissue fluid,____________________ are significant organic anions.
Q4) Osmosis can be simply defined as the ________________________ of water.
Q5) An amino acid acts as an acid in body fluids when the _____________________ group gives off a
Q6) The electrolyte that is part of ATP is __________________________.
Q7) The pH-regulating mechanism that has the greatest capacity to buffer an ongoing pH imbalance is the _________________________.
Q8) The bicarbonate buffer system will buffer a strong base by forming a(n)____________________ and _______________________.
Q9) The specialized fluid _________________________ is a shock absorber for the central nervous system.
Q11) By the process of filtration,blood plasma becomes Page 66
Q10) The concentration of dissolved substances in a solution is called
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Q1) The bicarbonate buffer system will buffer a strong base by forming:
A)a weak acid and a salt
B)a weak base and a salt
C)a weak acid and water
D)a weak base and water
Q2) The hormone that increases reabsorption of water by the kidneys following reabsorption of sodium ions is:
A)PTH
B)ANP
C)ADH
D)aldosterone
Q3) The part of the brain that regulates the water content of the body is the ___,because it has ___.
A)medulla/the swallowing center
B)hypothalamus/wet receptors
C)cerebrum/awareness of thirst
D)hypothalamus/osmoreceptors
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the reproductive hormones (Select all that apply)?
A)In men,LH stimulates meiosis in the testes.
B)In women,LH stimulates the release of a mature ovum from an ovarian follicle.
C)In women,both FSH and estrogen contribute to the growth and maturation of an ovarian follicle.
D)In both men and women,inhibin directly inhibits the secretion of testosterone and estrogen,respectively.
E)In women,the secretion of progesterone is stimulated by FSh.
F)In men,both FSH and testosterone contribute to the growth and maturation of sperm.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of sperm (Select all that apply)?
A)The chromosomes are with the mitochondria because they require ATP in order to divide.
B)The flagellum provides for movement,and is most efficient in a moderately acidic environment.
C)The acrosome contains enzymes to digest the membrane of an ovum.
D)Millions of sperm are contained in 1 mL of semen.
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Q1) The cervix of the uterus opens into the _________________________.
Q2) In the testes,the hormone that promotes maturation of sperm is ______________________.
Q3) The male reproductive gland with smooth muscle that contributes to ejaculation is the _________________________________.
Q4) The function of the flagellum of a sperm cell is _________________________.
Q5) In spermatogenesis,the hormones that are directly necessary for normal sperm production are _____________________ and _____________________.
Q6) The two tissues of a fallopian tube that propel the ovum (or zygote)toward the uterus are ____________________________ and _____________________________.
Q7) The hormone that promotes the growth of the corpus luteum from the ruptured ovarian follicle is _______________________.
Q8) The uterus is _____________________ to the urinary bladder.
Q9) A sperm cell contains ______________ (number of)chromosomes,which are found in the ______________________.
Q10) Human milk contains the carbohydrate ___________________ as a nutrient.
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Q11) An ovary is enclosed by the ___________________ of a fallopian tube.
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Q1) With respect to the mammary glands,___ stimulates growth of the ducts,and ___ stimulates growth of the secretory cells.
A)progesterone/estrogen
B)progesterone/prolactin
C)estrogen/prolactin
D)estrogen/progesterone
Q2) In the menstrual cycle,as secretion of progesterone decreases:
A)the myometrium will not contract
B)the cervix of the uterus dilates
C)the endometrium continues to grow
D)the endometrium begins to slough off
Q3) For men,the hormone that decreases the secretion of FSH is:
A)GnRH
B)testosterone
C)LH
D)inhibin
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of dominant-recessive inheritance (Select all that apply)?
A)A heterozygous offspring will have the dominant characteristic in the phenotype.
B)A homozygous offspring will have the recessive characteristic in the phenotype.
C)If a recessive trait does not appear in a family for two generations,the gene for it is no longer present.
D)If Mom and Dad both have blue eyes,the chance for a child of theirs to have brown eyes is only 50%.
E)If Mom and Dad both have brown eyes,the chance for a child of theirs to have blue eyes is 50%.
F)A trait is considered dominant when it is more common (frequent)in a population than its recessive counterpart.
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Q1) A person has two genes for each genetic trait,and these genes are called __________________ and _____________________.
Q2) During an average gestation period,the period of embryonic growth lasts __________ weeks and the period of fetal growth lasts _____________ weeks.
Q3) For people,having dimples is dominant and having no dimples is recessive. Genetics problem: Mom has no dimples and Dad is homozygous for dimples.The percent chance that a child of theirs will have dimples is _________________.
Q4) In the embryo,the liver and lungs are derived from the _______________________.
Q5) The part of a blastocyst that secretes enzymes to permit implantation is the ____________________.
Q6) Homologous chromosomes are a pair of chromosomes that may also be called ______________________ and ___________________.
Q7) A few moments after birth,the baby's ______________________ system begins functioning because the _____________________ have inflated.
Q8) The umbilical vein carries blood from the _____________________ to the ____________________________.
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Q9) The genes for sex-linked traits are found on the _______________ chromosome.

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Q1) For the embryo,the chorion:
A)contains fluid and absorbs shock
B)forms the first cells of the immune system
C)forms the fetal portion of the placenta
D)all of these
Q2) The placental hormones that inhibit ovulation during pregnancy are:
A)FSH and hCG
B)LH and progesterone
C)estrogen and hCG
D)estrogen and progesterone
Q3) A person who is heterozygous for a particular trait has:
A)an extra gene (allele)
B)two similar genes (alleles)
C)only one gene (allele)
D)two different genes (alleles)
Q4) For the embryo,the yolk sac:
A)provides a cushion
B)forms the first blood cells
C)provides nourishment
D)forms the fetal portion of the placenta
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Q1) The time between the entry of a pathogen and the beginning of symptoms is called the:
A)dormant stage
B)noncommunicable stage
C)incubation period
D)outcubation period
Q2) A portal of exit may be:
A)the nose
B)the mouth
C)skin punctured by a mosquito
D)all of these
Q3) Bacteria capable of self-locomotion have:
A)cilia
B)flagella
C)false feet,like amoebas
D)microvilli
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Q1) A(n)_______________________ antibiotic is considered effective against many kinds of bacteria.
Q2) Spherical bacteria that grow in pairs are called ____________________________.
Q3) Spherical bacteria that grow in clusters are called _____________________________.
Q4) A superficial mycosis is a(n)___________________ infection of the _________________ or the ___________________________.
Q5) The respiratory tract limits the intake of airborne pathogens because of its _________________ epithelium.
Q6) An infection that is caused by the patient's own flora in an abnormal site is called a(n)____________________________ infection.
Q7) Intestinal pathogens are usually spread by the ___________________________ route.
Q8) Fomites are ____________________________ that may be sources of pathogens.
Q9) An endogenous infection is one that is caused by the
Q10) A zoonosis is a disease that _______________________________.
Q11) Bacteria that require oxygen to reproduce are called _______________________.
Q12) A nosocomial infection is one that is acquired ________________________________.
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of infections and disease (Select all that apply)?
A)An endogenous infection is one that is acquired in a hospital or other institution.
B)A person who has recovered from a disease but remains a source of the pathogen is considered a carrier.
C)When influenza is followed by bacterial pneumonia,the pneumonia is considered a secondary infection.
D)A zoonosis is a disease that affects only wild animals.
E)The "AIDS epidemic" is really the "AIDS pandemic."
F)Septicemia is a systemic infection,and is always serious.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of viruses (Select all that apply)?
A)A virus has either DNA or RNA surrounding its protein core.
B)To reproduce,a virus must be within a living cell.
C)Viruses spread from person to person only by direct contact.
D)Viruses cause disease by killing the cells they reproduce within.
E)The enzymes secreted by viruses are needed for them to obtain food.
F)Some viruses require insect vectors to spread from host to host.
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