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Anatomy and Physiology for Health Sciences Textbook Exam Questions - 3446 Verified Questions

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Anatomy and Physiology for Health Sciences

Textbook Exam Questions

Course Introduction

This course provides an in-depth exploration of human anatomy and physiology with a focus on concepts relevant to health sciences. Students will study the structure and function of major body systems, including the musculoskeletal, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, endocrine, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the integration and regulation of physiological processes, the bodys response to disease, and the application of foundational concepts to clinical and healthcare settings. Laboratory sessions complement lectures by offering hands-on opportunities to investigate anatomical structures and physiological functions, preparing students for further study and professional roles in health-related fields.

Recommended Textbook

Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N.

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29 Chapters

3446 Verified Questions

3446 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?

A) spinal cord

B) cranial cavity

C) thoracic cavity

D) vertebral cavity

Answer: C

Q2) What is a vertical section through the body,dividing it into left and right,called?

A) frontal

B) transverse

C) regional

D) sagittal

Answer: D

Q3) What does the "principle of complementarity of structures and function" mean?

Answer: What a structure can do depends on its specific form,or "structure determines function."

Q4) Which body system would be most affected by a lower than normal atmospheric pressure?

Answer: respiratory system

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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive

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Sample Questions

Q1) Salivary amylase is an enzyme produced by the salivary glands that breaks down carbohydrates.What will happen to this enzyme as it follows the food into the stomach where the pH drops to 2.5?

A) The enzyme will assume an alternate form and catalyze additional reactions.

B) The enzyme will denature and become inactive.

C) The enzyme will continue to function as it remains unchanged in chemical reactions.

D) The enzyme will denature but retain its function.

Answer: B

Q2) Explain why chemical reactions in the body are often irreversible.

Answer: Chemical reactions that release energy cannot be reversed unless energy is put back into the system.Also,some reactions produce molecules in excessive quantities (like CO<sub>2</sub> and NH<sub>4</sub>)that the body then eliminates,but which are needed to reverse a reaction.

Q3) A charged particle is generally called an ion or electrolyte.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following structures would aid a cell in allowing more nutrients to be absorbed by the cell?

A) stereocilia

B) flagella

C) primary cilia

D) microvilli

Answer: D

Q2) Myocardium (cardiac muscle tissue)must rhythmically contract for a lifetime.This requires a considerable amount of energy production by the cells.You would expect to see a relatively high amount of which organelle in these cells?

A) cytoskeleton

B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

C) mitochondria

D) lysosomes

Answer: C

Q3) Aerobic cellular respiration occurs in the ________.

Answer: mitochondria

Q4) The most common extracellular ion is ________.

Answer: sodium

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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric

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Sample Questions

Q1) Without macrophages,wound healing is delayed.Why?

Q2) Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?

A) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.

B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion.

C) These glands are ductless.

D) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.

Q3) Depending on the functional state of the bladder,transitional epithelium may resemble stratified squamous or stratified cuboidal epithelium.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Found lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.

A)Mucous membrane

B)Serous membrane

C)Cutaneous

D)Endothelium

Q5) Blood is considered a type of connective tissue.

A)True

B)False

Q6) How is blood unique among connective tissues?

Page 6

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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Responsible for shock absorption and located in the hypodermis.

A)A B)E C)C

D)D

E)B

Q2) What is the function of skin dermal folds and deep skin creases?

Q3) Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch?

A) Pacinian corpuscle

B) Ruffini body

C) free nerve ending

D) tactile corpuscle

Q4) Cradle cap in infants is called ________.

Q5) Which of the following cells and their functions are correctly matched?

A) melanocytes protects cells in the stratum corneum from damaging effects of sun's rays

B) keratinocytes provide sense of touch and pressure

C) dendritic cells activate the immune system

D) tactile cells protection

Q6) What are vellus hairs?

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) Cranial bones develop ________.

A) from a tendon

B) within osseous membranes

C) within fibrous membranes

D) from cartilage models

Q2) An osteon contains osteocytes,lamellae,and a central canal,and is found in compact bone only.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Explain why swimming is not generally recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis.

Q4) The lining of the marrow cavity.

A)Lamellae

B)Osteoblasts

C)Endosteum

D)Canaliculi

E)Osteoclasts

Q5) Cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 7: The Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the purpose of the vertebral curvatures?

Q2) The ________ is the bone confined to the septum of the nose.

Q3) Which of the following can be considered a function of the paranasal sinuses?

A) The paranasal sinuses are passageways for nerves to pass through.

B) Sinuses have rough patches that aid in muscle attachment.

C) Sinuses are often referred to as vestigial, anatomical features with no know function.

D) Sinuses take away a minimal amount of strength from bones while reducing the weight of bones.

Q4) What is the major function of the axial skeleton?

A) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs

B) provide a space for the major digestive organs

C) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement

D) give the body resilience

Q5) The smallest short bone in the hand is the ________.

Q6) The most common site of fracture in the humerus is the anatomical neck.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Describe the composition of the intervertebral discs.

Q8) What is the function of the lumbar curvature?

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Chapter 8: Joints

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Sample Questions

Q1) Briefly describe the structure of a typical synovial joint.

Q2) How can osteoarthritis be treated?

Q3) Articular cartilage.

A)A

B)C

C)D

D)E

E)B

Q4) Which of the following statements defines synchondroses?

A) joints that permit angular movements

B) interphalangeal joints

C) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility

D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

Q5) Joint 1.

A)pivot

B)saddle

C)hinge

D)condyloid

E)ball and socket

F)plane

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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?

A) a myofibril

B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum

C) a sarcomere

D) a myofilament

Q2) Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber's volume are the myofibrils.This characteristic reflects muscles ability to ________.

A) store oxygen molecules that can be used in aerobic respiration

B) produce relatively high amounts of ATP

C) produce movement through contractile force

D) generate and propagate action potential

Q3) Contain abundant amounts of glycogen.

A)Slow (oxidative), fatigue-resistant fibers

B)Fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers

C)fast (oxidative or glycolytic), fatigable fibers

Q4) Myoglobin ________.

A) breaks down glycogen

B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP

C) produces the end plate potential

D) stores oxygen in muscle cells

Page 11

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Chapter 10: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh?

A) vastus lateralis

B) adductor magnus

C) gluteus maximus

D) tibialis posterior

Q2) The nurse is explaining Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles.What factors may contribute to a weakening of the pelvic floor muscles?

Q3) The ________ is the main chewing muscle.

A) hyoglossus

B) lateral pterygoid

C) buccinator

D) masseter

Q4) The action of lifting a shovel of snow.

A)C

B)A

C)B

Q5) A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.

A)True

B)False

Q6) Damage to the ischiocavernosus muscle would have what effect?

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy,the resulting graded potential is called a(n)________.

A) action potential

B) excitatory potential

C) postsynaptic potential

D) generator potential

Q2) Cell bodies of sensory neurons may be located in ganglia lying outside the central nervous system.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The all-or-none phenomenon as applied to nerve conduction states that the whole nerve cell must be stimulated for conduction to take place.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Different types of sensory input can have the same ultimate effect.

A)Parallel after-discharge circuit

B)Reverberating circuit

C)Diverging circuit

D)Converging circuit

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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?

A) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.

B) Absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and are often severely disabling.

C) The aura in tonic-clonic seizures typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness.

D) During seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked.

Q2) Which spinal cord tract transmits impulses concerned with temperature and pain?

Describe the pathway and include the location and destination of the first,second,and third-order neurons.

Q3) Sleepwalking may occur during ________.

A) NREM stage 4

B) NREM stage 1

C) NREM stage 2

D) REM

Q4) Explain why heparin is used as an anticoagulant in the treatment of thrombotic strokes but contraindicated in a subarachnoid hemorrhage.

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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity

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Sample Questions

Q1) If someone spills very hot coffee (200 0F)on their skin,they will likely perceive much pain.Which of the following receptor types is causing this sensation?

A) nociceptors

B) chemoreceptors

C) mechanoreceptors

D) thermoreceptors

Q2) The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?

A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous

B) pudendal and common fibular

C) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial

D) common fibular and tibial

Q3) Dermatome maps are useful to clinicians because ________.

A) they show the routes of motor nerves

B) they outline the location of the numerous nerve plexus

C) they can help pinpoint the location of spinal injury

D) they show doctors how to avoid striking spinal nerves during surgery

Q4) An incorrectly placed intramuscular injection can cause injury to which nerve of the lumbar plexus?

Q5) Body movement receptors are called ________.

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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Carla was startled by an extremely loud bang that sounded like a gunshot.Her heartbeat accelerated rapidly.When she found that the noise was only a car backfiring,she felt greatly relieved but her heart kept beating heavily for over half an hour.Why did this happen?

Q2) The sacral part of the parasympathetic division serves the pelvic organs and the distal half of the large intestine.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The mushroom poison muscarine can bind to receptors on ________.

A) cell bodies and dendrites of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons

B) cell bodies and dendrites of sympathetic postganglionic neurons

C) the hormone producing cells of the adrenal medulla

D) all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic fibers

Q4) Autonomic ganglia contain ________.

A) the cell bodies of motor neurons

B) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons

C) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors

D) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons

Q5) In what ways are the autonomic and the somatic nervous systems different?

Page 16

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Chapter 15: The Special Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) Explain why a bad cold can result in food not tasting the same as it normally does.

Q2) The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________.

A) amacrine cells

B) ganglion cells

C) rods and cones

D) bipolar cells

Q3) Tympanic membrane.

A)C

B)B

C)A

D)D

E)E

Q4) Motion sickness seems to ________.

A) result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem

B) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs

C) respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs

D) respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins

Q5) The synapse of the olfactory nerves with the mitral cells is called a ________.

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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Epinephrine production.

A)Neural stimulus

B)Hormonal stimulus

C)Humoral stimulus

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus?

A) induces secretory activity

B) alters plasma membrane permeability

C) stimulates production of an action potential

D) activates or deactivates enzymes

Q3) Eicosanoids do NOT include ________.

A) leukotrienes

B) prostaglandins

C) hydrocortisones

D) paracrines

Q4) Direct gene activation involves a second-messenger system.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Explain how antidiuretic hormone can help regulate an abnormal increase in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid.

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Chapter 17: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?

A) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.

B) They are nucleated.

C) They are phagocytic.

D) They have cytoplasmic granules.

Q2) If you centrifuge (spin)whole blood you will find the band of white blood cells and platelets (the Buffy coat)is much thinner than the packed red blood cells below it.This difference reflects the fact that ________.

A) white blood cells are fewer in number than red blood cells

B) white blood cells are smaller than red blood cells

C) platelets are larger than red blood cells

D) platelets are larger than white blood cells

Q3) Necessary for coagulation.

A)Alpha and beta globulins

B)Albumin

C)Gamma globulins

D)Fibrinogen

Q4) Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.

A)True

B)False

Page 19

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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following transports oxygen-rich blood?

A) pulmonary vein

B) pulmonary artery

C) pulmonary trunk

D) superior vena cava

Q2) If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut,the result would be that ________.

A) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute

B) parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate

C) the atrioventricular (AV) node would become the pacemaker of the heart

D) the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract

Q3) Right atrium.

A)A

B)C

C)D

D)B

E)E

Q4) Cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle.

A)True

B)False

Page 20

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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels

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Sample Questions

Q1) Drains the scalp.

A)External jugular vein

B)Pulmonary trunk

C)Superior vena cava

D)Subclavian vein

E)Axillary artery

Q2) Which statement best describes arteries?

A) Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.

B) All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

C) All carry blood away from the heart.

D) All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.

Q3) Supplies a lower limb.

A)External iliac artery

B)Internal carotid artery

C)Brachiocephalic trunk

D)Celiac trunk

E)Radial artery

Q4) What are the sounds of Korotkoff?

Q5) Which type of blood vessels contain valves and what is their function?

Q6) Arterial ________ provide alternate pathways for blood to get to an organ.

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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues

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Sample Questions

Q1) Isolated clusters of lymph follicles found in the wall of the small intestine.

A)Peyer's patches

B)Lymph nodes

C)Thoracic duct

D)Lymph

E)Spleen

Q2) Cisterna chyli.

A)D

B)B

C)A

D)C

E)E

Q3) In the spleen,red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.

A)True

B)False

Q4) How does the lymphatic system both help and hinder the spread of cancer through the body?

Page 22

Q5) Characterize lymph transport in terms of rate,volume,and ability to change.

Q6) Name the tonsils and state their body locations.

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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body

Defenses

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Sample Questions

Q1) B-lymphocytes are categorized as part of the adaptive branch of the immune system for all of the following reason but one.Which of the following is not one of the reasons B-lymphocytes are considered part of the adaptive immunity?

A) Their receptors will bind to only one antigen.

B) They are a first line of defense that can begin killing pathogens immediately.

C) They require costimulation from an activated T-helper cell.

D) They produce memory cells when activated.

Q2) Soluble proteins secreted by plasma cells are called antibodies.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following does not describe actions of interferon (IFN)?

A) IFN binds to normal, uninfected cells stimulating the activation of genes that produce anti-viral proteins.

B) IFN can penetrate the viral capsid and destroy the virus.

C) Virally infected cells can release interferon which attracts NK cells to attack and kill the IFN secreting cell.

D) IFN will attract macrophages to the secreting cell to be removed by phagocytosis.

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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) With the Bohr effect,more oxygen is released because a(n)________.

A) decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

B) increase in pH (alkalosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

C) decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

D) increase in pH (alkalosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond

Q2) The largest amount of carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream in the form of carbonic anhydrase.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following maintains the patency (openness)of the trachea?

A) pseudostratified ciliated epithelium

B) C-shaped cartilage rings

C) surfactant production

D) surface tension of water

Q4) The Bohr effect refers to the unloading of ________ in a RBC due to declining blood pH.

A) chloride ions

B) carbon dioxide

C) BPG

D) oxygen

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Chapter 23: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The principal enzyme for breaking down carbohydrates is ________.

Q2) Peristaltic waves are ________.

A) churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract that aid in mechanical breakdown of chyme

B) segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract

C) waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another D) pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract

Q3) Which of the following is not true of saliva?

A) moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus

B) cleanses the mouth

C) contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates

D) contains acids which aid in chemical digestion

Q4) The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located

A) in the walls of the tract organs

B) in the glandular tissue that surround the organ lumen

C) in the oral cavity

D) in the pons and medulla

Q5) Identify three ways the small intestine is modified to increase the surface area for digestion and absorption.

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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation

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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of low-density-lipoproteins (LDLs)?

A) transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver

B) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for membrane formation

C) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for hormone synthesis

D) assist in the storage of cholesterol when supply exceeds demand

Q2) Red blood cells lack mitochondria.As a result,ATP production is solely through

A) glycolysis

B) electron transport chain

C) citric acid (Krebs) cycle

D) aerobic respiration

Q3) The major role of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs)is to store energy in the form of fat.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Except for lactose and some glycogen,the carbohydrates we ingest are mainly from animals.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are four possible complications of obesity from a medical standpoint?

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Chapter 25: The Urinary System

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Q1) An 18 year old patient has a complaint of painful urination,fever,chills,and back pain.This is her second urinary tract infection (UTI)within 5 months.How can the RN instruct the patient on prevention of another UTI?

Q2) Play a role in urine concentration.

A)Glomerular capillaries

B)Vasa recta

C)Afferent arterioles

D)Peritubular capillaries

E)Efferent arterioles

Q3) The function of angiotensin II is to ________.

A) decrease the production of aldosterone

B) decrease water absorption

C) constrict arterioles and increase blood pressure

D) decrease arterial blood pressure

Q4) The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ________.

A) glomerular hydrostatic pressure

B) myogenic mechanism

C) capsular hydrostatic pressure

D) colloid osmotic pressure of the blood

Q5) Explain how filtration works in the glomerular capillaries.

Page 28

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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sodium ions are highest in ________.

A)interstitial fluid

B)blood plasma

C)intracellular fluid

Q2) Protein anions are highest in ________.

A)interstitial fluid

B)blood plasma

C)intracellular fluid

Q3) Possibly caused by vomiting,use of diuretics,or use of antacids.

A)Metabolic alkalosis

B)Respiratory acidosis

C)Metabolic acidosis

D)Respiratory alkalosis

Q4) Possibly caused by asthma,pneumonia,or a severe panic attack.

A)Metabolic alkalosis

B)Respiratory acidosis

C)Metabolic acidosis

D)Respiratory alkalosis

Q5) List and describe three stimuli that activate the hypothalamic thirst center.

Q6) Why would an infant with colic be suffering from respiratory alkalosis?

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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Pap smear is a test to detect cancerous changes in cells of the cervix.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Organism responsible for up to half of the diagnosed cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.

A)Gonorrhea

B)Syphilis

C)Chlamydia

D)Genital warts

E)Genital herpes

Q3) Which of the choices below is not a function of the vagina?

A) serves as the birth canal

B) receives semen from the penis during sexual intercourse

C) serves as a passageway for menstrual flow

D) serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte

Q4) The testes are innervated by the sympathetic division of the ANS only.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The midpiece of the sperm tail contains mostly ________.

Q6) Explain the function of the myometrium and endometrium.

30

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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development

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99 Verified Questions

99 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) At what time in the pregnancy is the placenta fully prepared to fulfill the needs of the developing fetus?

Q2) The corpus luteum prevents loss of the implanted embryo through menstruation by secreting ________.

A) follicle-stimulating hormone

B) luteinizing hormone

C) human chorionic gonadotropin

D) estrogens and progesterone

Q3) Briefly describe the events leading to the implantation of the blastocyst in the uterus,including how it is nourished.

Q4) Shortly after implantation ________.

A) the trophoblast forms two distinct layers

B) the embryo gastrulates (within 3 days)

C) myometrial cells cover and seal off the blastocyst

D) maternal blood sinuses bathe the inner cell mass

Q5) By the end of the embryonic period,at 8 weeks,all the adult organ systems are recognizable.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 29: Heredity

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Sample Questions

Q1) Given the information in Figure 29.1,if C were an incomplete dominant trait,what would the phenotype ratio be for the offspring?

A) 1:1:1:1

B) 1:2:1

C) 1:3

D) 4:0

Q2) Actual genetic makeup.

A)Homozygous

B)Sex chromosomes

C)Recessive

D)Genotype

Q3) When might amniocentesis be appropriate?

Q4) Of the different sources of genetic variability which one produces the variation seen by the combination of any particular male gamete to any particular female gamete?

A) independent assortment

B) crossing over

C) random fertilization

D) mutation

Q5) The second-generation types would have what phenotypes?

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