Allied Health Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course offers an introduction to the diverse field of Allied Health, exploring the wide range of professions that support and complement primary healthcare delivery. Students will gain an understanding of the roles, responsibilities, and collaborative nature of allied health professionals such as medical technologists, physical therapists, occupational therapists, radiographers, respiratory therapists, and others. Emphasis is placed on the interdisciplinary approach to patient care, principles of healthcare ethics, communication skills, and the impact of technology and policy on allied health services. The course also provides insight into current trends, educational pathways, and career opportunities within the allied health sector.
Recommended Textbook
Comprehensive Medical Assisting 6th Edition by Wilburta Q. Lindh
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1893 Verified Questions
1893 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Medical Assisting Profession
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Q1) Which of the following does a license do?
A)Protects the practitioner from lawsuits
B)Indicates that a student has completed his practicum.
C)Defines scope of practice
D)Indicates that a student meets the criteria outlined in the CARE bill
Answer: C
Q2) To ensure the highest quality medical assistant education and employment preparedness, standards and guidelines were set through which of the following organizations?
A)AAMA
B)AMT
C)CAAHEP
D)AMA
Answer: C
Q3) Why do you need a credential?
A)A credential allows you to work in your state.
B)A credential is required for graduation.
C)A credential signifies recognition of competency.
D)A credential guarantees a job.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Health Care Settings and the Health Care Team
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Q1) Currently, more than what percentage of PCP practices are recognized as PCMH's by the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)?
A)5%
B)8%
C)15%
D)30%
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following specialties evaluates body tissue
A)Pathology
B)Surgery
C)Preventive Medicine
D)Pediatrics
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT considered a type of managed care operation?
A)Health maintenance organization
B)Preferred provider organization
C)Group practices
D)Independent provider association
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Coping Skills for the Medical Assistant
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of short-duration stress?
A)Accomplishing tasks within maximum time limits
B)Helping to focus on details
C)Helping to achieve difficult goals
D)Assisting to perform at best levels
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following best describes the order of occurrence in the GAS theory of adaptation?
A)Fight or flight, alarm, return to normal, exhaustion
B)Exhaustion, alarm, fight or flight, return to normal
C)Alarm, fight or flight, exhaustion, return to normal
D)Alarm, fight or flight, return to normal, exhaustion
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following goals are focused and have precise boundaries?
A)Specific goals
B)Attainable goals
C)Measured goals
D)Realistic goals
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication Skills
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Q1) Which of the following must be present to achieve effective verbal and nonverbal communication?
A)Masking
B)Clustering
C)Congruency
D)Projection
Q2) Facial expression is considered one of the most important and observed nonverbal communicators.Why is this?
A)Expressions vary by culture.
B)One knows when you do not agree.
C)People cannot hear if they cannot see your face.
D)Each facet of the face sends a nonverbal message.
Q3) Which of the following is the person who decodes the message?
A)Sender
B)Message
C)Receiver
D)Messenger
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Chapter 5: The Therapeutic Approach to the Patient With a Life-Threatening Illness
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate issue to discuss with patients facing a life-threatening illness?
A)Alternative methods of treatment
B)Health care directive and durable power of attorney
C)Planning for friends' needs
D)Discussing personal finances
Q2) Which of the following is a likely treatment for cancer?
A)Surgery
B)Radiation
C)Chemotherapy
D)b and c
E)All of the above
Q3) To which of the following categories of patients does the Patient Self-Determination Act pertain?
A)Patients in nursing homes
B)Patients at personal homes
C)Patients receiving care from Medicare/Medicaid institutions
D)Patients receiving only hospice care
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Chapter 6: Legal Considerations
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Q1) Which of the following is a written order naming a specific date, time, and reason to appear in court?
A)Contract
B)Testimony
C)Tort
D)Subpoena
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the four Ds of negligence?
A)Deposition
B)Derelict
C)Damage
D)Duty
Q3) Which of the following best describes a child patient who is a minor?
A)Patient who has reached the age of majority
B)Patient who is an emancipated minor
C)Patient who has not reached the age of majority
D)Patient who is a mature minor
Q4) Domestic violence occurred.
A) subject to criminal law
B) subject to civil law
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Chapter 7: Ethical Considerations
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Q1) In the course of a physical examination, a provider discovers that his patient has a sexually transmitted disease, and he reports this information to the State Board of Health.
A) ethical
B) unethical
Q2) On the subject of ethics regarding abortion, which of the following is true?
A)A physician cannot be forced to perform an abortion.
B)Employees may be forced to assist in an abortion if instructed by the physician to do so.
C)A woman does not have a legal right to an abortion in the first trimester.
D)None of the above.
Q3) sexual activity between family members
A) neglect
B) physical
C) emotional/psychological
D) sexual
E) financial
F) sexual exploitation
G) incest
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Emergency Procedures and First Aid
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Q1) Which of the following is the most appropriate assessment for the symptoms of cold and clammy skin, profuse perspiration, pain radiating into the left shoulder or the jaw, and nausea?
A)Epileptic seizure
B)Heart attack
C)Diabetes
D)Stroke
Q2) Which of the following is the condition that occurs as a result of an excess of insulin and an insufficient amount of sugar circulating through the bloodstream?
A)Insulin shock
B)Hyperglycemia
C)Diabetes
D)Acidosis
Q3) Which of the following is NOT the recommended choice for ingested poison?
A)ipecac
B)activated charcoal
C)call poison control
D)none of the above
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Chapter 9: Creating the Facility Environment
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the services of the office, the function of medical staff members, measures to take in case of an emergency, and other issues that patients may need to consider?
A)Textbook
B)Sign
C)News item
D)Brochure
Q2) Who should be called when you are unsure about security measures, both during and after office hours?
A)Patients for their opinion
B)Local law enforcement
C)EMS services
D)Providers for their preferences
Q3) Approximately how much of a provider's time will be spent treating the elderly by 2020?
A)50 percent
B)75 percent
C)25 percent
D)40 percent
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Chapter 10: Computers in the Medical Clinic
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Q1) WiFi
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding defragmentation of a computer system?
A)It removes blank spaces left on the hard drive from deleted files.
B)It is easily done using a disk defragmenter included with the operating system (OS).
C)It can be performed in a very short period of time.
D)It should be performed during a time when the office is closed.
Q3) Which of the following must be installed on the computer or provided by the operating system to convert data output from one device into a format compatible with another device?
A)Server
B)Driver
C)Printer
D)Mouse
Q4) satellite
A) hardwired system
B) wireless system
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Chapter 11: Telecommunications
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Q1) scheduling patient test
A) medical assistant
B) provider
Q2) Which of the following best describes a system that answers the call and provides the caller with a choice of departments or services that can be accessed by pressing a specified number on the touch-tone telephone?
A)Facsimile machine
B)Automated routing unit
C)Electronic mail
D)Answering service
Q3) What information is the medical assistant required to obtain on a new patient contacting the office?
A)Patient's name
B)Name of referral source
C)Daytime telephone number
D)All of the above
Q4) information about the practice
A) medical assistant
B) provider
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Chapter 12: Patient Scheduling
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Q1) Which of the following best describes the purpose of screening?
A)Evaluate patients when they come to the office for a routine visit.
B)Determine urgency of call and care needed.
C)Arrange all patients in schedule as soon as possible.
D)Allow emergency patients only for same-day appointments.
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of using scheduling software programs?
A)Software can select the next available appointment.
B)Software can search for appointments by patient name.
C)The staff can view multiple schedules at the same time.
D)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following best describes one of the patients' most frequently voiced frustrations with medical clinics?
A)Providers cancel appointments too frequently.
B)Medical assistants are often abrupt and discourteous.
C)Patients have excessive waiting times.
D)Patients are too often not diagnosed correctly.
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Chapter 13: Medical Records Management
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Q1) Which of the following is a filing method used to identify and separate items to be filed in small subunits?
A)File folder
B)Identification label
C)Out sheets
D)Indexing units
E)Cross reference
Q2) How many indexing units apply to the name and title, John W.Williams, M.D.?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
E)Five
Q3) Which of the following is the appropriate place for filing an item that does not have enough in number to warrant an individual folder?
A)Incoming correspondence
B)Outgoing correspondence
C)Miscellaneous
D)Dead letter
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Written Communications
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Q1) Which of the following is not a common envelope size?
A)6 3/4
B)7
C)8 1/2
D)10
Q2) Which of the following procedures is NOT followed after the mail is opened?
A)Stamp to indicate date received.
B)Attach the envelope to the letter.
C)Give the envelope with contents in it to the physician.
D)If the address is not included on the letter, write it on.
Q3) How many paragraphs are in the body of the letter and are they spaced correctly?
A)Two; yes
B)Two; no
C)Three; yes
D)Three; no
Q4) Which of the following is a correct example of the reference initials notation?
A)WL/jg
B)WL/JG
C)wl/jg
D)wl/JG
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Medical Documents
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a common type of transcribed medical report?
A)History and physical report
B)Progress notes
C)Pathology report
D)Consultation letter
E)Diagnostic laboratory report
Q2) Turnaround times for hospital reports fall into three categories.Which one is NOT a category?
A)ASAP
B)STAT
C)Aged
D)Current
Q3) temporary anatomic diagnosis
A) radiology report
B) operative report
C) autopsy report
D) pathology report
E) H & P
F) consultation
G) discharge summary
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Chapter 16: Medical Insurance
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Q1) Which of the following is medical insurance for the spouse and unmarried dependent children of a veteran with permanent total disability resulting from a service-related injury?
A)Medicaid
B)Workers' Compensation
C)TRICARE
D)CHAMPVA
Q2) Which of the following best describes policies that are supplementary to Medicare insurance?
A)Interim
B)Medicaid
C)TRICARE
D)Medigap
Q3) Which of the following best describes insurance policies that provide coverage on a fee-for-service basis?
A)Traditional
B)Group
C)Managed care
D)Indemnity
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many procedure codes would apply to the preceding scenario?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
E)Five
Q2) Which of the following is the claim form used for filing inpatient admissions claims?
A)CMS 1500
B)UB-04
C)CMS 1490
D)HCFA 1500
Q3) Which of the following information is NOT included in coding?
A)Visit complexity
B)Diagnosis for visit
C)Specific procedures
D)Counseling
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Daily Financial Practices
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Q1) A patient is called about an NSF check.He states he is very sorry and asks what he can do.Which of the following types of checks would the medical assistant ask him to bring to the office as a guaranteed payment for the returned check?
A)Cashier's
B)Certified
C)Voucher
D)Traveler's
Q2) A patient's check is returned for insufficient funds.Which of the following applies to the patient account balance after the amount of the NSF check is posted and an entry is made in the adjustment column?
A)Account balance is decreased.
B)Account balance is increased.
C)Account balance does not change.
D)Adjustment is added
Q3) The encounter form is also known as the:
A)Charge slip
B)Multipurpose billing form
C)Superbill
D)All of the above
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Which of the following must collect the money from the patient if the medical office pursues payment through small claims court?
A)Court
B)Insurance company
C)Clinic
D)Court appointment collection agency
Q2) Match the appropriate description with the federal regulation. Fair Debt Collection Practices Act
A) legal guidelines governing telephone collections
B) shows installment payments and interest agreements
C) bankruptcy laws
Q3) Which of the following best describes a monthly billing system?
A)Patients are billed monthly in alternating cycles.
B)All bills are completed in a few days and mailed.
C)Accounts are divided into groups and billed monthly, but in different weeks.
D)Accounts are divided up alphabetically and mailed on the 15th of the month
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Chapter 20: Accounting Practices
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Q1) Which of the following applies to the financial report that shows cumulative monthly profit and loss?
A)Aging analysis
B)Balance sheet
C)Cost ratio
D)Income statement
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about a computerized accounting system?
A)Can be customized to the individual care setting
B)Replaces all other systems immediately
C)Can include the most common procedure and diagnostic codes
D)Automatically creates day-end summaries
Q3) What is created by totaling debit balances and credit balances to confirm that total debits equal total credits?
A)Trial balance
B)Balance sheet
C)Accounts payable
D)Ledger statement
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Chapter 21: Infection Control and Medical Asepsis
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Q1) parasites
A) causes athlete's foot and ringworm
B) examples are protozoa and metazoa
C) identified by characteristic shapes
D) intracellular parasites larger than viruses
E) requires a living cell for reproduction
Q2) Which of the following applies to the set of infection control guidelines that should be used by all health care professionals?
A)Standard precautions
B)Transmission precautions
C)Body substance isolation
D)Universal precautions
Q3) The science that studies the history, cause, and patterns of infectious diseases is known as what?
A)Histology
B)Diseaseology
C)Epidemiology
D)Infectology
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Chapter 22: The Patient History and Documentation
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Q1) subjective
A) weigh subjective and objective findings
B) vital signs
C) symptoms and patient's complaint
D) further tests and treatment
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about interviewing?
A)Do not worry about comfort level.
B)Allow the patient to tell anecdotes.
C)Do not waste time explaining terms or concepts.
D)Guide the conversation and keep it on track.
Q3) You have picked up your equipment and the supplies necessary to obtain a medical history from a new patient.You introduce yourself to the patient after confirming her identity.Then you attempt to put her at ease.What is the next thing you should do?
A)Wash your hands.
B)Begin to ask questions.
C)Explain the purpose and importance of information gathering.
D)Ask about allergies.
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24
Chapter 23: Vital Signs and Measurements
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Q1) Which of the following best describes how to prevent patient cross-contamination when using electronic thermometers?
A)Clean with cold water.
B)Soak in disinfectant for 20 minutes.
C)Use a disposable plastic sheath.
D)Store in a dry closed container.
E)Clean in soap and hot water.
Q2) Why is height and weight measured at the same time?
A)Helps a patient stay on a diet
B)Essential to diagnosis
C)Assists physician in evaluating patient's body changes
D)Most physicians want it
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding body temperature?
A)Pyrexia and hypothermia are synonyms for fever.
B)Febrile denotes that a fever is not present.
C)The gradual return of an elevated body temperature to normal levels is lysis.
D)Fever means the body is not working properly.
E)Fluctuation of body temperature between periods of normal and fever is remittent fever.
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Page 25
Chapter 24: The Physical Examination
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Q1) listening directly to body sounds
A) inspection
B) palpation
C) percussion
D) auscultation
E) mensuration
Q2) The provider completes the head and neck examination.He asks you to position the patient for a pelvic examination and Pap smear.Which of the following is the most appropriate position?
A)Sims'
B)Dorsal recumbent
C)Supine
D)Lithotomy
E)Prone
Q3) used for examination of the anterior side of body
A) Supine
B) Dorsal recumbent
C) Lithotomy
D) Fowler's
E) Proctologic
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Chapter 25: Obstetrics and Gynecology
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Q1) cordocentesis
A) produces an image of the fetus
B) takes a sample of tissue
C) used to rule out neural tube defects
D) takes a fluid sample for congenital anomalies
E) aspirates blood from fetal umbilical cord vessels
Q2) Factors associated with placenta previa include which of the following?
A)Advancing maternal age
B)Maternal smoking
C)Maternal exercising
D)a and b only
Q3) Which of the following terms describes the 6 weeks after a woman has delivered a child?
A)Gravida
B)Parturient
C)Puerperium
D)Primipara
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Chapter 26: Pediatrics
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Q1) Which of the following is the name of the vaccine given for chickenpox?
A)DPT
B)IPV
C)HiB
D)HBV
E)Varicella
Q2) Which muscle is the preferred site for injections on infants to 2 years of age?
A)Deltoid
B)Dorsal gluteal
C)Vastus lateralis
D)Ventrogluteal
Q3) Which of the following is generally treated by getting plenty of rest, increasing fluids, and eating a well-balanced diet?
A)Otitis media
B)Tonsillitis
C)Chickenpox
D)Asthma
E)Common colds
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28
Chapter 27: Male Reproductive System
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Q1) What test would a physician do first to help determine whether there is some pathology of the prostate?
A)Urinalysis
B)Testicular exam
C)Digital rectal exam
D)PSA test
Q2) Which of the following is a common procedure of removing a portion of the vas deferens to cause the male to be sterile?
A)Vasectomy
B)Ureterostomy
C)Rectopexy
D)Prostatotomy
Q3) Which of the following terms is incorrectly spelled?
A)Semen analysis
B)Prostrate gland
C)Vasectomy
D)Transilluminator
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Chapter 28: Gerontology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a major problem of aging in the gastrointestinal system?
A)Malnourishment
B)Poor eating habits
C)Peristalsis increases
D)Slowed metabolism
Q2) Poor hygiene, insomnia, and inability to concentrate are all symptom's of what condition?
A)Dementia
B)Anxiety
C)Alzheimer's disease
D)Depression
Q3) Which of the following is NOT one of the expected changes with the aging patient?
A)Decreased vision
B)Hearing changes
C)Decreased muscle strength
D)Increased appetite
E)Fragile skin
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Chapter 29: Examinations and Procedures of Body Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is examined by a sigmoidoscopy?
A)Stomach
B)Small intestine
C)Large intestine
D)Sigmoid colon
Q2) Which of the following is a gelatinous mass, located behind the lens in the eye?
A)Vitreous humor
B)Aqueous humor
C)Anterior chamber
D)Posterior cavity
Q3) Which type of cast is an inflatable immobilizer used for sprains?
A)Synthetic casts
B)Fiberglass casts
C)Air casts
D)None of the above
Q4) conjunctivitis
A) nearsightedness
B) bacterial infection
C) lens loses transparency
D) irregular lens curvature
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Chapter 30: Assisting With Minor Surgery
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Q1) pulls back edges of a wound
A) scopes
B) scalpel
C) bayonet forceps
D) retractors
E) probes
Q2) Which of the following would be used when an infected wound needs to remain open for drainage?
A)Wick
B)Sponge
C)Gauze
D)Dressing
Q3) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when changing a patient's dressing?
A)Pull off the dressing stuck to the wound very quickly.
B)Loosen the dressing stuck to the wound with sterile water.
C)Cleanse the wound site with bleach solution.
D)Loosen the dressing stuck to the wound with antibacterial ointment.
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32
Chapter 31: Diagnostic Imaging
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Q1) A technique that allows radiologic procedures to be done without using regular x-ray film is known as what?
A)Computed radiography
B)Computer tomography
C)Magnetic reasoning
D)Ultrasound
Q2) Which of the following is NOT considered to have a greater imaging detail than conventional radiographs?
A)MRI
B)CT
C)Ultrasound
D)Barium enema
Q3) What is the benefit of CAD mammograms?
A)The images are much clearer than traditional mammograms.
B)The computer may detect something which was missed.
C)They are less expensive than traditional mammograms.
D)They are more reliable than traditional mammograms.
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Chapter 32: Rehabilitation and Therapeutic Modalities
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Q1) turning a body part on its axis
A) circumduction
B) dorsiflexion
C) pronation
D) rotation
E) supination
Q2) Which of the following is NOT true regarding ultrasound?
A)It is high-frequency acoustic vibration.
B)It is effective for acute or chronic pain and injuries.
C)It relaxes muscle spasms.
D)It travels best through bone.
E)It must be used carefully.
Q3) When measuring for axillary crutches, what is the elbow angle and the distance from of the top of the crutch to the armpit?
A)15 degrees and 2 inches below armpit
B)20 degrees and 1 inch below armpit
C)20 degrees and 2 inches below armpit
D)30 degrees and 3 inches below armpit
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Chapter 33: Nutrition in Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of which of these nutrients is to build and repair tissues?
A)Minerals
B)Vitamins
C)Proteins
D)Carbohydrates
Q2) Which of the following can result from bulimia?
A)Dental caries
B)Amenorrhea
C)Alopecia
D)Low blood pressure
Q3) Which of the following is the approximate percentage of the population you tell her has some form of diabetes mellitus?
A)2
B)9
C)7
D)12
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Chapter 34: Basic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is considered a disadvantage of natural herbals on the market?
A)Public comments
B)May not be standardized
C)DSHEA reviews
D)Peer review literature
Q2) Which of the following describes the characteristics of over-the-counter medications?
A)May be used beyond the expiration date
B)Are safe to use with other drugs
C)May be used to avoid seeking needed medical care
D)Have only one active ingredient
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the medical assistant working with medications in the ambulatory care setting?
A)Know basic pharmacology.
B)Know the law regarding controlled substances.
C)Have knowledge of drug classifications.
D)Dispense medications.
E)Educate patients regarding medications.
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Chapter 35: Calculation of Medication Dosage and Medication Administration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Solve for x:6:12 = x:36
A)12
B)18
C)20
D)24
Q2) Which of the following would be a safe area to inject a medication?
A)Side of the thigh
B)Upper arm of a mastectomy patient
C)Buttock of a paralyzed patient
D)Upper inner quadrant of the buttock
Q3) What type of diabetes is non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)?
A)Type I
B)Type II
C)Type III
D)Type IV
Q4) Which of the following best describes a prescription?
A)Directions for dosage of a drug
B)Written legal document that gives directions of a medication
C)Order allowing refills
D)Order for scheduled drugs
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Chapter 36: Cardiac Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where is the lead for a V6 reading placed?
A)Fourth intercostals space at right sternal margin
B)Fifth intercostals space at midclavicular line
C)Horizontal to V4 at left anterior axillary line
D)Horizontal to V4 at left midaxillary line
Q2) If the electrocardiograph is properly standardized, the standardization mark should be how high?
A)5 mm
B)10 mm
C)15 mm
D)20 mm
Q3) Which of the small devices sends a small dose of electricity to jar the heart back into a normal rhythm?
A)Pacemaker
B)ICD
C)CCT
D)CMR
E)ECG
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Chapter 37: Regulatory Guidelines for Safety and Quality in the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to CLIA regulations, which of the following is NOT considered a category regarding the level of complexity?
A)Low complexity
B)Waived
C)Moderate complexity
D)High complexity
Q2) lab meets CLIA regulations after inspection
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
Q3) no moderate complexity tests are performed by the provider
A) COW
B) PPMP
C) Registration
D) Accreditation
E) Compliance
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Chapter 38: Introduction to the Medical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following laboratory specialties performs testing for identification of bacteria and fungi?
A)Chemistry
B)Immunohematology
C)Microbiology
D)Hematology
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action when using a microscope?
A)Lower the oculars toward the slide while looking through the oculars.
B)View the field first using low power.
C)Focus first using 40x.
D)Adjust the fine adjustment before adjusting the coarse adjustment.
Q3) How is the light intensity adjusted?
A)Use high power.
B)Use oil immersion.
C)Use condenser.
D)Use the fine adjustment.
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Chapter 39: Phlebotomy: Venipuncture and Capillary
Puncture
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vacuum is created when plunger is pulled.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
Q2) Which of the following is NOT one of the arteries of the arm?
A)Radial
B)Brachial
C)Femoral
D)Ulnar
Q3) What is the gauge of needles most commonly used in venipuncture?
A)20, 21, and 16
B)18, 20, and 21
C)20, 21, and 22
D)21, 22, and 23
Q4) This is used less often in venipuncture.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
Q5) Do not need to use a blood transfer device.
A) syringe method
B) vacuum tube system
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Chapter 40: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true about performing an accurate "sed rate" procedure?
A)Tube must be read at exactly 2 hours.
B)The venous sample must be well-mixed
C)Test should be set up within 3 hours after the blood is drawn.
D)Test is conducted at 50 degrees Fahrenheit.
Q2) Which of the following is a true statement regarding immunity?
A)Passively acquired immunity is through fighting off disease.
B)Actively acquired immunity is through an injection.
C)Immunity is always permanent.
D)None of the above
Q3) anisocytosis
A) Cells show marked variation in shape.
B) Cells show marked variation in size.
C) Cells have proper amount of hemoglobin.
D) Cells have large, pale central area.
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42
Chapter 41: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a classification for urine specimens?
A)First morning
B)Fasting/timed
C)24-hour
D)Voided specimen
Q2) Which of the following is the most frequently performed procedure in the medical office laboratory?
A)Hematology
B)Urinalysis
C)Chemistry
D)Microbiology
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an example of an artifact seen in urine?
A)Hair
B)Fibers
C)Powder
D)Crystals
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Chapter 42: Basic Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct specimen and diagnostic test used to identify ova and parasites is
A)Urine and a culture and sensitivity
B)Vaginal and culture
C)Stool and culture
D)None of the above
Q2) Which of the following is the next step when there is more than one pathogen growing in a bacterial culture?
A)Use a dissecting microscope.
B)Wait an additional 36 hours to identify the predominant organism.
C)Obtain another specimen.
D)Set up a subculture and separate bacteria to another media.
Q3) Which of the following terms best describes infections acquired in hospitals?
A)Floral
B)Bacterial
C)Serratia
D)Nosocomial
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Chapter 43: Speciality Laboratory Tests
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which test measures the concentration of urea in the blood?
A)PKU
B)TB
C)EIA
D)BUN
Q2) Systemic inflammation is the predominant cause of what disease?
A)Blood clots
B)Irritable Bowel Syndrome
C)Heart disease
D)Diabetes
Q3) Which of the following is an incorrect step in obtaining a blood sample for PKU testing?
A)Make a puncture approximately 2-3 mm deep in the lateral heel.
B)Soak blood completely through the paper.
C)Use as many blood drops as necessary to fill each circle.
D)Allow PKU test card to completely dry.
Q4) Which of the following is true regarding a 7-mm reaction to the Mantoux test?
A)Positive
B)Doubtful
C)Negative
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Chapter 44: The Medical Assistant As Clinic Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would most likely NOT be included on an office brochure designed to welcome a new patient to the practice?
A)History of the practice
B)Financial policies
C)Acceptable insurance plans
D)Scheduling policies
E)Map and directions
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate action of an office manager who makes a mistake?
A)Denies the mistake
B)Ignores the mistake
C)Admits the mistake and seeks to prevent it from happening again
D)Assigns someone else to correct the mistake
Q3) adjusting vacation schedules
A) personnel data
B) medical records
C) employee time sheets
D) financial and billing reports
E) equipment and supplies requests and inventory data
F) staffing requirements and appointment schedules
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Chapter 45: The Medical Assistant As Human Resources Manager
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Sample Questions
Q1) Encourage participation by paying employees for time.
A) recruiting and hiring personnel
B) orienting and training personnel
C) dismissing employees
D) complying with safe working conditions
E) planning employee training and education
Q2) Present the office policy manual and discuss its key elements.
A) recruiting and hiring personnel
B) orienting and training personnel
C) dismissing employees
D) complying with safe working conditions
E) planning employee training and education
Q3) Which of the following is the most common probationary period for a new employee?
A)1 week
B)1 month
C)1 to 2 months
D)6 to 9 months
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Chapter 46: Preparing for Medical Assisting Credentials
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following operates under the authority of the AAMA endowment and evaluates medical assisting programs according to standards adopted by the endowment and the CAAHEP?
A)ABHES
B)MAERB
C)TFTC
D)AAMA
Q2) Which of the following is NOT included in the criteria for applicants sitting for the RMA examination?
A)Be a graduate of an accredited high school
B)Be of good moral character
C)Be at least 16 years of age
D)None of the above
Q3) Which of the following best describes the purpose of certification for medical assistants?
A)To set a standard for clinical practice
B)To set a standard for evaluating an individual's professional competence
C)To set a standard for all schools
D)To set a standard for providers
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Chapter 47: Employment Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are danger signs of an employer that could make your work life difficult except:
A)Questions regarding your accomplishments
B)Disrespectful behavior
C)Signs of insecurity by the manager
D)Negative attitude in statements
Q2) Which of the following best describes the purpose of a cover letter?
A)Directing the letter to the office manager
B)Obtaining an interview
C)Following up after an interview
D)Seeing whether positions are available
Q3) Twitter is used by what percentage of recruiters?
A)30%
B)55%
C)75%
D)10%
Q4) helped
A) power verb
B) not a power verb
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