American Civilization I Test Preparation
Course Introduction
American Civilization I explores the origins and development of the United States from pre-Columbian times through the Reconstruction era. The course examines the diverse Indigenous cultures of North America, European exploration and colonization, the founding and growth of the British colonies, the causes and consequences of the American Revolution, the creation of the Constitution, and the challenges of nation-building. Emphasis is placed on social, political, economic, and cultural changes, including the impact of slavery, westward expansion, and reform movements, providing students with a foundational understanding of early American society and its enduring legacy.
Recommended Textbook
Created Equal A History of the United States Volume 1 5th Edition by Jacqueline Jones
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Chapter 1: First Founders
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Q1) __________ proved that a link existed between the Atlantic and Indian oceans.
A) Dias
B) Balboa
C) Columbus
D) Pizarro
Answer: A
Q2) Archaic Indians in North America domesticated __________.
A) horses
B) cattle
C) goats
D) dogs
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following was true of the Viking settlement in Vinland?
A) It was established as a military outpost.
B) It lasted almost two hundred years.
C) It was very small.
D) Its inhabitants never had any conflict with native peoples.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: European Footholds in North America, 1600-1660
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Q1) Peter Stuyvesant ruled the colony of __________ until 1664.
A) New Netherland
B) New France
C) Massachusetts
D) Maryland
Answer: A
Q2) Samuel de Champlain's actions in North America __________.
A) set back the progress of French colonization for decades
B) opened the door for English settlement in New York
C) led to an alliance with the Iroquois
D) sealed good relations between the French and the Huron
Answer: D
Q3) Juan de Oñate and his colonists expected to __________.
A) fight a war of conquest with the Pueblo Indians
B) find mountains of gold
C) settle in uninhabited land
D) convert the Pueblo Indians to Christianity
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Controlling the Edges of the Continent, 1660-1715
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Q1) Which of the following shaped demographic patterns in mid-seventeenth century British North America?
A) late marriage
B) high birth rates
C) strict immigration quotas
D) rising levels of child mortality
Answer: B
Q2) Louis XIV was known as the "__________."
A) Great King
B) Sun King
C) Golden King
D) Warrior King
Answer: B
Q3) What promise did the Iroquois make after King William's War?
A) to remain neutral during any future wars between England and France
B) to remain at peace for fifty years
C) to fight for the British in any future wars
D) to fight for France in any future wars
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: African Enslavement: The Terrible Transformation
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Q1) In 1750, roughly 12 percent of slaves in the North American colonies resided in the __________.
A) Deep South
B) Upper South
C) far West
D) North
Q2) In 1652, __________ passed a law limiting all involuntary service-for Europeans or Africans-to no more than ten years.
A) Maryland
B) Virginia
C) New York
D) Rhode Island
Q3) What convinced John Oglethorpe to oppose the slave trade?
A) his experiences in South Carolina
B) his conversion to Quakerism
C) his experiences as a slave trader
D) his encounter with Christian Priber
Q4) How did Britain's participation in the Atlantic slave trade evolve from 1640 to the 1730s?
Q5) What factors fueled the Stono Rebellion?
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Chapter 5: Colonial Diversity, 1713-1763
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Q1) During the first half of the eighteenth century, British North America __________.
A) surpassed the economic output of Britain itself
B) remained economically underdeveloped
C) developed a number of regional economies
D) developed a centralized overarching economy
Q2) By 1763, Marblehead, Massachusetts, had __________.
A) a fleet of a hundred ships
B) a thriving financial district
C) a population of more than 50,000
D) seven churches and more than fifty taverns
Q3) Horses were reintroduced to North America by the __________.
A) Spanish
B) Dutch
C) French
D) English
Q4) Describe the impact of the introduction of horses and guns on the Comanche.
Q5) Discuss the causes of rapid population growth in the English colonies in the eighteenth century.
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Chapter 6: The Limits of Imperial Control, 1763-1775
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Q1) The Proclamation Line of 1763 __________.
A) was welcomed by the upper classes of the Chesapeake colonies
B) forbid colonials settlers from moving west of the Ohio River
C) was strictly enforced by French officials
D) reserved all the land east of the Mississippi River for Indians
Q2) What 1781 event ended Spanish hopes for rapid expansion in California?
A) the Yuma Revolt
B) the Popé Uprising
C) the Stono Rebellion
D) Pontiac's Uprising
Q3) Spanish leaders established a token presence along the California coast in response to a perceived threat from __________.
A) Portugal
B) the Dutch
C) France
D) Russia
Q4) What measures did George Grenville take in an effort to impose order on Britain's American colonies?
Q5) Who were the Regulators and what did they want?
Q6) Describe the steps that led to Spanish colonization of the California coast.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Revolutionaries at War, 1775-1783
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Q1) Which of the following was a common feature of the new state constitutions?
A) the absence of guarantees of individual rights
B) weakened state legislatures
C) limits on the power of state governors
D) property qualifications of citizenship
Q2) American soldiers hotly debated the issue of the __________.
A) election of officers
B) length of military service
C) role of state militias
D) participation of women in combat
Q3) Which of the following was a consequence of the Battle of Bunker Hill?
A) It ended the siege of Boston.
B) It nearly broke the American will to fight.
C) It demonstrated that the British army was not invincible.
D) It brought France into the war on the American side.
Q4) The British southern strategy rested on the assumption that __________.
A) loyalty to the crown remained strongest in the South
B) the North would offer only weak resistance
C) plantation crops were critical to the American economy
D) the Americans would engage in large-scale, traditional battles
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Chapter 8: New Beginnings: the 1780s
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Q1) James Madison argued that minority opinions would fare best in which of the following?
A) a monarchy
B) a large nation
C) a small republic
D) a mighty empire
Q2) In 1783, many American soldiers were unhappy that __________.
A) they had not received long-overdue pay
B) Congress intended to extend their tours of duty by three years
C) Congress refused to give them promised land grants
D) they were not seen as heroes by the American people
Q3) The Northwest Ordinance of 1787 __________.
A) prohibited slavery north of the Ohio River
B) granted immediate statehood to four territories
C) was radically democratic
D) distributed land to poor Americans
Q4) How did James Madison select the amendments that would become the Bill of Rights?
Q5) Explain the source of the territorial dispute between Spain and the United States in the years after the Revolutionary War.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Revolutionary Legacies, 1789-1803
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Q1) Which of the following groups was most opposed to the Louisiana Purchase?
A) Federalists
B) Democratic-Republicans
C) slave owners
D) small farmers
Q2) On what basis did Jefferson oppose the Bank of the United States?
A) He did not think it was constitutional.
B) He did not think it would work well.
C) He thought it would weaken the economy.
D) He thought it was controlled by foreign interests.
Q3) __________'s cotton gin gave a tremendous boost to the southern plantation economy.
A) Samuel Slater
B) Henry Court
C) Robert Fulton
D) Eli Whitney
Q4) Detail the impact of the new political and economic climate on northern blacks.
Q5) What led to the violent conflict between whites and Indians in the Great Lakes region in the 1780s and 1790s? What was the ultimate outcome of these clashes?
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Chapter 10: Defending and Expanding the New Nation, 1804-1818
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Q1) The expansion of slavery westward was fueled by __________.
A) cotton cultivation
B) the diversification of the Lower South
C) rising European demand for tobacco
D) the iron and copper industries
Q2) How did the Non-Intercourse Act differ from the Embargo Act of 1807?
A) It was popular in New England.
B) It only targeted certain export products.
C) It allowed trade with France and England.
D) It allowed trade with most European countries.
Q3) The American victory at the Battle of __________ inspired "The Star Spangled Banner."
A) Saratoga
B) Yorktown
C) New York
D) Baltimore
Q4) In what ways was Speaker of the House Henry Clay typical of the war hawks?
Q5) What were the objectives of the Lewis and Clark expedition? How successful was it in achieving those objectives?
Q6) What led to the Market Revolution? Page 12
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Chapter 11: Society and Politics in the Age of the Common
Man, 1819-1832
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Q1) The American Colonization Society __________.
A) drew support from a variety of groups, including whites in the Upper South
B) advocated American expansion into the Caribbean
C) was founded by two black ministers
D) had the unanimous support of free blacks
Q2) Henry Clay believed that Indians __________.
A) were inferior to whites
B) should seek to assimilate into white society
C) had the same rights as all other Americans
D) had been repeatedly wronged by the U.S. government
Q3) How did free black communities in the North respond to the challenges of segregation and discrimination in the first three decades of the nineteenth century?
Q4) In the opinion of Sarah Hale, what was the source of women's influence on American life?
A) their role as nurturers and caretakers
B) their capacity for hard work
C) their desire for the same rights as men
D) their sexuality
Q5) What were the core values of early American Victorianism?
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Chapter 12: Peoples in Motion, 1832-1848
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Q1) Throughout the 1830s, the U.S. government pursued the policy of __________.
A) removing Indians from the Southeast
B) assimilating Indians into white society
C) forcing Indians to relocate to the Southeast
D) leaving Indians alone as much as possible
Q2) Who benefited the most from the emergence of public school systems in the 1830s and 1840s?
A) northern white children
B) northern black children
C) southern white children
D) midwestern white children
Q3) Between 1830 and 1850, __________ immigrants entered the United States.
A) 93,000
B) 152,000
C) 2.3 million
D) 5 million
Q4) How did public education emerge and develop in the 1830s and 1840s?
Q5) Describe the development of the American antislavery movement in the 1830s.
Q6) What were the key issues in the election of 1844?
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Q7) Who were the nativists and why did they oppose immigration and immigrants?
Chapter 13: The Crisis Over Slavery, 1848-1860
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Q1) Which of the following was banned under Indiana's state constitution in the 1850s?
A) migration of free blacks into the state
B) membership in abolitionist organizations
C) the advocacy of voting rights for women
D) discrimination in public accommodations
Q2) Which of the following helps explain the prosperity of southern plantations in the mid-nineteenth century?
A) high prices for cotton on the world market
B) acquisition of new territory by the United States
C) continual importation of African slaves
D) growing diversification in farming and production of natural resources
Q3) What core idea was at the heart of the Republican party?
A) the importance of diversity
B) racial equality
C) opposition to federal intervention in the economy
D) opposition to slavery in the western territories
Q4) What did the Supreme Court decide in the Dred Scott case? What were the implications of the ruling?
Q5) What challenges did Plains Indians face in the 1850s?
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Q1) William Tecumseh Sherman's march to the sea ended in __________.
A) Savannah
B) Charleston
C) Wilmington
D) Atlanta
Q2) Which of the following states remained within the Union?
A) North Carolina
B) Tennessee
C) Maryland
D) Virginia
Q3) In the North, the Emancipation Proclamation __________.
A) was greeted with general indifference
B) was seen by most whites as an act of desperation
C) spurred the enlistment of black men in the Union army and navy
D) made Lincoln the most popular man in the Union
Q4) The bloodiest day of the war occurred during the Battle of __________.
A) Antietam
B) Shiloh
C) Gettysburg
D) New Orleans
Page 17
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Q1) Under Lincoln's plan for Reconstruction, the Confederate states could form new governments when __________.
A) all military resistance ceased
B) 10 percent of the voting population of 1860 pledged allegiance to the United States and renounced slavery
C) 60 percent of adult black men had been registered to vote
D) they completed a ten-year period of probation
Q2) Republicans celebrated __________.
A) the right of all nations to self-determination
B) worker solidarity
C) regional diversity
D) the pursuit of individual economic self-interest
Q3) Postbellum black communities united around the principle that freedom from slavery should also mean __________.
A) full citizenship rights
B) total autonomy from southern whites
C) migration to the North
D) a slow transition to wage labor
Q4) Describe the Compromise of 1877. What were its consequences?
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Q1) Chester A. Arthur believed which of the following?
A) Centralized planning was the only solution to America's problems.
B) Personal morality was none of the government's business.
C) The government should do as little as possible.
D) Laissez-faire policies had their limits.
Q2) __________ promoted hunting activities that led to the near extinction of the buffalo.
A) The U.S. army
B) John D. Rockefeller
C) Railroads
D) The Homestead Act
Q3) Congress passed the Interstate Commerce Act after the Supreme Court had struck down state laws regulating __________.
A) telegraph companies
B) steamboat lines
C) mining companies
D) railroads
Q4) How did department stores reflect the new consumer culture of the late nineteenth century?
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Q5) What role did urban machines play in late nineteenth-century American cities?
Chapter 17: Challenges to Government and Corporate
Power, 1877-1890
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Q1) _______________ led the Knights of Labor in the 1880s.
A) Terence V. Powderly
B) Samuel Gompers
C) Henry George
D) Jacob Riis
Q2) Jacob Riis's How the Other Half Lives helped galvanize public support for which of the following?
A) social welfare programs
B) the temperance movement
C) slum clearance and housing codes
D) new restrictions on child labor
Q3) Why did reformers consider the Indian reservation system a failure? What did they want to put in its place?
Q4) The Supreme Court of the United States ruled that the San Francisco laundry licensing board had engaged in discriminatory application of the law in the case of
A) Koramatzu v. the United States
B) Tape v. Hurley
C) Ling Sing v. Washburn
D) Yick Wo v. Hopkins
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Chapter 18: Political and Cultural Conflict in a Decade of
Depression and War: the 1890s
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Q1) __________'s The Awakening prompted outrage among critics.
A) Stephen Crane
B) Henry James
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Kate Chopin
Q2) The Populist Party platform, endorsed at its Omaha convention in 1892, included which of the following?
A) limited coinage of silver and gold
B) the abolition of the income tax
C) government ownership of railroad companies
D) a temperance amendment to the Constitution
Q3) What explains why no viable workers' party or socialist movement emerged in late nineteenth-century America?
Q4) __________ rose to fame as a result of his "Cross of Gold" speech at the 1896 Democratic convention.
A) Marcus Hanna
B) Theodore Roosevelt
C) James G. Blaine
D) William Jennings Bryan
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Q5) What were the key elements of Booker T. Washington's "Atlanta Compromise"?
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Q1) The Supreme Court decision in Muller v. Oregon affirmed the principle of
A) protective legislation for women
B) one person, one vote
C) equal protection under the law
D) separate but equal accommodations
Q2) Which of the following was true of child labor in late nineteenth-century America?
A) Most child workers were employed in small shops and stores.
B) Efforts to restrict child labor were most successful in northern states.
C) Child labor had all but disappeared.
D) Child labor was ignored by Progressive reformers.
Q3) Which of the following had a strong influence on the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People?
A) the Niagara Movement
B) the Seneca Falls conference
C) the labor movement
D) the temperance movement
Q4) How did Henry Ford revolutionize automobile production?
Q5) What explains the influx of Jewish immigrants between 1880 and 1920?
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Chapter 20: War and Revolution, 1912-1920
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Q1) During the Great Migration more than half a million __________ moved from one part of the country to another.
A) yeoman farmers
B) African Americans
C) Irish Americans
D) Mormons
Q2) American desires in China __________.
A) were backed up with overwhelming military force
B) clashed with Britain's desire to keep Chinese trade open to all C) were supported by the Chinese nationalists
D) clashed with Japan's plans
Q3) The __________ Antitrust Act was passed in 1914 to supplement the 1890 Sherman Antitrust Act.
A) Roosevelt
B) Morgan
C) Clayton
D) Wilson
Q4) Why did the United States declare its neutrality at the beginning of World War I?
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Chapter 21: All That Jazz: the 1920s
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Q1) The Scopes trial centered on the __________.
A) role of the Klan in public life
B) publication of sexually explicit photographs
C) teaching of evolution in schools
D) enforcement of prohibition
Q2) In the poem "I, Too, Sing America," __________ challenged white America to accept African Americans.
A) Ethel Waters
B) Arna Bontemps
C) Langston Hughes
D) Alain Locke
Q3) Why did many women's rights activists oppose the Equal Rights Amendment?
A) It did not specifically address property rights.
B) It excluded African Americans and other minorities.
C) It would undercut efforts to gain special legislative protection for women.
D) It implied women needed special protection because they were inferior to men.
Q4) Describe the case of Buck v. Bell. What issues were at stake?
Q5) Explain the causes of the stock market crash. What role did the crash play in causing the Great Depression? What other factors were at play?
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Chapter 22: Hardship and Hope: the Great Depression of the 1930s
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Q1) Which of the following was true of the WPA?
A) It provided millions of jobs for the unemployed.
B) It was enormously unpopular.
C) It was struck down as unconstitutional in 1934.
D) It primarily benefited the wealthy.
Q2) Which of the following was true of the New Deal?
A) It drew on Progressive Era reform impulses for inspiration.
B) It shrunk the size of government.
C) It was opposed by a majority of the American people.
D) It ended the Great Depression.
Q3) Roosevelt's "fireside chats" were meant to __________.
A) reassure the American people
B) put pressure on Congress
C) influence wealthy and powerful individuals
D) reinforce the awesome power of the presidency
Q4) Why did FDR want to make changes to the Supreme Court?
A) He was worried the Court would strike down key elements of the New Deal.
B) There was considerable evidence the Court had become corrupt.
C) The Court had moved far to the political left.
D) The Court did not have any female or minority members.
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Chapter 23: Global Conflict: World War Ii, 1937-1945
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Q1) Discuss the opposition of the American public to intervention in Europe during the 1930s.
Q2) In the spring and summer of 1938, Hitler annexed __________ to the Third Reich.
A) Poland
B) Spain
C) Portugal
D) Austria
Q3) The Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor __________.
A) only destroyed a few ships and planes
B) was not a surprise to FDR
C) destroyed most of the U.S. Pacific fleet
D) destroyed all of the U.S. aircraft carriers
Q4) FDR created the Fair Employment Practices Commission to __________.
A) ensure equal pay for blacks and women
B) control wages in vital war industries
C) help unions organize wartime labor
D) arbitrate labor disputes and prevent strikes during the war
Q5) How did U.S. officials respond to Nazi persecution of Jews before the war? After the war had begun?
Page 26
Q6) What steps did the U.S. government take to build support for the war effort?
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Chapter 24: Cold War and Hot War, 1945-1953
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Q1) NSC-68 called for __________.
A) containment of the Soviet Union
B) the de-escalation of the arms race
C) the demilitarization of western Europe
D) fostering a fundamental change in the Soviet system
Q2) The U.S. decision to grant __________ independence in 1946 was put forward as a model of decolonization.
A) Okinawa
B) Puerto Rico
C) the Philippines
D) Taiwan
Q3) George Kennan linked Soviet hostility to __________.
A) resentment of American wealth
B) unhappiness over American military performance during World War II
C) traditional Russian insecurity
D) the paranoia of its leaders
Q4) What was NSC-68 and how did it help produce the American national security state?
Q5) How did the United States redefine national security after 1945?
Q6) Discuss the impact of the Red Scare on American politics and civil liberties.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Domestic Dreams and Atomic Nightmares, 1953-1963
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Q1) The Eisenhower Doctrine was developed with which of the following regions in mind?
A) Central America
B) Southeast Asia
C) the Middle East
D) Africa
Q2) In 1959, revolutionary leader Fidel Castro established a regime in _________ based on socialist principles.
A) Cuba
B) Guatemala
C) Haiti
D) Nicaragua
Q3) President Eisenhower tried to __________.
A) rein in the defense buildup
B) pass a sweeping civil rights measure
C) cut government spending in all areas
D) push the country to the far right
Q4) How did white Southerners respond to the Brown decision?
Q5) Describe the most important developments in American foreign policy during the Eisenhower administration.
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Chapter 26: The Nation Divides: the Vietnam War and Social Conflict, 1964-1971
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Q1) In the late 1950s, Ngo Dinh Diem was the __________.
A) ruler of South Vietnam
B) leader of the Viet Cong
C) Vietnamese puppet of the Soviet Union
D) ruler of North Vietnam
Q2) American public optimism about the war in Vietnam was crushed by which of the following?
A) the Tet Offensive
B) the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution
C) the Battle of Dien Bien Phu
D) the death of Ngo Dinh Diem
Q3) What did the slogan "black power" mean? How were the feelings behind the slogan expressed?
Q4) Gideon v. Wainwright (1963) established the right of impoverished prisoners to
A) have access to education
B) food stamps
C) health care
D) legal counsel
Page 29
Q5) What steps did President Johnson take to combat poverty and discrimination?
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Chapter 27: Reconsidering National Priorities, 1972-1979
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Q1) What was one purpose of CREEP?
A) to spy on the Nixon administration
B) to undermine civil rights organizations
C) to play political dirty tricks
D) to destabilize foreign governments
Q2) Which of the following cabinet departments was created by the Carter administration?
A) Department of Labor
B) Department of Education
C) Department of Energy
D) Department of Homeland Security
Q3) Which of the following was true of the Watergate scandal?
A) Nixon directed the cover-up from the beginning.
B) Nixon had no knowledge of the cover-up.
C) Nixon only became aware of the cover-up after it was well under way.
D) Nixon tried to stop the cover-up.
Q4) How did Congress attempt to reassert its power over foreign policy in the 1970s?
Q5) Describe the emergence of the environmental movement in the 1970s.
Q6) Why did Nixon seek to improve U.S. relations with China?
Q7) Why did the American economy go into a prolonged decline in the 1970s?
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Q1) Which of the following was true of the new immigrants of the 1970s and 1980s?
A) Most were highly educated.
B) Most came for political reasons.
C) Most came from Asia.
D) Most came with few financial resources.
Q2) Fifty percent of the new immigrants came from __________.
A) Eastern Europe
B) Latin America and the Caribbean
C) Asia
D) Canada and Western Europe
Q3) Reagan saw __________ as the source of most of the world's problems.
A) the Soviet Union
B) Islamic extremism
C) corporate greed
D) authoritarian dictators
Q4) Which of the following goals helped unify the Republican party in 1980?
A) an unhindered private sector
B) a strengthened social safety net
C) a return to isolationism
D) an end to poverty in America
Page 31
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Chapter 29: Post-Cold War America, 1991-2000
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Q1) __________ ran as the Reform party candidate in 1992.
A) Donald Trump
B) Newt Gingrich
C) Ross Perot
D) Al Gore
Q2) Which of the following medical breakthroughs took place in the 1990s?
A) Scientists solved the problem of drug-resistant bacteria.
B) Scientists developed a vaccine for polio.
C) Scientists successfully cloned a sheep.
D) Scientists developed a cure for HIV-AIDS.
Q3) Which of the following was a notable foreign policy success for President Clinton?
A) mediation in Northern Ireland
B) intervention in Rwanda
C) intervention in Libya
D) mediation between Israel and the Palestinians
Q4) What was the Contract with America? How did President Clinton respond to Republican efforts to implement the programs outlined in the Contract?
Q5) How did Americans in the bottom half of the income ladder fare in the 1990s?
Q6) Why was the outcome of the 2000 presidential election so controversial?
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Chapter 30: A Global Nation in the New Millennium
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Q1) The key factor in ecological transformation between 1900 and 2000 was
A) population growth
B) rising sea levels
C) a mini ice age
D) genetic mutation
Q2) Which of the following was true of African Americans in the early twenty-first century?
A) African Americans had achieved economic parity with their white counterparts.
B) Roughly one-third of African Americans were middle class.
C) Most African Americans lived in the rural South.
D) Most African Americans believed that racism was a thing of the past.
Q3) Which group of Americans was most comfortable with the acceptance of homosexuality?
A) young Americans
B) older Americans
C) African Americans
D) Hispanic Americans
Q4) Describe President Bush's domestic agenda in his first term.
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