Allied Health Sciences
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that encompasses a wide range of healthcare professions distinct from medicine, nursing, and pharmacy. This course introduces students to the foundational concepts, roles, and scopes of various allied health professions such as medical laboratory science, physiotherapy, radiography, occupational therapy, and respiratory therapy. Students will explore the principles of patient care, diagnostic procedures, therapeutic techniques, and the importance of multidisciplinary teamwork in delivering effective healthcare services. The course also covers topics related to healthcare ethics, communication skills, health promotion, and the evolving role of technology in allied health practices, preparing students for further specialization within the healthcare industry.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by
Elaine N. Marie
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29 Chapters
3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3758
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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118 Verified Questions
118 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best explanation for why cells are considered the smallest units of living things.
A) Cells are the simplest structure to fit all of the characteristic necessary to be considered alive.
B) Cells have the ability to reproduce identical copies of themselves in a process called mitosis.
C) Cells are highly ordered and complex.
D) Cells cannot be seen with the naked eye and are considered microscopic.
Answer: A
Q2) A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) It is wise to study anatomy alongside with physiology because ________.
A) it makes for more efficient use of students' and teachers' time
B) physiology is only explainable in terms of the underlying anatomy
C) anatomy and physiology are practically the same thing
D) to understand anatomy requires complete understanding of physiology
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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137 Verified Questions
137 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrogen bonds.
A)A
B)D
C)B
D)E
E)C
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a suspension?
A) salt water
B) rubbing alcohol
C) blood
D) cytosol
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
A) NaCl
B) H<sub>2</sub>O
C) CH<sub>4</sub>
D) NaOH
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomes uncoil to form chromatin.
A)Anaphase
B)Late prophase
C)Telophase
D)Early prophase
E)Metaphase
Answer: C
Q2) Your patient has a respiratory disease that has literally paralyzed the cilia.Explain why this patient would be at an increased risk for a respiratory infection.
Answer: Ciliated cells that live in the respiratory tract propel mucus,laden with dust particles and bacteria,upward and away from the lungs.If the cilia are paralyzed,bacteria remain in the lungs and may cause infection.
Q3) Compare a gap junction to a channel protein,how are they alike and how are the different?
Answer: Both allow ions and small molecules to pass through by diffusion.However,gap junctions are embedded within in the plasma membranes of two neighboring cells.The alignment and connection of the gap junctions between the neighboring cells allows the passage of ions and small molecules directly from one cell into another.
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________.
A) muscle
B) collagen
C) reticular
D) elastic
Q2) How can one tell the difference between stratified squamous epithelium and transitional epithelium?
Q3) Choose which tissue type likely functions to add support to an organ.
A) transitional
B) hyaline cartilage
C) cardiac muscle
D) stratified squamous epithelium
Q4) Elastic cartilage tissue is found in the walls of the large arteries that leave the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Endocrine glands are often called ducted glands.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Without macrophages,wound healing is delayed.Why?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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112 Verified Questions
112 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The 68-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital medical floor with a diagnosis of chronic bronchitis.His wife asks the nurse why his skin looks blue.How would you explain cyanosis to the patient and his wife?
Q3) Joe just burned himself on a hot pot.and the burn is quite painful.Joe's burn would best be described as a third-degree burn.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The epidermis consists of five layers of cells,each layer with a distinct role to play in the health,well-being,and functioning of the skin.Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?
A) stratum corneum
B) stratum granulosum
C) stratum lucidum
D) stratum basale
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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106 Verified Questions
106 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Create an analogy for the chemical composition of bone using highway construction.
Q2) Johnny fractured the lower third of his right tibia in a skiing accident.The soft tissues in the area were severely damaged and their surgical removal was necessary.After prolonged immobilization,it was found that Johnny was healing very poorly.The explanation offered by the orthopedic surgeon was that vascularization of the fracture site was still inadequate and good healing was absolutely dependent upon an adequate blood supply.Describe how a long bone receives its blood supply and trace the path of nutrient delivery to the osteocytes.
Q3) Bone fragments into many pieces.
A)Greenstick
B)Comminuted
C)Spiral
Q4) Sixty-five percent of the mass of bone is a compound called hydroxyapatite.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why are the bones of young children much more flexible than those of the elderly?
Q6) Compare the starts of intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification.
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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125 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.
A)Maxillae
B)Temporal bones
C)Sphenoid
D)Lacrimal bones
Q2) Allow cranial nerves that control eye movements to enter the orbit.
A)B
B)E
C)D
D)A
E)C
Q3) Attach to ribs.
E)E
Q4) How do the first two cervical vertebrae differ from other cervical vertebrae? What are their functions?
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Joint found only in the skull.
A)Syndesmosis
B)Gomphosis
C)Symphysis
D)Suture
Q2) Synarthrotic joints ________.
A) characterize all cartilaginous joints
B) are found only in adults
C) have large joint cavities
D) are immovable joints
Q3) An individual with a "double-jointed" thumb can pull it back towards the wrist much farther than normal.What does it mean to be "double-jointed?"
A) the additional joint present doubles the range of motion
B) articular cartilage at bone ends is replaced with hyaline cartilage
C) greater than normal production of serous fluid lubricates the joint and extends it
D) the joint capsules and ligaments are more stretchy and loose than normal
Q4) Synovial joints have six distinguishing features.What are they?
Q5) Why is muscle tone the most important stabilizing factor for most joints?
Q6) How can osteoarthritis be treated?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Both actin and myosin are found in the ________.
A)A band
B)Z discs
C)I band
D)Myosin
Q2) Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.
A) ATP energizes the sliding process
B) the site of calcium regulation differs
C) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium
D) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism
Q4) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
B) forming a chemical compound with actin
C) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
D) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments
Q5) Only ________ muscle cells commonly branch.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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100 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscle power depends mostly on the total number of muscle fibers (cells)in the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A young pregnant woman went to a childbirth class and the instructor informed them about strengthening the muscles of the pelvic floor.What are these muscles?
Q3) Which of the following muscles is NOT a member of the hamstrings group?
A) biceps femoris
B) semimembranosus
C) semitendinosus
D) vastus intermedius
Q4) At the grocery store a cute,little curly-haired child is standing behind you in line.You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you.Which tongue muscle did she use?
A) orbicularis oris
B) stylohyoid
C) genioglossus
D) hyoglossus
Q5) Bodybuilders are known for their "great quads." Describe the quadriceps muscles.
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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95 Verified Questions
95 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?
A) size of action potentials
B) origin of the stimulus
C) type of stimulus receptor
D) frequency of action potentials
Q2) What is the role of microglial cells and why are they so important in the CNS?
Q3) Involved in control of rhythmic activities such as breathing.
A)Parallel after-discharge circuit
B)Reverberating circuit
C)Diverging circuit
D)Converging circuit
Q4) May be involved in complex,exacting types of mental processing.
A)Parallel after-discharge circuit
B)Reverberating circuit
C)Diverging circuit
D)Converging circuit
Q5) What function is served by the increased axon diameter at the nodes of Ranvier?
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Q6) Because all action potentials are alike,how does the brain separate situations that require immediate attention from ordinary "positional" reports?
Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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138 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inferior point of termination of the spinal cord in an adult.
A)Conus medullaris
B)Cauda equina
C)Filum terminale
D)Cervical enlargement
Q2) Gray commissure.
A)D
B)A
C)C
D)B
E)E
Q3) The three basic regions of the cerebrum are the cerebral cortical gray matter,internal white matter,and the superior and inferior colliculi.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The axons from this area form the major pyramidal (corticospinal)tracts.
A)Primary (somatic) motor cortex
B)Hypothalamus
C)Thalamus
D)Prefrontal cortex
Page 14
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bulbous corpuscle.
A)Pacinian corpuscle
B)Ruffini endings
C)Meissner corpuscle
Q2) An adult patient shows Babinski's sign during a test of plantar reflex.How is Babinski's sign different than the normal response and what does the altered response indicate?
Q3) Innervates the superior oblique muscle.
A)E
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q4) The cranial nerve with a cervical origin (spinal cord)is the ________.
A) hypoglossal
B) vagus
C) glossopharyngeal
D) accessory
Q5) Describe the symptoms that may occur from lesions of the olfactory nerve,cranial nerve I.
Q6) The perineurium defines the boundary of a ________.
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers.
B) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral; parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.
C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers; parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers.
D) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS; parasympathetic ganglia are close to the visceral organs served.
Q2) Which of the following drug classes would be useful for smoking cessation products?
A) sympathomimetic agents
B) acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
C) nicotinic agents
D) parasympathomimetic agents (muscarinic agents)
Q3) The vasomotor tone of blood vessels is mostly under sympathetic control.
A)True
B)False
Q4) How is hypertension (high blood pressure)related to the ANS?
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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147 Verified Questions
147 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________.
A) brain stem reflex centers
B) visual cortex
C) motor cortex
D) back muscles
Q2) After head trauma from an automobile accident,a man has anosmia.Define anosmia.Why is this condition fairly common after such injuries and in cases of severe nasal cavity inflammation?
Q3) Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________.
A) skin
B) nose
C) ears
D) eye
Q4) The optic disc is forms a blind spot where the optic nerve leaves the eyeball.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Contraction of the ciliary muscle causes the lens to bend the light less.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The middle ossicle in the ear is the ________.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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129 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone has only one known effect: to stimulate milk production by the breasts?
A) oxytocin
B) estrogen
C) progesterone
D) prolactin
Q2) John is a 26-year-old man who begins to notice a progressive enlargement of feet,hands,cranium,nose,and lower jaw bone.His doctor recommends a pituitary gland operation.What is the most likely diagnosis? Why?
Q3) The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is NOT a true endocrine gland because ________.
A) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional
B) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location
D) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Blood
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126 Verified Questions
126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fibrous protein that gives shape to an RBC plasma membrane.
A)Prostaglandin derivates such as Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
B)Erythropoietin
C)Spectrin
D)Heparin
E)Interleukins and CSFs
Q2) Hemorrhagic anemias result from blood loss.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Fred's blood was determined to be AB positive.What does this mean?
A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma.
B) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.
C) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells.
D) His blood lacks Rh factor.
Q4) Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
A) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
B) They are nucleated.
C) They are phagocytic.
D) They have cytoplasmic granules.
Q5) List the most common causes of bleeding disorders.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atrioventricular (AV)node.
A)E
B)D
C)B
D)A
E)C
Q2) Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.
A) Connective tissue in the heart wall aids in the conduction of the action potential.
B) The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.
C) The fibrous cardiac skeleton forms the bulk of the heart.
D) The heart chambers are lined by the endomysium.
Q3) Tricuspid valve.
A)A
B)C
C)D
D)B
E)E
Q4) A patient is prescribed a calcium channel blocker to prevent angina (chest pain),by decreasing the demand for oxygen.Explain why.
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is ________.
A) shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea
B) always fatal
C) the form of shock caused by anaphylaxis
D) any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally
Q2) Which of the following is a type of circulatory shock?
A) vascular, due to extreme vasodilation as a result of loss of vasomotor tone
B) cardiogenic, which results from any defect in blood vessels
C) circulatory, where blood volume is normal and constant
D) hypovolemic, caused by increased blood volume
Q3) Runs through the armpit area,giving off branches to the axillae,chest wall,and shoulder girdle.
A)External jugular vein
B)Pulmonary trunk
C)Superior vena cava
D)Subclavian vein
E)Axillary artery
Q4) Describe the effect of hypovolemic shock on the blood vessels and the heart.
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Thoracic duct.
A)D
B)B
C)A
D)C
E)E
Q3) How does the lymphatic system both help and hinder the spread of cancer through the body?
Q4) Protein-containing fluid within lymphatic vessels.
A)Peyer's patches
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thoracic duct
D)Lymph
E)Spleen
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Q5) Describe the mechanisms by which lymphatic fluid is moved through the lymphatics.
Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.
A) Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.
B) Immunological memory is established by passive immunization.
C) The antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism.
D) A vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body.
Q2) All of the following are true of the classical pathway of complement activation except one.Select the one answer that does not describe the classical pathway of complement activation.
A) It is an example of overlap between innate and adaptive immune function.
B) Classical activation will result in enhanced inflammation, opsonization as well as formation of MAC proteins.
C) It requires that circulating antibodies are bound to antigens.
D) It activates T-helper cells by presenting antigen to them.
Q3) A group of at least 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in an inactive state and are a major mechanism for destroying foreign substances in the body are referred to as ________.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was admitted to the hospital with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.His PO<sub>2</sub> was 55 and PCO<sub>2</sub> was 65.A new resident orders 54% oxygen via the venturi mask.One hour later,after the oxygen was placed,the nurse finds the patient with no respiration or pulse.She calls for a Code Blue and begins cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).Explain why the patient stopped breathing.
Q2) The larynx contains ________.
A) lateral cartilage ridges called false vocal folds
B) the thyroid cartilage
C) an upper pair of avascular mucosal folds called true vocal folds
D) a cricoid cartilage also called the Adam's apple
Q3) How is the bulk of carbon dioxide transported in blood?
A) as carbonic acid in the plasma
B) as bicarbonate ions in plasma after first entering the red blood cells
C) chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin
D) chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells
Q4) After a long scuba diving session on a Caribbean reef,Carl boards a plane to Dallas.He begins to feel pain in his elbow on the flight back to Dallas.What is happening to him?
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is brought to an emergency room complaining of severe pain in her left iliac region.She claims previous episodes and says that the condition is worse when she is constipated,and is relieved by defecation.A large,tender mass is palpated in the left iliac fossa and a barium study reveals a large number of diverticula in her descending and sigmoid colon.What are diverticula,and what is believed to promote their formation? Does this woman have diverticulitis or diverticulosis? Explain.
Q2) The ducts that deliver bile and pancreatic juice from the liver and pancreas,respectively,unite to form the ________.
A) hepatopancreatic ampulla
B) bile canaliculus
C) pancreatic acini
D) portal vein
Q3) Dentin anchors the tooth in place.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The ________ ligament anchors a tooth in the alveolus of the jaw.
Q5) How is salivation regulated?
Q6) What is heartburn and what causes it?
Q7) The chief bile pigment is ________.
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Formation of ketone bodies.
A)beta oxidation
B)lipolysis
C)ketogenesis
D)lipogenesis
Q2) Contains ATP synthase rotor rings.
A)B
B)D
C)E
D)A
E)C
Q3) There are NO nutritionally complete proteins.All animal products should be eaten with plant material to make a nutritionally complete protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Glycolysis is best defined as a catabolic reaction based upon the ________.
A) conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid
B) conversion of glucose into carbon dioxide and water
C) formation of sugar
D) conversion of pyruvic acid into carbon dioxide and water
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An older man sees his doctor for severe pain in his lower abdominal or flank area,elevated temperature,and nausea.Exhaustive tests rule out abdominal obstructions and infections.Plain X-rays indicate a radiopaque (whitish)spot in the area of his right ureter.Diagnose his problem.Give suggested treatment and prognosis.
Q2) Aldosterone is a hormone that causes the renal tubules to reclaim sodium ions from the filtrate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood in the urine may be a symptom of bladder cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the choices below is not a function of the urinary system?
A) helps maintain homeostasis by controlling the composition, volume, and pressure of blood
B) maintains blood osmolarity
C) regulates blood glucose levels and produces hormones
D) eliminates solid, undigested wastes and excretes carbon dioxide, water, salts, and heat
Q5) Explain the role of aldosterone in sodium and water balance.
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Whereas sodium is found mainly in the extracellular fluid,most ________ is found in the intracellular fluid.
A) potassium
B) chloride
C) bicarbonate
D) iron
Q2) The phosphate buffer system is relatively unimportant for buffering blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Phosphate ions are highest in ________.
A)interstitial fluid
B)blood plasma
C)intracellular fluid
Q4) The thirst center in the brain is located in the hypothalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The main way the kidney regulates potassium ions is to excrete them.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins?
A) LH
B) GnRH
C) testosterone
D) FSH
Q2) Which of the following glands are responsible for 70% of the synthesis of semen?
A) the prostate
B) the seminal vesicles
C) the pituitary
D) the bulbourethral glands
Q3) The primary function of the testes is to produce testosterone.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following will occur after ovulation?
A) The corpus luteum prepares to become a corpus albicans.
B) The endometrium enters its secretory phase.
C) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only.
D) The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced.
Q5) The midpiece of the sperm tail contains mostly ________.
29
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A solid sphere of undifferentiated cells.
A)Trophoblast
B)Decidua basalis
C)Decidua capsularis
D)Inner cell mass
E)Morula
Q2) Leads to enhancement of sperm motility and increasing membrane fragility to enable enzyme release from acrosomes.
A)Implantation
B)Capacitation
C)Fertilization
D)Gastrulation
E)Cleavage
Q3) The placenta and its attached fetal membranes are collectively called the afterbirth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the events allowing monospermy.
Q5) List four factors that help to precipitate parturition (birth).
Q6) How are the metabolic needs of the implanted embryo provided for?
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Chapter 29: Heredity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74918
Sample Questions
Q1) Are there any afflicted females?
Q2) An allele that completely masks the expression of the other alleles is called
Q3) In meiosis the spermatozoa that are produced are genetically unlike each other and unlike the cell that produces them.This is one reason for the great variation among humans.What causes this effect?
A) chromosome segregation and independent assortment only
B) crossing-over and chromosome segregation only
C) crossing-over and independent assortment only
D) crossing-over, chromosome segregation, and independent assortment
Q4) Given the information in Figure 29.1,what is the phenotype ratio (assuming C is dominant and there is no incomplete dominance)?
A) 1:1:1:1
B) 1:2:1
C) 1:3
D) 4:0
Q5) Some segments of the Y chromosome have no counterpart on the X chromosome. A)True B)False
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