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Allied Health Terminology introduces students to the fundamental vocabulary used in the allied health professions. This course covers medical prefixes, suffixes, word roots, and abbreviations commonly encountered in clinical and administrative healthcare settings. Students learn to define, interpret, and use medical terms related to anatomy, physiology, pathology, diagnostics, and treatment procedures. Emphasis is placed on accurate spelling, pronunciation, and understanding of terminology for effective communication among healthcare professionals, as well as with patients and families. By the end of the course, students are equipped to comprehend and utilize medical language confidently in various allied health environments.
Recommended Textbook
Quick and Easy Medical Terminology 8th Edition by Peggy C. Leonard
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14 Chapters
1119 Verified Questions
1119 Flashcards
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80 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dermatoplasty is:
A) any disease of the skin
B) pertaining to the skin
C) skin grafting
D) the science that studies the skin
Answer: C
Q2) A drug or agent that is capable of producing a complete or total loss of feeling is called an:
A) anesthesia
B) anesthetic
C) anesthetist
D) esthetic
Answer: B
Q3) A term that means vomiting is:
A) amnion
B) emesis
C) endocrine
D) forensic
Answer: B
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that means an individual with congenital absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes is:
A) albino
B) aphasia
C) hemolytic
D) nullipara
Answer: A
Q2) You have a patient who brings her legs toward the middle of the body. Which term best describes this movement?
A) abduction
B) adduction
C) extension
D) flexion
Answer: B
Q3) _____ means pertaining to the head.
Answer: cephalic
Cephalic
Q4) The destruction of tissue by electrical current is called _____.
Answer: electrolysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 43-year-old woman with breast cancer is undergoing treatment. Which of the following is the treatment of tumors using radiation to destroy cancer cells?
A) invasive procedure
B) pharmaceutical
C) radiography
D) radiation oncology
Q2) A patient with hypertension has his blood pressure checked at the doctor's office. The reading was 210/90. The number 210 is referred to as the:
A) diastolic pressure
B) pulse
C) respiratory rate
D) systolic pressure
Q3) Subjective evidence as perceived by the patient is a:
A) prognosis
B) sign
C) specimen
D) symptom
Q4) _____ means impenetrable to radiation.
Q5) Listening for sounds within the body with a stethoscope is called _____.
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Sample Questions
Q1) A term that describes the position of structures that are nearest their origin or point of attachment is:
A) caudad
B) cephalad
C) frontal
D) proximal
Q2) A patient complains of frequently having "writer's cramp" while taking notes in class. This is referred to as:
A) chiroplasty
B) chiropodist
C) chiropody
D) chirospasm
Q3) Leukopenia means :
A) a malignant disease of the blood-forming organs
B) a deficiency of white blood cells
C) an increase in the number of white blood cells
D) white blood cells in the urine
Q4) A blood platelet is termed a(n) _____.
Q5) _____ means in front and above.
Q6) A substance that prevents coagulation is a(n) _____.
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that means pertaining to a rib and a vertebra is:
A) costal
B) costovertebral
C) spondylocostal
D) sternocostal
Q2) A chronic disease involving the bones and joints is:
A) chondrarthritis
B) arthrochondritis
C) osteoarthritis
D) osteochondritis
Q3) Which of the following muscle types are under the voluntary control of a person?
A) cardiac
B) skeletal
C) smooth
D) visceral
Q4) A term that means below the breastbone is:
A) infraclavicular
B) subcostal
C) subscapular
D) substernal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electric shock used to terminate cardiac arrhythmias is called:
A) cardiopulmonary bypass
B) cardioversion
C) electrocardiography
D) positron emission
Q2) Surgical repair of the aorta is called _____.
Q3) A 55-year-old man had which device implanted in his chest to detect sustained ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation and deliver a low-energy shock to the heart, restoring the normal rhythm?
A) automated external defibrillator
B) cardioverter-defibrillator
C) electrocardiogram
D) pacemaker
Q4) Thrombophlebitis is:
A) a thrombotic embolus
B) formation of a blood clot in a cavity of the heart
C) inflammation of a vein associated with a blood clot
D) inflammation of veins in the anal canal
Q5) _____ means blockage.
Q6) Removal of the tonsils is a(n) _____.
Page 8
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Q1) Pulmonary lobectomy is:
A) a percutaneous biopsy
B) excision of a lobe of the lung
C) removal of lung tissue by puncture of a suggestive lesion
D) surgical removal of a lung
Q2) A 78-year-old man with COPD receives oxygen through a tube that is worn over the ears with application at the nose. This is referred to as:
A) endotracheal intubation
B) a nasal cannula
C) nasopharyngeal intubation
D) orotracheal intubation
Q3) A respiratory condition characterized by paroxysmal dyspnea and wheezing is called:
A) asthma
B) bronchitis
C) emphysema
D) influenza
Q4) _____ means pertaining to the throat.
Q5) A weak voice is referred to as _____.
Q6) Pertaining to the windpipe is called _____.
Page 9
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Q1) The term GI series refers to the use of contrast agents to evaluate the:
A) gallbladder
B) gastrointestinal tract
C) pancreas
D) salivary glands
Q2) A speech language pathologist is evaluating a person's ability to eat and suspects the person has a defective esophagus. This can be achieved with the help of radiology using a:
A) barium swallow study
B) colonoscopy
C) esophagoscopy
D) gastroscopy
Q3) Enterostasis is:
A) small pouches in the intestinal wall
B) stoppage or delay in passage of food through the intestine
C) ulceration of the esophagus
D) ulceration of the small intestine
Q4) _____ means excessive hunger.
Q5) _____ is defined as inflammation of the liver.
Q6) Inflammation of the large intestine is called _____.
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Q1) A 72-year-old man suffers urethral obstruction and requires surgical creation of a new opening into the bladder for drainage. What is the term for this surgical procedure?
A) cholecystostomy
B) cystostomy
C) nephrostomy
D) urethrostomy
Q2) A term for excessive secretion and discharge of urine is:
A) polyuria
B) pyuria
C) renal failure
D) urination
Q3) The formation of an opening into the kidney is referred to as a(n) _____ or a(n)
Q4) Urinary incontinence is:
A) complete failure of the kidney to perform its function
B) the inability to empty the bladder
C) the inability to hold urine in the bladder
D) only partial functioning of the kidney
Q5) _____ means pertaining to the bladder.
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Q1) Surgical rupture of the fetal membranes is called:
A) amnion
B) amniotomy
C) colporrhaphy
D) cesarean section
Q2) The study of diseases of the female reproductive organs is called:
A) gynecology
B) obstetrics
C) orchidism
D) penology
Q3) A 63-year-old woman discovers a fistula between her rectum and vagina. The adjective for this type of fistula is:
A) cystovaginal
B) rectovaginal
C) urethrovaginal
D) vesicovaginal
Q4) A newborn infant up to age 6 weeks is called a(n) _____.
Q5) _____ is defined as an inflammation of a uterine tube.
Q6) The surgical removal of the uterus is a(n) _____.
Q7) A herniation of the bladder through the vaginal wall is called a(n) _____.
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Q1) The term necrosis means :
A) a condition of lifelessness
B) an examination to determine the cause of death
C) death of tissue or bone that is surrounded by healthy parts
D) the production and release of substances by injured cells
Q2) Which is the term for a sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, progressively enlarging scar caused by excessive collagen during tissue repair?
A) keloid
B) nevus
C) pediculosis
D) verruca
Q3) The outermost skin layer is the _____.
Q4) What is the word for removal of foreign material and dead or contaminated tissue from an infected or traumatic lesion until surrounding healthy tissue is exposed?
A) debridement
B) necrosis
C) pyemia
D) rhytidectomy
Q5) A benign fatty tumor is called a _____.
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about the peripheral nervous system?
A) It connects the brain and spinal cord with receptors which detect sensations.
B) It is a division of the endocrine system.
C) It is well protected by the skull.
D) It is the same as the central nervous system.
Q2) A morbid fear of closed places is:
A) acrophobia
B) agoraphobia
C) claustrophobia
D) pyrophobia
Q3) A neurosurgeon performed this surgery which involved moving cerebrospinal fluid from one area to another using a tube or an implanted device. This procedure is referred to as:
A) a biopsy
B) a craniotomy
C) stereotactic radiosurgery
D) ventriculoperitoneal shunt
Q4) A type of nerve that is considered the largest in the body is the _____ nerve.
Q5) _____ is sexual perversion in general.
Q6) Pertaining to the brain is referred to as _____.
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Q1) A patient reports she has been having difficulty smelling since her cold started. This impairment is referred to as:
A) anosmia
B) hyperosmia
C) olfactoritis
D) rhinitis
Q2) A 14-year-old boy who is on the high school swim team is complaining of pain in his ear. His physician diagnoses the pain as swimmer's ear, resulting from exposure to a fungus. The term for this condition is:
A) otitis media
B) otomycosis
C) otorrhea
D) otosclerosis
Q3) _____ is defined as poor vision at night or in dim light.
Q4) What does ocular mean?
A) of, pertaining to, or affecting the eye
B) pertaining to hearing
C) pertaining to the cornea
D) pertaining to the iris
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Q1) A patient exhibits exophthalmos and tests indicate an increased activity of the gland located in the neck. Which if the following medicines may be an effective intervention?
A) antidiuretics
B) antithyroid drugs
C) cortisone
D) thyroxine
Q2) _____ is the term describing normal thyroid function.
Q3) Epinephrine is synonymous with _____.
Q4) Frequent urination is referred to as _____.
Q5) Increased thirst is called _____.
Q6) Which of the following is a general term that means diminished release of a chemical substance by a gland?
A) hyperglycemia
B) hypersecretion
C) hypoglycemia
D) hyposecretion
Q7) A(n) _____ is the removal of the thyroid gland.
Q8) A(n) _____ is the surgical removal of a gland.
Q9) _____ is defined as increased blood sugar.
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