Anatomy and Physiology for Health Sciences
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology for Health Sciences provides an in-depth exploration of the structure and function of the human body, tailored to the needs of students pursuing careers in the health sciences. This course covers the fundamental principles of anatomy and physiology, including the organization of the body, major body systems, and the physiological processes vital to maintaining human health. Students will develop an understanding of normal body function, as well as common disorders and their implications in a clinical context. Emphasis is placed on the integration of theoretical knowledge with practical application, fostering skills essential for future healthcare professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology 1st Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anatomical term that means the same as ventral is A) posterior.
B) inferior.
C) abdominal.
D) anterior.
E) superior.
Answer: D
Q2) While standing erect, the direction of caudal is A) upward.
B) downward.
C) laterally.
D) medially.
E) none of these Answer: B
Q3) The common name for the patella is the ________. Answer: kneecap
Q4) The common term for the buccal region is the ________.
Answer: cheek
Q5) The common term for the carpal region is the ________. Answer: wrist
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Chapter 2: Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) A shortage of cholesterol in the body could interfere with the formation of A) sex hormones.
B) proteins.
C) cytoplasm.
D) glycogen.
E) nucleic acids.
Answer: A
Q2) When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen ions and anions. This compound would be
A) a strong base.
B) a weak base.
C) a strong acid.
D) a weak acid.
E) a salt.
Answer: C
Q3) Ions with a negative charge are called ________. Answer: anions
Q4) Identify the three structural components of a nucleotide. Answer: sugar (pentose); phosphate group; nitrogenous base
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Chapter 3: Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called
A) prophase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) telophase.
E) anaphase.
Answer: C
Q2) Organelles that catabolize fats and neutralize toxic compounds are A) lysosomes.
B) peroxisomes.
C) endocytic vesicles.
D) nuclei.
E) toxisomes.
Answer: B
Q3) ________ is when a vesicle fuses to the plasma membrane and discharges its contents to the extracellular environment.
Answer: Exocytosis
Q4) Ribosomes are composed of protein and ________.
Answer: rRNA
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Chapter 4: Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and ________ secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells.
Q2) Epithelia and connective tissues combine to form ________ that cover and protect other structures and tissues in the body.
Q3) Epithelial cells exhibit modifications that adapt them for A) contraction.
B) conduction.
C) secretion.
D) circulation.
E) support.
Q4) Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways, except A) transporting substances throughout the body.
B) supporting epithelia.
C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves.
D) storing fats.
E) serving as packing material.
Q5) In ________ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter.
Q6) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as ________.
Q7) Endocrine gland cells produce ________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of the epidermis that contains abundant desmosomes and dendritic cells is the
A) stratum corneum.
B) stratum lucidum.
C) stratum basale.
D) stratum granulosum.
E) stratum spinosum.
Q2) Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are ________ glands.
A) ceruminous
B) apocrine sweat
C) merocrine sweat
D) sebaceous
E) mammary
Q3) The substance called sebum is commonly known as ________.
Q4) Characteristics of the epidermis include
A) multilayered.
B) flexible.
C) self-repairing.
D) serving as UV radiation protection.
E) all of the above
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are
A) radial.
B) anterior.
C) parallel.
D) proximal.
E) diagonal.
Q2) Which structure is termed an osteon?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Q3) Which is greater?
A) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is increased
B) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is decreased
Q4) The shaft of long bones is called the ________.
Q5) Which is greater?
A) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is present
B) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is absent
Q6) ________ fibers are stronger than steel when stretched.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the A) transverse processes.
B) spinous processes.
C) laminae.
D) transverse processes and spinous processes.
E) transverse processes, spinous processes, and laminae.
Q2) The zygomatic bone articulates with the ________ bone to form the zygomatic arch.
Q3) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures more common in cervical vertebrae?
Q4) The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra.
A) first cervical
B) second cervical
C) seventh cervical
D) first thoracic
E) fifth lumbar
Q5) Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum.
Q6) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.
Q7) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture.
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Chapter 8: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to
A) fibrous cartilage.
B) dense regular connective tissue.
C) periodontal ligament.
D) rigid cartilaginous bridge.
E) completely fused.
Q2) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments.
A) cruciate
B) fibular collateral
C) patellar
D) popliteal
E) tibial collateral
Q3) A slightly movable joint is a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) diarthrosis.
C) amphiarthrosis.
D) gomphosis.
E) synostosis.
Q4) ________ describes a complex angular movement in a circle.
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Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of
A) actin, myosin, and filaments.
B) a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae.
C) filaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres.
D) A bands, H bands, and I bands.
E) actin, myosin, and sarcomeres.
Q2) A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by
A) hydrolysis of creatine phosphate.
B) anaerobic respiration.
C) aerobic metabolism of fatty acids.
D) glycogenolysis.
E) the tricarboxylic acid cycle.
Q3) The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular synaptic terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter
A) epinephrine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) antidiuretic hormone.
E) all of the above
Q4) A single contraction-relaxation cycle in a muscle fiber produces a ________.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is
A) above the femoral condyles.
B) the superior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe.
C) the inferior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe.
D) the lateral condyle of the tibia and anterior surface of the fibula.
E) the posterior surface of the medial condyle of the tibia.
Q2) Which of these phrases most aptly describes "muscle insertion"?
A) broad tendon sheet
B) connective tissue that surrounds a single muscle fiber
C) tendon attachment that doesn't move
D) tendon attachment that moves
E) connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle
Q3) A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)
A) agonist.
B) antagonist.
C) synergist.
D) originator.
E) levator.
Q4) A(n) ________ is a rigid structure that moves on a fixed point.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "5."
A) axons
B) telodendria
C) dendritic spines
D) synaptic terminals
E) axosomata
Q2) ________ neurons are the most common class in the CNS.
A) Multipolar
B) Anaxonic
C) Unipolar
D) Bipolar
E) none of the above
Q3) After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic knob
A) reabsorbs the acetylcholine.
B) reabsorbs the acetate.
C) reabsorbs the choline.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q4) ________ monitor the internal environment.
Q5) A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called ________.
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Chapter 12: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the condition ________, a virus infects dorsal root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes.
A) myasthenia gravis
B) neuronal damage
C) shingles
D) chickenpox
E) Hodgkin's disease
Q2) The ________ innervates the ventrolateral body surface, structures in the body wall, and the limbs.
A) white rami communicantes
B) gray rami communicantes
C) dorsal ramus
D) ventral ramus
E) dermatomes
Q3) The nerve crucial for breathing that originates within the cervical plexus is called the ________ nerve.
Q4) The ________ separates the dura mater from the walls of the vertebral canal.
Q5) What is a reflex arc?
Page 14
What components must be present to qualify?
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Chapter 13: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ventral nuclei of the thalamus
A) relay input from basal ganglia to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex.
B) relay input from cerebellum to the motor areas of the cerebral cortex.
C) relay general sensory input to the primary sensory cortex.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) ________ receptors are ________ times more numerous than ________ receptors.
A) Warm; three or four; cold
B) Thermoreceptors; three or four; cold
C) Cold; three or four; warm
D) Thermoreceptors; three or four; temperature
E) Cold; 10; warm
Q3) The general interpretive area
A) is the speech center of the brain.
B) is responsible for predicting future consequences.
C) is the site of long-term memory storage.
D) allows us to interpret what is read or heard.
E) may be damaged by even a small stroke.
Q4) The folds of the surface of the cerebellum are called ________.
Page 15
Q5) The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland.
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic nerves
A) provoke feelings of sympathy.
B) allow us to relax, rest, and recover.
C) are bundles of postganglionic fibers that innervate organs within the thoracic cavity.
D) control swallowing.
E) stimulate gastric secretion.
Q2) The sympathetic collateral ganglia include the A) celiac.
B) superior mesenteric.
C) inferior mesenteric.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) The adrenal medullae secrete A) medullin.
B) epinephrine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) renin.
E) both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Q4) Why is the adrenal medulla considered to be a modified sympathetic ganglion?
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) medial geniculate.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) olfactory bulb.
E) olfactory tract.
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "7."
A) choroid
B) optic disc
C) sclera
D) retina
E) cornea
Q3) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the A) auditory ossicles.
B) cochlea.
C) oval window.
D) round window.
E) tympanic membrane.
Q4) Where the eyelids join at the medial or lateral edge is called the ________.
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone(s) that may be slowly administered by intravenous drip to accelerate labor and delivery is (are)
A) oxytocin.
B) prolactin.
C) luteinizing hormone.
D) just extra fluids.
E) oxytocin and luteinizing hormone.
Q2) Thyroid hormone contains the element
A) fluorine.
B) chlorine.
C) iron.
D) iodine.
E) zinc.
Q3) The condition known as goiter can result from too
A) much insulin.
B) little TSH.
C) much ACTH.
D) little iodine in the diet.
E) little glucagon.
Q4) The two lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Blood and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The layer of the arteriole wall that can produce vasoconstriction is the
A) tunica adventitia.
B) tunica media.
C) tunica intima.
D) tunica externa.
E) tunica mater.
Q2) The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) hemocytoblasts.
B) reticulocytes.
C) band forms.
D) myeloid cells.
E) proerythrocytes.
Q3) The blood vessel that carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the ________.
Q4) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the
A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.
D) release of heparin from the liver.
E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Q5) The vein in the arm commonly sampled for blood by venipuncture is the ________.
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Chapter 18: The Heart and Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ ventricle has a greater workload than the ________.
A) left; right ventricle
B) right; left ventricle
C) right; systemic circulation
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q2) Which of the following changes doesn't occur during exercise compared to rest?
A) Cardiac output is higher.
B) Heart blood flow is higher.
C) Skin blood flow is lower.
D) Abdominal viscera blood flow is lower.
E) Kidney blood flow is lower.
Q3) The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the ________.
Q4) The ________ lines the chambers of the heart, covers the heart valves, and is continuous with the endothelium.
Q5) As the heart rate slows, ________ gets longer.
Q6) The inferior point of the heart is called the ________.
Q7) The ________ separates the two atria.
Page 20
Q8) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the ________.
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A substance that provokes an immune response is called a(n) ________.
Q2) ________ are large lymphoid nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx.
A) Tonsils
B) Peyer's patches
C) Lymph nodes
D) Immune complexes
E) Spleens
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) medulla
B) capsule
C) cortex
D) trabeculae
E) cortical sinus
Q4) ________ are connective tissues dominated by lymphocytes.
Q5) Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called ________.
Q6) ________ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen.
Q7) The process by which antigens combine with antibodies to form immune complexes is called ________.
Q8) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphoid system.
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Chapter 20: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in
A) increased respiratory rate.
B) more intense inhalation.
C) a shorter respiratory cycle.
D) less activity in the DRG center.
E) decreased vital capacity.
Q2) Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of oxygen.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
E) 75
Q3) Large airborne particles are filtered by A) choanae.
B) the soft palate.
C) the respiratory defense system.
D) the nasal sinuses.
E) the nasopharynx.
Q4) Gas exchange between air and circulating blood takes place within ________.
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Chapter 21: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Products of fat digestion are transported initially by A) capillaries.
B) veins.
C) lacteals.
D) the interstitial fluid.
E) the arterioles.
Q2) Parietal cells secrete
A) pepsinogen.
B) gastrin.
C) mucus.
D) hydrochloric acid.
E) enteropeptidase.
Q3) Approximately ________ liters of fluid are secreted and reabsorbed into the peritoneal cavity each day.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 2
D) 1
E) 7
Q4) What local reflexes control the GI tract?
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Chapter 22: Metabolism and Energetics
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Q1) ________ is an unhealthy state resulting from inadequate intake of one or more nutrients that becomes life-threatening as the deficiencies accumulate.
Q2) A balanced diet should
A) include adequate substrates for the production of energy.
B) provide essential amino acids and fatty acids.
C) contain adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Q3) ________ creates 90 percent of the ATP normally generated.
Q4) Although other nutrients can feed into the citric acid cycle, ________ yields energy the quickest.
A) glycogen
B) glucose
C) protein
D) fat
E) All of the above have the same rate.
Q5) A(n) ________ is deficient in one or more of the essential amino acids.
Q6) Fatty acids that are necessary for proper health but cannot be synthesized by the body are called ________.
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Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following organs is part of the urinary system, except the A) kidney.
B) urinary bladder.
C) rectum.
D) ureter.
E) urethra.
Q2) The detrusor muscle
A) moves urine along the ureters by peristalsis.
B) compresses the urinary bladder and expels urine through the urethra.
C) functions as the internal urinary sphincter.
D) functions as the external urinary sphincter.
E) surrounds the renal pelvis.
Q3) Where does countercurrent multiplication occur?
A) 6
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
E) 2
Q4) The area of the urinary bladder bounded by the openings of the two ureters and the urethra is called the ________.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Hyperventilation will ________ pH.
Q2) Consuming a meal high in salt will
A) drastically increase the osmolarity of the blood.
B) result in a temporary increase in blood volume.
C) decrease thirst.
D) cause hypotension.
E) activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
Q3) A(n) ________ acid is an acid that cannot leave solution and enter the atmosphere.
Q4) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder metabolic alkalosis?
A) consequence of hyperventilation, for example in fever or mental illness
B) consequence of prolonged vomiting
C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation, for example due to COPD
D) consequence of tissue hypoxia, for example in ischemic conditions
Q5) A person with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus will develop
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) uterus
B) vagina
C) cervix
D) clitoris
E) greater vestibular gland
Q2) The portion of the uterine tube that ends in fingerlike fimbriae is the A) ampulla.
B) distal segment.
C) infundibulum.
D) proximal segment.
E) isthmus.
Q3) The organ that is posterior to the urinary bladder is (are) the A) prostate gland.
B) bulbourethral gland.
C) seminal glands (seminal vesicles).
D) corpus cavernosum.
E) preputial gland.
Q4) In a ________, each ductus deferens is cut and either a segment removed and the ends tied (or cauterized) or silicone plugs are inserted.
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Chapter 26: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) By day 12 of embryonic development, mesoderm begins to form through A) embryolization.
B) gastrulation.
C) mitosis.
D) meiosis.
E) none of the above
Q2) Genes that appear on the X chromosome are said to be ________.
Q3) Identify the stage labeled "12."
A) zygote
B) early morula
C) blastocyst
D) trophoblast
E) late morula
Q4) How many chromosomes do human somatic cells contain?
Q5) The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will
A) form the placenta.
B) form the morula.
C) form the embryo.
D) form blood vessels of the placenta.
E) provide nutrients for early growth.
28
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