

Allied Health Sciences
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary course that introduces students to the diverse roles and responsibilities of professionals working within the allied health field, including areas such as medical laboratory technology, radiology, physical therapy, nutrition, and respiratory care. The course covers fundamental concepts in anatomy and physiology, principles of patient care, ethical and legal considerations in healthcare, and collaborative healthcare delivery models. Emphasis is placed on interdisciplinary teamwork, communication skills, and the importance of evidence-based practice in achieving optimal patient outcomes. Through lectures, case studies, and practical experiences, students gain a comprehensive understanding of the allied health professions and their critical contributions to the healthcare system.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 5th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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23 Chapters
1975 Verified Questions
1975 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following contain mixtures of the energy nutrients except:
A)beef.
B)potato.
C)oil.
D)legumes.
Answer: C
Q2) You are at a friend's house and he offers to share a snack.You eat some even though you aren't hungry primarily because of:
A)emotional state.
B)associations.
C)social interaction.
D)ethnic heritage.
Answer: C
Q3) Which type of physical activities are recommended by the ACSM for developing and maintaining fitness?
A)cardiorespiratory, strength, and flexibility training
B)a balance of low-, moderate-, and vigorous-intensity activities
C)aerobic physical activity only
D)a combination of team sports and brisk walking
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stomach empties into the:
A)ileum.
B)cecum.
C)jejunum.
D)duodenum.
Answer: D
Q2) Outline and trace the path food follows through the digestive tract from one end to the other.
Answer: not answered
Q3) Which of the following factors is not required for optimal health and performance of the digestive system?
A)adequate sleep
B)enzyme supplements
C)mental state
D)nutrition
Answer: B
Q4) Explain what determines the rate of digestion of the energy nutrients.
Answer: not answered
Q5) Explain the benefits of intestinal microflora to health.
Answer: not answered

4
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Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fructose is:
A)the sweetest of the sugars.
B)known as milk sugar.
C)abundant in whole grains.
D)also known as dextrose.
Answer: A
Q2) The stored form of glucose in the body is called:
A)glycogen.
B)insulin.
C)fat.
D)muscle.
Answer: A
Q3) The main function of carbohydrates in the body is to:
A)furnish the body with energy.
B)provide material for synthesizing cell walls.
C)synthesize fat.
D)insulate the body to prevent heat loss.
Answer: A
Q4) Describe how fiber-rich foods help with weight control.
Answer: not answered
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Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research has shown that fat substitutes are always effective at promoting weight loss.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Connie wants to increase her intake of omega-3 fatty acids in an effort to prevent heart disease, hypertension, and cancer.Which of the following would you recommend to Connie?
A)increase consumption of vegetable oils
B)take omega-3 supplements
C)eat a variety of different types of coldwater fatty fish
D)increase consumption of nuts
Q3) Excessive consumption of saturated fat or trans fat may result in:
A)weight loss due to poor absorption.
B)reduced serum cholesterol levels.
C)storage of the essential fatty acid, linoleic acid.
D)an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
Q4) Describe the health effects of omega-3 fatty acids, and recommendations regarding their intake.
Q5) What is meant by saturation of a fatty acid?
Q6) Describe the various functions of fat in the human body.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following foods will contribute to the calcium intake of a vegan except:
A)dark green, leafy vegetables.
B)fortified soy milk.
C)legumes.
D)deep orange and yellow fruits and vegetables.
Q2) A measure of the amount of amino acids absorbed from a given protein intake is called:
A)protein quality.
B)net protein utilization.
C)protein digestibility.
D)protein efficiency ratio.
Q3) The DRI committee that reviewed the safety of amino acid supplements was unable to set Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for safe supplement use.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the difference between an essential and a nonessential amino acid.
Q5) Under what conditions will dietary protein not be used efficiently by the body, regardless of the quality? Why does this occur?
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals would have the slowest basal metabolic rate?
A)a 51-year-old male
B)a 20-year-old inactive woman
C)a 25-year-old pregnant woman
D)a 3-year-old child
Q2) As the body shifts to partial dependence on ketones for energy during prolonged fasting:
A)the body increases its energy output.
B)the body conserves its lean tissue.
C)the body increases its metabolism.
D)the body's loss of lean tissue increases.
Q3) The amount of fat a person's body stores when excess food is consumed:
A)is directly proportional to weight.
B)is not influenced by GI functioning.
C)always equals 1 pound per 3500 kcal.
D)varies widely among individuals.
Q4) Voluntary activities normally require less energy in a day than basal metabolism does.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Weight Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) The consequences of purging may include any of the following except:
A)erosion of the teeth.
B)a ruptured esophagus.
C)dangerously low potassium concentrations.
D)a ruptured appendix.
Q2) James is trying to gain weight.Which of the following would you suggest to help James with his goal?
A)Eat peanut butter instead of lean meats.
B)Drink black coffee.
C)Skip beverages.
D)Choose cream cheese-filled pastries for breakfast.
Q3) Compared to refined foods, high-fiber, unprocessed, or lightly processed foods aid in weight loss because they provide:
A)less absorption, resulting in fewer kcalories.
B)a faster transit time through the intestinal tract.
C)more kcalories in a larger amount of food.
D)bulk and satiety for fewer kcalories.
Q4) Ghrelin is a hormone produced in the stomach that acts much like leptin.
A)True
B)False

Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin A toxicity is likely to result from:
A)consuming too many dark green and deep orange vegetables.
B)overconsumption of whole grains.
C)consuming large amounts of fortified foods or vitamin A supplements.
D)drinking too much orange juice.
Q2) Phytochemicals:
A)are essential nutrients.
B)are bioactive compounds found in foods.
C)have no biological activity in the body.
D)are nonessential nutrients.
Q3) Coenzymes are important because:
A)they function as antioxidants.
B)they facilitate vitamin absorption.
C)they function as catalysts.
D)they facilitate chemical reactions.
Q4) Absorption of _____ requires the presence of intrinsic factor.
A)vitamin B<sub>6</sub>
B)vitamin D
C)vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
D)vitamin A
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the foods listed, the best source of phosphorus is: A)tofu.
B)chicken. C)noodles.
D)cheese.
Q2) Iodine deficiency is associated with all of the following except: A)weight gain.
B)cretinism.
C)suffocation.
D)goiter.
Q3) Magnesium deficiency may occur as a result of all of the following except: A)vomiting.
B)diarrhea. C)constipation.
D)alcohol abuse.
Q4) Water is involved in all of the following except: A)regulating body temperature.
B)converting lipids to amino acids.
C)serving as a solvent for minerals and vitamins.
D)acting as a lubricant around joints.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span: Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you counsel Mrs.Chamberlin regarding the "morning sickness" she is experiencing, you will suggest she:
A)limit the amount of fat in her diet.
B)take iron supplements on an empty stomach.
C)limit meals to three a day.
D)eat the foods she wants when she feels like eating.
Q2) The social worker at the prenatal clinic determines that Deborah is eligible for WIC (Special Supplemental Nutrition Program for Women, Infants, and Children).This program provides:
A)nutrition counseling.
B)vouchers redeemable for nutritious foods.
C)referrals to health and social services.
D)all of the above
Q3) An infant who weighs 8 pounds will require about _____ kcalories per day.
A)290
B)360
C)420
D)800
Q4) Describe the energy, carbohydrate, and protein needs of a pregnant woman.
Q5) Discuss the potential health problems of a low-birthweight infant.
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span: Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the problems associated with providing nutritious lunches to students at school.
Q2) Adult heart disease is a major pediatric problem.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which food(s) from the MyPlate dairy foods group reliably supplies vitamin D?
A)milk
B)yogurt
C)cheese
D)all of the above
Q4) Vegan diets for children must be planned carefully because otherwise they may not provide enough:
A)protein.
B)fiber.
C)kcalories.
D)sodium.
Q5) Children who eat nutritious breakfasts function better in school than their peers who do not.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span: Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) As people grow older, the use of medicines becomes commonplace, thus increasing the potential for diet-medication interactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe why energy needs decline with advancing age.
Q3) Older adults face a greater risk of vitamin D deficiency than young people due to:
A)low consumption of meat.
B)low intake of vegetables.
C)limited exposure to sunlight.
D)low intake of fiber.
Q4) Moderate energy restriction results in all of the following changes except:
A)reduced body weight.
B)reduced body fat.
C)reduced blood pressure.
D)reduced insulin sensitivity.
Q5) Discuss the possible roles of nutrition in the prevention of Alzheimer's disease.
Q6) Why is dehydration a risk for older adults?
Q7) Discuss ways that older adults can stretch their food dollars.
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr.Wilson's low albumin level may indicate a depletion of:
A)body fat.
B)body proteins.
C)vitamin D.
D)iron.
Q2) The study of the effects of diet on gene expression is called:
A)gene expression.
B)nutritional genomics.
C)nutritional science.
D)gene therapy.
Q3) If the nurse is unable to obtain a patient's weight and the patient states her weight, the nurse understands that:
A)five pounds should be added to the self-reported weight.
B)self-reported weights are valid.
C)the weight should be documented as self-reported.
D)it is impolite to ask a patient's weight.
Q4) Describe the types of information collected in a nutrition screening.
Q5) Describe the major biochemical tests of protein status and briefly discuss their major advantages and disadvantages.
Page 15
Q6) List and describe the steps in the nutrition care process.
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not indicate the need to adjust a modified diet?
A)a patient is not satisfied with the diet
B)a patient is not tolerating the diet
C)a patient complains of poor appetite
D)a patient's condition changes
Q2) Using the Mifflin-St.Jeor equation for men (below) and a stress factor of 1.3, estimate the energy needs of Mr.Briggs, who is 33 years old, is 173 cm tall, and weighs 67 kg. RMR = [9.99 * weight (kg)] + [6.25 * height (cm)] - [4.92 * age (years)] + 5
A)1593 kcal
B)1918 kcal
C)2071 kcal
D)2493 kcal
Q3) Which of the following foods should be excluded from Mr.Salazar's diet for the time being?
A)nuts
B)ice cream
C)pudding
D)potatoes
Q4) Differentiate between regular and modified diets.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amino acids in a parenteral solution provide _____ kcal per gram.
A)2
B)3.4
C)4
D)4.4
Q2) Enteral formulas may be used orally to supplement a patient's diet.When this occurs, _____ becomes an important consideration.
A)taste
B)cost
C)osmolality
D)kcalorie content
Q3) The nurse recognizes _____ as a possible preventive measure for aspiration pneumonia in tube-fed clients.
A)using nasoenteric feedings
B)using a large-diameter transnasal tube
C)delivering the feeding intermittently
D)diluting the formula with water
Q4) Identify and discuss the major factors that influence the selection of an enteral formula.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a cause of poor food intake in persons with severe COPD?
A)medications
B)dyspnea
C)lower energy needs
D)change in taste perception
Q2) The energy expenditure of acutely stressed patients may be raised due to all of the following except:
A)fever.
B)mechanical ventilation.
C)presence of open wounds.
D)inactivity.
Q3) Medical nutrition therapy for COPD involves all of the following except:
A)promoting a healthy body weight.
B)preventing muscle loss.
C)improving food intake.
D)relieving chronic cough.
Q4) Why are intestinal tube feedings preferred over gastric feedings for patients with acute respiratory failure?
Q5) What is a "stress factor"?

18
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Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following foods may be indicated for individuals with dysphagia except:
A)cream of wheat.
B)scrambled eggs.
C)brownies with nuts.
D)pureed chicken.
Q2) Frequent complications of gastric surgery include all of the following except:
A)bone disease.
B)weight loss.
C)protein malabsorption.
D)iron-deficiency anemia.
Q3) Current research suggests that periodontal disease may increase the risk of developing:
A)heart disease.
B)renal failure.
C)arthritis.
D)dermatitis.
Nursing Exam Review Multiple Choice
Q4) Discuss the potential complications of gastritis.
Q5) Define dysphagia and explain the dietary treatment for this disorder.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial diet order for the client with acute pancreatitis should be:
A)clear liquids.
B)a fat-controlled diet.
C)nothing by mouth.
D)a regular diet.
Q2) Fat malabsorption may be accompanied by a deficiency of:
A)fat- and water-soluble vitamins, potassium, sodium, and iron.
B)fat- and water-soluble vitamins, magnesium, and iron.
C)fat-soluble vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and essential fatty acids.
D)calcium, potassium, sodium, and essential fatty acids.
Q3) A side effect of consuming a high-fiber diet is:
A)flatulence.
B)ostomy.
C)bacterial overgrowth.
D)diverticulosis.
Q4) Differentiate between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis and the appropriate dietary treatment for each.
Q5) Why are young people with cystic fibrosis short and very lean for their age?
Q6) Discuss the benefits of pre- and probiotics and their mechanisms of action.
Q7) Describe the dietary restrictions for a patient with celiac disease.
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe why ascites, portal hypertension, and esophageal varices occur in clients with cirrhosis.
Q2) Examples of common nutrient deficiencies seen as a result of alcohol abuse include all of the following except:
A)folate.
B)thiamin.
C)vitamin A. D)sodium.
Q3) One drink is equivalent to _____ ounces of beer.
A)4
B)6
C)10
D)12
Q4) What laboratory values should be monitored to assess liver function? How do these values change in liver disease?
Q5) Many patients with cirrhosis require medication or insulin to control hyperglycemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) People with diabetes are at increased risk for cardiovascular diseases because they:
A)tend to eat poorly.
B)have an increased tendency for thrombosis and abnormal ventricle function.
C)experience claudication and foot ulcers.
D)are usually unable to participate in any form of physical activity.
Q2) Which of the following glycated hemoglobin values is normal?
A)<6%
B)>6%
C)>7%
D)>8%
Q3) Though the exact cause of metabolic syndrome is unknown, it is believed to be associated with:
A)poverty.
B)obesity.
C)hypoglycemia.
D)liver disease.
Q4) Both the blood and the urine can be checked for the presence of ketones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse recognizes that an effective way to lower LDL cholesterol levels is to:
A)use reduced-fat margarine.
B)use margarines made with plant sterols.
C)switch from butter to margarine.
D)use butter instead of margarine.
Q2) The nurse feeding a client who has had a stroke observes that the client is having difficulty swallowing the foods on her tray.The nurse recognizes this as:
A)angina.
B)a TIA.
C)dysphagia.
D)cardiac cachexia.
Q3) Optimal resting blood pressure for adults is _____.
A)<105 over <55 mm Hg
B)<115 over <60 mm Hg
C)<120 over <80 mm Hg
D)<140 over <90 mm Hg
Q4) The most common cause of an aneurysm is high blood pressure.
A)True
B)False

Page 23
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common clinical effects of uremic syndrome include all of the following except: A)anemia.
B)mental dysfunctions.
C)restless leg syndrome.
D)hypokalemia.
Q2) One of the effects of nephrotic syndrome is a loss of vitamin D.This can result in _____ in children.
A)growth failure
B)poor appetite
C)rickets
D)type 1 diabetes
Q3) For clients on fluid-restricted diets who experience extreme thirst, you should suggest:
A)adding lemon juice to water to make it more refreshing.
B)drinking black coffee, as it has no kcalories.
C)eating salt-free saltines (soda crackers).
D)eating ice, as it doesn't count as a liquid.
Q4) Why is kcalorie intake extremely important in the nutrition care of clients with chronic kidney disease?
Q5) Discuss techniques to use in increasing clients' compliance with renal diets.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Nutrition, Cancer, and Hiv Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Herpes simplex is a fungal infection of the mouth and throat that often occurs in patients with HIV.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A durable power of attorney is used to:
A)state one's wishes about treatments one does or does not want at the end of life.
B)appoint a health care agent.
C)withhold CPR in the event of cardiopulmonary arrest.
D)allow a physician to write a DNR order.
Nursing Exam Review Multiple Choice
Q3) Patients who have undergone a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation:
A)are at less foodborne illness risk than other cancer patients.
B)have not received chemotherapy or radiation.
C)are being treated for breast cancer.
D)usually require nutrition support.
Q4) Recurrent bacterial pneumonia is classified as an AIDS-defining illness.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why should AIDS patients be concerned about food-borne illnesses?
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