Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Answer Key
Course Introduction
Anatomy and Physiology is an essential course that explores the structure and function of the human body, providing a comprehensive understanding of bodily systems and how they interact to maintain health and homeostasis. Students will study the basic organization of the body, from cells and tissues to organs and organ systems, learning key concepts related to the musculoskeletal, nervous, circulatory, respiratory, digestive, and endocrine systems, among others. The course combines theoretical knowledge with practical applications, often including laboratory sessions involving dissection, microscopic examination, and physiological experiments, to reinforce core principles and develop critical thinking skills necessary for careers in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Kinesiology Scientific Basis of Human Motion 12th Edition by Nancy Hamilton
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to the Study of Kinesiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) President Bush's high approval ratings after his response to the September 11 attacks are an example of the ________ effect.
A) signing statement
B) balanced ticket
C) commander in chief
D) honeymoon period
E) rally 'round the flag
Answer: E
Q2) Classify each of the following skills in terms of the movement pattern involved: walking on crutches bench press kayaking golf drive
Answer: locomotion on foot pushing & pulling-lift aquatic locomotion-boating striking
Q3) Name and explain the three primary components of a kinesiological analysis.
Answer: description, evaluation, prescription
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Musculoskeletal System: The Skeletal
Framework and Its Movements
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Q1) Name and discuss three factors that contribute to joint stability.
Answer: bony structure, ligaments, tendons, muscle & soft tissue
Q2) Discuss the reasons why it is inadvisable to have young children involved in activities that require hard contact or heavy resistance.
Answer: damage to epiphyseal areas of long bones
Q3) Which of the following is correct?
A) abduction of the humerus--motion in a frontal plane about a vertical axis
B) flexion of the knee--motion in a sagittal plane about a biltaeral axis
C) forward tilt of the pelvis--motion in a frontal plane about an AP axis
D) rotation of the head--motion in a frontal plane about a longitudinal axis
Answer: B
Q4) What is circumduction?
A) combination of movements in two planes
B) combination of movements in three planes
C) movement about a longitudinal axis
D) movement of a segment in a circle
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: The Musculoskeletal System: The Musculature
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Q1) What are actin and myosin?
A) bands in the sarcomere
B) tissue related to the myofibrils
C) sliding myofilaments
D) substances critical to binding of the sarcolemma and endomysium
Answer: C
Q2) Why is there a greater range of motion in hip flexion with the knees bent than with them straight?
Answer: (decreased tension in biarticular muscles)
Q3) Which type of muscle contraction is it when contraction velocity remains constant?
A) isometric contraction
B) isotonic contraction
C) isokinetic contraction
D) eccentric contraction
Answer: C
Q4) Starting and ending in a standing position, analyze the hip joint in the motion of touching one's toes.
Answer: 11ea74a0_e365_7d9b_a57a_81446d087245_TB3983_00 11ea74a0_e365_7d9c_a57a_81631aae2a38_TB3983_00
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Chapter 4: The Neuromuscular Basis of Human Motion
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Q1) Which movement inhibits the crouched position at the beginning of a standing long jump?
A) flexion of the arms
B) flexion of the head
C) dorsi flexion of the feet
D) hyperextension of the head
Q2) What is the purpose of the gamma efferent system?
A) adjusts the length of extrafusal muscle fibers thereby relieving tension on muscle spindle
B) makes muscle spindle more sensitive to external stretch therefore facilitating more effective muscle contraction
C) relays impulses from other proprioceptors to muscle spindle
D) transmits impulses from muscles to central nervous system and back to the muscles
Q3) What is the phenomenon which causes the tension in antagonistic muscles to be less during movement?
A) neutralization
B) proprioceptive inhibition
C) reciprocal innervation
D) stretch reflex
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Upper Extremity: The Shoulder Region
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Q1) What muscles are responsible for adduction of the scapula in archery?
A) teres major, trapezius III, rhomboids, levator scapulae
B) teres major, trapezius III, levator scapulae
C) trapezius III, rhomboids
D) rhomboids, levator scapulae
Q2) What are the prime movers in shoulder flexion against gravity?
1) upper pectoralis major
2) latissimus dorsi
3) anterior deltoid
4) posterior deltoid
5) lower pectoralis major
A) upper pectoralis major, anterior deltoid
B) upper pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, anterior deltoid, posterior deltoid
C) latissimus dorsi, posterior deltoid
D) posterior deltoid, lower pectoralis major
Q3) What motions of the shoulder joint and accompanying motions of the shoulder girdle are necessary in the action of a golf drive (consider all three phases-preparation, propulsion, and follow through)?
Q4) What are the prime movers at the shoulder joint in the propulsive phase of an overhand throw?
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Chapter 6: The Upper Extremity: The Elbow, Forearm, Wrist, and Hand
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Q1) In a tennis stroke, stroke strong forearm pronation is used to give top spin to the ball. Which are the prime movers for this?
A) pronator teres, pronator quadratus
B) pronator teres, pronator quadratus, biceps brachii
C) pronator teres, pronator quadratus, biceps brachii, brachialis
D) pronator teres, pronator quadratus, brachialis
Q2) Why may a person successfully complete a pull-up with the forearms supinated, but fail with the forearms pronated?
Q3) The ulna is on the ____ side of the hand.
A) thumb
B) little finger
C) both, depending on rotation
D) neither
Q4) In which of the following actions will the biceps brachii be most active?
A) a pull-up with the forearm pronated
B) a pushup
C) a pull-up with the forearms supinated
D) a bench press
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Lower Extremity: The Hip Region
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Q1) Which muscles of the hips would be most important for you if you were a horseback rider?
A) adductor longus AND adductor magnus
B) adductor magnus AND rectus femoris
C) rectus femoris AND biceps
D) adductor longus AND rectus femoris
Q2) Analyze the muscular involvement in the motion of the hip joint in stair climbing. Be sure to include both the preparation phase and the propulsion phase.
Q3) Which of the following movements of the pelvic girdle would act to facilitate abduction of the right femur?
A) forward tilt
B) backward tilt
C) rotation right
D) left lateral tilt
Q4) Why is the range of motion in hip hyperextension much less than the range of motion in hip flexion?
Q5) Analyze the muscular involvement in the motion of the hip joint in the jumping jack exercise. Be sure to include both the "apart" phase and the "together" phase (non-support part only).
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Chapter 8: The Lower Extremity: The Knee, Ankle, and Foot
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Q1) Which of the following produces pronation of the foot?
A) tibialis anterior
B) extensor digitorum longus
C) extensor hallicus longus
D) soleus
Q2) Why is the knee classified as a modified hinge joint?
A) because of the action of the femur on the tibia
B) because of the structure of the menisci
C) because of the action of the gliding motion of the patella on the femur
D) because of the action of the rotation of the fibula
Q3) Extreme pronation of the feet is likely to place stress on the knee joints. Explain the nature of that stress and discuss the structures which will be affected.
Q4) Many people find it more difficult to grasp the ankles in a long sit position if the ankle joint is dorsiflexed. Explain this phenomenon.
Q5) Where is there increased tensile stress when one is knock-kneed?
A) anteriorly
B) laterally
C) medially
D) posteriorly
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Chapter 9: The Spinal Column and Thorax
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Q1) In which regions of the vertebral column are flexion and extension most free?
A) cervical & thoracic
B) cervical & lumbar
C) thoracic & lumbar
D) all of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not true of the vertebral column?
A) acts to protect internal organs
B) acts as link between upper and lower extremities
C) acts as freely moveable link system
D) acts as motion segment for the trunk
Q3) Injuries to the cervical spine are among the most serious in sport. Discuss the anatomical reasons that these injuries are so serious.
Q4) Explain, anatomically, the differences in mobility in the three mobile regions of the vertebral column.
Q5) Which type of joint he atlanto-occipital joint?
A) condyloid
B) pivot
C) hinge
D) ball & socket
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Chapter 10: Terminology and Measurement in Biomechanics
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Q1) You walk north across campus for 200 meters, then turn and walk west for 150 meters. What is your resultant displacement?
Q2) Which of the following characterizes a vector resultant?
A) larger than either component
B) usually 90 degrees
C) a velocity
D) the adjacent leg in a right triangle
Q3) A runner pushes off of the ground with a force of 500 N at an angle of 30<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>. How much of this force is directed vertically? How much is horizontal?
Q4) What is the resultant displacement if a hiker walks 250 m north, turns and walks 300 m east?
A) 390.5 m at 40<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
B) 390.5 m at 50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
C) 550 m at 40<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
D) 550 m at 50<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>
Q5) Name at least three vector quantities that are important in each of the following activities: soccer getting a box out of a cupboard walking
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Chapter 11: The Description of Human Motion
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Q1) Which is an example of linear motion in sport?
A) leg movements of a sprinter
B) movement of center of gravity of a diver
C) arm movements of a shot putter
D) movement of the center of gravity of a putted golf ball
Q2) Which best describes the horizontal velocity of a projectile that is moving in the second half of a parabola?
A) decreasing
B) increasing
C) not changing
D) zero
Q3) Why can you hit a golf ball farther with a driver (#1 wood) than with a #9 iron?
Q4) What determines the type of motion of a freely moveable object?
A) amount of force applied
B) location of center of gravity
C) point at which force is applied
D) shape of object
Q5) Why is it important to strive for height when executing the long jump?
Q6) Why is it easier to hit a home run with the hands at the end of the bat rather than when "choking up"?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: The Conditions of Linear Motion
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Q1) Why will a steel ball bounce when dropped on a trampoline but not when dropped on a wooden floor?
Q2) Mechanical work involves a _____ and the _____ that it moves through.
A) force, distance
B) distance, velocity
C) speed, distance
D) acceleration, velocity
Q3) What causes the ball to curve when a pitcher throws a curve ball?
A) difference in the relative speed of the air on different, sides of the ball
B) Ghost of Bernoulli forces the ball to curve
C) form drag on the front of the ball
D) turbulence in the trailing air
Q4) What is weight?
A) friction times base of support
B) mass times acceleration due to gravity
C) gravitation times density
D) size times base of support
Q5) Why do one's feet drop if the head is lifted in a face floating position in swimming?
Q6) Why does one tend to shorten one's stride when walking on the ice?
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Conditions of Rotary Motion
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Q1) Why lift a heavy weight from the floor by flexing and then extending the knees rather than flexing at the hips and then lifting the trunk?
A) longer lever
B) less force available
C) shorter resistance arm
D) smaller angle of pull
Q2) Which of the following joint actions represents a third class lever?
A) ankle joint in the push-off of a jump
B) elbow joint in shot put
C) hip joint in lifting leg when stepping up on a bench
D) humeral joint in controlled adduction from an abducted position
Q3) Where would moment of inertia be found?
A) only in sports objects
B) in objects undergoing angular motion
C) in objects undergoing linear motion
D) only in humans
Q4) Why is it easier for a gymnast doing giant swings to stop in a handstand at the top of the bar than to stop in a long hang at the bottom of the bar?
Q5) Why do sprinters lean when running the curve on a track?
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Chapter 14: The Center of Gravity and Stability
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Q1) Why is it difficult (impossible) to bend over and touch one's toes with the heels and the buttocks against a wall?
Q2) What might you do to help you maintain your balance if you were suddenly pushed hard from behind?
Justify your answers.
Q3) Which of the following defines the line of gravity of the body?
A) intersection of cardinal sagittal & frontal planes
B) vertical line bisecting the body laterally
C) intersection of cardinal sagittal & frontal planes AND vertical line passing through center of gravity
D) intersection of cardinal sagittal & horizontal planes AND vertical line bisecting the body laterally
Q4) How might one adjust ones stance to increase stability in the following situations? standing on the deck of a boat standing on a bus which starts and stops suddenly preparing to move in an unknown direction
Q5) Name three things a basketball player might do in order to go from a stationary position to a fast run very quickly.
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Chapter 15: Kinesiology of Fitness and Exercise
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) psychological state has no effect on habitual standing posture
B) there is a relationship between habitual posture and extreme emotional states
C) habitual posture is rarely influenced by emotional state
D) psychological state is unlikely to influence posture in most normal individuals
Q2) What is the action of the gluteus medius and minimus on the side of the free leg in standing on one foot?
A) supporting the thigh in the flexed position
B) producing inward rotation for balance
C) maintaining the position of the weighted leg
D) supporting the pelvis on the free side
Q3) What is one of the possible consequences of marked postural deviations in alignment?
A) decreased circulation
B) stretching of the ligaments
C) imbalance of muscles
D) a decrease in tension
Short Answer Questions
Q4) Discuss two reflexes which may play a role in the erect standing posture.
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Chapter 16: Moving Objects: Pushing and Pulling
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Q1) What type of muscular exercise uses a weight machine with an irregular shaped cam?
A) isometric
B) isotonic
C) isokinetic
D) static
Q2) Which muscle is the individual trying to neutralize when doing a sit-up with the hips flexed as much as possible?
A) hamstrings
B) iliopsoas
C) gluteus maximus
D) abdominals
Q3) Describe an exercise for flexibility that uses the concept of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation. Explain your rationale for this choice of exercise.
Q4) What differences would exist between an exercise program whose goal is endurance and one for which strength is the program goal?
Q5) List and discuss four factors that must be considered in any evaluation of a particular exercise.
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Chapter 17: Moving Objects: Throwing, Striking, and Kicking
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Q1) Why should the arm motion in the shot put be simultaneous rather than sequential in nature?
Q2) Why is it more difficult to shoot a free throw from a seated position than from a stand?
Q3) Why is it often easier to stand from a seated position if the feet are brought as close to the chair as possible?
Q4) Which would be the most efficient manner in which to lift a heavy box?
A) grasp box at arms length
B) face box with elbows bent and arms close to body
C) turn side to box and lift with one arm
D) place one hand under box and one hand on top at arms length
Q5) Which of the following is the prime mover in elbow extension during the up phase of the pushup?
A) biceps brachii
B) pectoralis major
C) triceps brachii
D) brachialis
Q6) Why is it advisable to use the smallest number of segments possible when using a push-pull pattern for accuracy?
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Locomotion: Solid Surface
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Q1) Which segment should be the last to move and have the highest velocity in a throw?
A) hand
B) forearm
C) upper arm
D) trunk
Q2) Which muscles are responsible for the primary action of the humerus in the shoulder joint motion during the propulsive phase of the overarm throw?
1) anterior deltoid
2) subscapularis
3) latissimus dorsi
4) pectoralis major
5) posterior deltoid
6) teres major
A) 1, 2, 5
B) 1, 4, 6
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 4, 5, 6
Q3) Why should the pelvic girdle rotate before the arm comes through in executing a hard throw?
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Chapter 19: Locomotion: The Aquatic Environment
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Q1) What muscle action is involved in the movement of the knee joints in the power phase of the standing long jump?
A) concentric contraction of the knee flexors
B) concentric contraction of the knee extensors
C) eccentric contraction of the knee flexors
D) eccentric contraction of the knee extensors
Q2) What is the function of the quadriceps muscles when the heel contacts the ground in walking?
A) extend the lower leg at the knee joint
B) flex the lower leg at the knee joint
C) flex the thigh at the femoral joint
D) stabilize the knee against the reaction force from the floor
Q3) What makes it difficult for a runner to change either speed or direction?
A) torque
B) acceleration
C) inertia
D) velocity
Q4) Why should the foot of a runner strike the ground directly under the center of gravity if possible?
Q5) Why do sprinters use starting blocks instead of just pushing off the ground?
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Locomotion: When Suspended and Free of Support
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Q1) Why is a football lineman more likely to float than a marathon runner?
Q2) Which portion of the front crawl stroke contributes the most to stroke velocity?
A) kick
B) arm recovery
C) arm pull
D) action of the feet
Q3) Which lever class is demonstrated by the thighs in the flutter kick (down phase) during the front crawl?
A) 1<sup>st</sup> class
B) 2<sup>nd</sup> class
C) 3<sup>rd</sup> class
D) a force couple
Q4) Which of the following is true in the arm motion of a front crawl stroke?
A) pressing toward the bottom moves the body up
B) pressing toward the surface moves the body up
C) a high elbow causes great resistance
D) pressing backward moves the body backward
Q5) Why will one's feet drop if the head is lifted in a back float position in swimming?
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Chapter 21: Impact
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Q1) Why is it easier to rotate in a tuck position than a pike position?
A) angular displacement is less
B) angular momentum is less
C) angular velocity is greater
D) linear acceleration is greater
Q2) What will make it difficult for an astronaut to walk for exercise in a weightless environment?
Q3) How can a diver slow down the speed of rotation?
Q4) How may the height of the swing of a pendulum be increased?
A) increase radius on downswing, decrease on upswing
B) increase radius on downswing, increase on upswing
C) decrease radius on downswing, decrease on upswing
D) decrease radius on downswing, increase on upswing
Q5) How might a diver or gymnast initiate a twist about the vertical axis once airborne and rotating forward about the horizontal axis?
A) turn the head away from the rotating direction
B) tilt the body by raising the arm in the direction of the twist
C) tilt the body by raising the arm opposite the twisting side
D) the twist must be started before take off
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Chapter 22: Instrumentation for Motion Analysis
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Q1) Which of the following determines the amount of force required to stop an object in motion?
A) the mass of the object and the time of force application
B) the velocity of the object and its weight
C) the momentum of the object and the time of force application
D) the initial acceleration of the object
Q2) List the primary considerations in considering the effects of impact on the body.
Q3) What effect does tucking and doing a shoulder roll have during a fall?
A) maintaining the horizontal velocity
B) gradually decreasing the horizontal velocity
C) helping to regain balance
D) keeping the arms free from injury
Q4) How should the base of support be in order to maintain balance when landing from a jump or fall?
A) enlarged in a direction opposite the movement
B) decreased as much as possible
C) maintained at the original size
D) enlarged in the direction of the movement
Q5) Why do you land harder the farther you fall?
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