Anatomy and Physiology Exam
Solutions
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure and function of the human body, providing a comprehensive understanding of how organ systems work individually and together to sustain life. The course covers topics such as the skeletal, muscular, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, urinary, endocrine, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on the relationship between anatomical structures and physiological processes, as well as the mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and case studies, students gain practical knowledge and foundational skills essential for further study in health and medical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which region is included within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)?
A) umbilical
B) left hypochondriac
C) epigastric
D) left iliac
Answer: D
Q2) Which cavity is divided into quadrants?
A) thoracic
B) abdominopelvic
C) dorsal
D) cranial
Answer: B
Q3) Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body?
A) gluteal
B) patellar
C) umbilical
D) sternal
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore A) is acidic.
B) is 3-4 times more viscid (thicker)than water.
C) has a pH that is similar to urine and stomach contents.
D) is alkaline.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following is located in the orbits surrounding the nucleus?
A) isotopes
B) protons
C) electrons
D) neutrons
Answer: C
Q3) An atom has 2 protons,2 neutrons,and 2 electrons;it has an atomic
A) number of 6.
B) weight of 2.
C) weight of 6.
D) number of 4.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) ribosomes
B) cilia
C) lysosomes
D) DNA
Answer: A
Q2) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase are phases of
A) active transport.
B) mitosis.
C) differentiation.
D) pinocytosis.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell?
A) mitochondrion
B) nucleus
C) lysosome
D) centriole
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA
A) is double-stranded and stores the genetic code.
B) contains ribose as its sugar.
C) is located within the cytoplasm.
D) contains the following bases:cytosine,guanine,adenine,and uracil.
Q2) Which of the following is most descriptive of glucose?
A) disaccharide
B) peptide
C) glycerol
D) carbohydrate
Q3) Glycogen is
A) an end-product of fatty acid catabolism.
B) stored within adipose tissue.
C) the storage form of glucose.
D) an essential amino acid.
Q4) Which of the following is least related to lactic acid?
A) glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) anaerobic
D) cytoplasmic
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least descriptive of Treponema pallidum?
A) causes syphilis
B) classified as a bacterium
C) is most often spread by the fecal-oral route
D) is a spirochete
Q2) Which of the following is least descriptive of Candida albicans?
A) causative organism of impetigo
B) fungal infection
C) yeast infection
D) antibiotic-induced superinfection
Q3) Rickettsiae and chlamydiae are classified as A) viruses.
B) bacteria.
C) arthropods.
D) bacilli.
Q4) Infections such as athlete's foot and ringworm are referred to as A) systemic.
B) mycotic.
C) parasitic.
D) bacterial.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) appearance of muscle:striated and smooth
B) types of cartilage:hyaline,elastic,fibrocartilage
C) types of epithelial membranes:cutaneous,mucous,serous
D) types of connective tissue:tendons,ligaments,fat,glia
Q2) In which type of tissue is plasma the interstitial matrix?
A) simple squamous epithelium
B) adipose tissue
C) blood
D) cartilage
Q3) Which of the following membranes form(s)the outer lining of the lungs?
A) parietal pleura
B) visceral peritoneum
C) meninges
D) visceral pleura
Q4) Which of the following is most descriptive of a bed sore?
A) decubitus ulcer
B) sarcoma
C) malignant neoplasm
D) metastatic
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stratum germinativum and the stratum corneum are layers of the A) epidermis.
B) hypodermis.
C) subcutaneous tissue.
D) dermis.
Q2) If the blood vessels of the skin dilate,the person appears A) jaundiced.
B) flushed.
C) cyanotic.
D) pale and washed out.
Q3) Anticancer drugs often cause hair loss,a condition called A) alopecia.
B) hirsutism.
C) vitiligo.
D) keratinization.
Q4) Freckles and moles are due to an accumulation of A) bilirubin.
B) vernix caseosa.
C) melanin.
D) keratin.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) At which joint do the femur and tibia meet?
A) tibiofemoral
B) proximal tibiofibular
C) distal tibiofibular
D) sacroiliac
Q2) Which of the following is most descriptive of the atlas and the axis?
A) carpal
B) vertebral
C) coxal
D) cranial
Q3) At which joint do the femur and tibia meet?
A) hip
B) knee
C) ankle
D) elbow
Q4) This bone is found in the skull but is not a facial bone.
A) mandible
B) maxilla
C) occipital
D) zygomatic
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscles are located between the ribs and help move the rib cage during breathing?
A) diaphragm
B) sternocleidomastoid
C) serratus anterior
D) intercostal muscles
Q2) Which muscle is located in the lower extremities?
A) peroneus longus
B) latissimus dorsi
C) serratus anterior
D) pectoralis major
Q3) "Pumping iron" is most likely to cause
A) atrophy.
B) contracture formation.
9-PAGE 5 Test Bank
C) hypertrophy.
D) muscular dystrophy.
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpus callosum
A) connects the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord.
B) is a band of gray matter that lines the ventricles.
C) is the point at which all motor fibers decussate.
D) connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres.
Q2) The inside of the unstimulated neuron is negative;this electrical charge is due to the outward leak of potassium and is called
A) depolarization.
B) the action potential.
C) the resting membrane potential.
D) the refractory period.
Q3) What is the term applied to the inability of a neuron to accept a stimulus while the neuron is still depolarized?
A) repolarization
B) threshold potential
C) resting membrane potential
D) refractory period
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12
Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dermatome is most related to which of the following?
A) cranial nerves
B) lumbar puncture
C) spinal nerve distribution
D) the autonomic nervous system
Q2) The area of skin innervated by a spinal nerve is called a
A) plexus.
B) tract.
C) dermatome.
D) gyrus.
Q3) The ___________ nerve (tract)carries sensory information toward the brain.
A) phrenic
B) pyramidal
C) corticospinal
D) spinothalamic
Q4) The person with damage to the ___________ nerve has the weakest blink.
A) facial
B) vagus
C) cranial nerve II
D) cranial nerve VIII
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A) adrenergic
B) norepinephrine
C) fight or flight
D) feed and breed
Q2) Muscarinic receptors are
A) activated by norepinephrine.
B) located on the effector organs of the sympathetic nervous system.
C) activated by catecholamines such as adrenalin and dopamine.
D) activated by ACh.
Q3) Paravertebral ganglia
A) are part of the craniosacral outflow.
B) "drive" the vagus nerve.
C) are located within the organs of innervation.
D) are also called the sympathetic chain ganglia.
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The occipital lobe
A) receives information from cranial nerve III.
B) sends motor information to the iris,thereby controlling pupillary size.
C) receives sensory information from cranial nerve II.
D) contains the primary auditory cortex.
Q2) What is the name of the specialized area of a sensory neuron that detects a specific stimulus?
A) tract
B) receptor
C) dorsal root
D) node of Ranvier
Q3) Which of the following equipment is used to elicit the photopupillary reflex?
A) hammer
B) penlight
C) bell
D) Snellen chart
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15
Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a function of parathyroid hormone?
A) It causes the excretion of calcium in the urine.
B) It stimulates osteoblastic activity to form bone.
C) It stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete calcitonin.
D) It increases plasma levels of calcium.
Q2) The adrenal cortex
A) is the target gland of ACTH.
B) secretes catecholamines.
C) is an extension of the sympathetic nervous system.
D) secretes ADH and oxytocin.
Q3) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
A) are both secreted by the parathyroid glands.
B) increase plasma levels of calcium.
C) decrease plasma levels of calcium.
D) control plasma levels of calcium.
Q4) Which of the following is most descriptive of cAMP?
A) second chemical messenger
B) catecholamine that contributes to the "fight-or-flight" response
C) steroid
D) releasing hormone
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal pH of blood?
A) 7.00 to 7.45
B) 7.35 to 7.45
C) 6.92 to 7.25
D) 7.45 to 7.80
Q2) What is another name for TPA (tissue plasminogen activator)?
A) anticoagulant
B) antiplatelet
C) "clot buster" (thrombolytic)
D) antihistamine
Q3) Which of the following causes granulocytopenia?
A) myelosuppression
B) hemolysis
C) infection
D) petechiae
Q4) Which of the following is characteristic of the platelet?
A) granulocyte
B) bilirubin
C) O2 transport
D) stickiness
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) This structure connects the cusps of the AV valves to the ventricles.
A) Purkinje fibers
B) AV node
C) bundle of His
D) chordae tendineae
Q2) The aorta receives blood from the
A) right ventricle.
B) pulmonary veins.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) left ventricle.
Q3) This sling-like structure supports the heart.
A) pericardium
B) chordae tendineae
C) myocardium
D) endocardium
Q4) Chordae tendineae are not associated with this valve.
A) aortic
B) mitral
C) tricuspid
D) bicuspid
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Activation of the muscarinic receptors by acetylcholine
A) increases myocardial contractile force
B) causes a (+)chronotropic effect
C) increases cardiac output
D) slows heart rate
Q2) Which of the following is the most likely consequence of acute left ventricular failure?
A) jugular vein distention
B) hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
C) pulmonary edema
D) pedal edema
Q3) Digoxin,a drug used in the treatment of heart failure,increases contractile force and is therefore called a
A) diuretic.
B) (+)dromotropic agent.
C) (+)inotropic agent.
D) (+)chronotropic agent.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Trace the flow of blood: axillary vein > brachiocephalic vein > superior vena cava >
A) inferior vena cava
B) hepatic vein
C) right atrium
D) pulmonary veins
Q2) This is a short artery that further divides into the gastric,splenic,and hepatic arteries.
A) portal vein
B) circle of Willis
C) renal artery
D) celiac trunk
Q3) Which of the following vessels carries unoxygenated blood from the liver to the inferior vena cava?
A) portal vein
B) celiac axis
C) hepatic artery
D) hepatic veins
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both epinephrine and norepinephrine are A) steroids.
B) secreted by the adrenal cortex.
C) vasopressors.
D) blood pressure-lowering hormones.
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to develop if the pressure within the pulmonary capillaries increases?
A) pedal edema
B) pulsating jugular veins
C) pulmonary edema
D) varicose veins
Q3) If plasma osmolarity increases,as in dehydration or the infusion of mannitol (a sugar solution),
A) filtration rate increases.
B) fluid is forced out of the capillary into the interstitium.
C) fluid is "pulled" into the capillary from the interstitium.
D) plasma proteins diffuse out of the capillary into the interstitium.
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21
Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lacteal is located within the
A) adenoid.
B) tonsil.
C) thymus gland.
D) intestinal villus.
Q2) What is the term that refers to the removal of the palatine tonsils?
A) appendectomy
B) lymph node resection
C) adenoidectomy
D) tonsillectomy
Q3) The spleen
A) removes worn-out blood cells from circulation.
B) is avascular.
C) is located in the RUQ.
20-PAGE 5
Test Bank
D) secretes splenic hormones that control the entire lymphoid system.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A booster
A) increases antibodies to an antigen.
B) stimulates the liver to detoxify antigens.
C) kills a pathogen.
D) conveys passive immunity.
Q2) Which of the following is true of activation of mast cells?
A) causes the release of epinephrine
B) is necessary for T-cell activation
C) prevents the development of anaphylaxis
D) causes the release of histamine
Q3) These T cells do not participate in the destruction of the pathogen,but allow for a more rapid response if the antigen is presented at a later time.
A) killer T cells
B) suppressor T cells
C) thrombocytes
D) memory T cells
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trachea is
A) "the problem" in asthma.
B) the site of gas exchange.
C) composed primarily of smooth muscle.
D) a large airway that splits into two bronchi.
Q2) In reference to a normally expanded lung,the
A) intrapulmonic pressure is less than intrapleural pressure.
B) intrapleural pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.
C) intrapulmonic pressure is greater than intrapleural pressure.
D) intrapleural,intrapulmonic,and atmospheric pressures are equal.
Q3) Which of the following is necessary for the lungs to remain expanded?
A) The alveolar cells must secrete surfactant.
B) The intrapulmonic pressure must be negative.
C) The glottis must be closed.
D) The intrapleural pressure must be negative.
Q4) The Hering-Breuer reflex
A) prevents overinflation of the lungs.
B) is a chemical reflex;no nerves are involved.
C) is important only in disease states.
D) is only concerned with sneezing and coughing.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) This organ produces bile and secretes it into the hepatic ducts.
A) pancreas
B) gallbladder
C) spleen
D) liver
Q2) Which structure prevents gastric reflux?
A) pyloric valve
B) ileocecal valve
C) lower esophageal sphincter
D) anal sphincter
Q3) Which of the following is a digestive enzyme?
A) gastrin
B) trypsin
C) cholecystokinin
D) secretin
Q4) The hepatic flexure does not involve the
A) ascending colon.
B) esophagus.
C) transverse colon.
D) large intestine.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone
A) depletes blood volume.
B) causes potassium reabsorption.
C) causes sodium excretion.
D) causes Na and water reabsorption.
Q2) The renal capsule
A) lines the tubules.
B) lines the urinary bladder.
C) surrounds the kidneys.
D) outlines the trigone.
Q3) Renin activates
A) aldosterone.
B) converting enzyme.
C) angiotensinogen.
D) angiotensin II.
Q4) Which of the following words best describes the function of the urinary bladder?
A) filtration
B) storage
C) reabsorption
D) buffering of H
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Chapter 25: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Which of the following can be defined as an H donor?
A) ion
B) tincture
C) acid
D) bicarbonate
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to occur when output is less than intake?
A) dehydration
B) edema
C) hypovolemia
D) polyuria
Q3) A patient is admitted with severe emphysema and a PO? of 85.He also has a blood pH of 7.25 and a serum bicarbonate of 40.Which of the following is the accurate description?
A) metabolic acidosis and respiratory compensation
B) metabolic alkalosis with a respiratory compensation
C) respiratory alkalosis with a renal compensation
D) respiratory acidosis with a renal compensation
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) The interstitial cells
A) secrete testosterone.
B) are located within the prostate gland.
C) produce sperm.
D) line the ejaculatory ducts.
Q2) These cells secrete testosterone.
A) prostate gland
B) prepuce
C) interstitial cells
D) seminiferous tubules
Q3) The fundus forms the upper part of this structure.
A) vagina
B) corpus luteum
C) graafian follicle
D) uterus
Q4) Which group is incorrect?
A) parts of a sperm:head,body,tail
B) parts of the uterus:fundus,body,cervix
C) layers of the uterus:perimetrium,myometrium,endometrium
D) genital ducts:epididymis,ejaculatory ducts,vas deferens,prostate gland
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) extraembryonic membranes:amnion,chorion,yolk sac,allantois
B) stages of labor:dilation,expulsion,lactation
C) ovarian structures:corpus luteum,corpus albicans,graafian follicle
D) genes:dominant,recessive,codominant
Q2) In addition to acting as an exchange site between the mother and fetus,the placenta also secretes
A) estrogen and progesterone.
B) amniotic fluid.
C) vernix caseosa.
D) colostrum.
Q3) What term describes the ectoderm,mesoderm,and endoderm?
A) inner cell mass
B) extraembryonic membranes
C) primary germ layers
D) blastomeres
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