Allied Health Sciences
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Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that encompasses a wide range of healthcare professions distinct from medicine, dentistry, and nursing. This course offers students a comprehensive introduction to the roles, responsibilities, and skills of allied health professionals such as medical technologists, physical therapists, occupational therapists, radiographers, and respiratory therapists. Emphasis is placed on the foundational concepts of patient care, diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, teamwork in healthcare settings, ethical practice, and the integration of technology in clinical environments. Students will also explore the educational pathways, regulatory requirements, and career opportunities available within allied health, preparing them for further specialized training or immediate entry into the healthcare workforce.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 3rd Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction and Natural Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the major function of C-reactive protein (CRP)?
A) acts as an opsonin
B) binds hemoglobin
C) causes vasodilation
D) helps to form clots
Answer: A
Q2) Oxidative killing involves which of the following?
A) perforin and granzymes
B) activation of complement
C) direct cytokine-mediated killing
D) formation of reactive oxygen intermediates
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following acute phase reactants is an important clotting factor?
A) haptoglobin
B) ceruloplasmin
C) fibrinogen
D) alpha-2 macroglobulin
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Lymphoid System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antigen-independent differentiation of B cells occurs in the:
A) bone marrow
B) spleen
C) lymph node
D) Peyer's patches
Answer: A
Q2) A T cell that is rarely found in secondary lymphoid organs and recognizes a limited number of native epitopes is known as a(n):
A) helper T cell
B) gamma-delta T cell
C) cytotoxic T cell
D) alpha-beta T cell
Answer: B
Q3) Which marker would be found on pre-B cells?
A) CD3
B) (\(\mu\)) heavy chains
C) CD16
D) IgD
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Nature of Antigens and Major Histocompatibility Complex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for antigenic determinant is:
A) immunogen
B) epitope
C) antibody
D) polysaccharide
Answer: B
Q2) Naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B antibodies are thought to be due to exposure to which of the following?
A) heterophile antigens
B) haptens
C) alloantigens
D) autoantigens
Answer: A
Q3) A 50 kDa protein from a bacterial cell that has numerous different epitopes would be called:
A) hapten,but not antigen
B) hapten and antigen
C) antigen,but not immunogen
D) immunogen and antigen
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Antibody Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which represents an isotype of a heavy chain?
A) kappa
B) beta
C) epsilon
D) lambda
Q2) All of the following are characteristic of secretory IgA EXCEPT:
A) It is found on mucosal surfaces.
B) It has a secretory component made in epithelial cells.
C) It occurs as a monomer.
D) It defends against pathogens in the respiratory tract.
Q3) IgD is produced by:
A) differential splicing of the RNA transcript
B) differential splicing of the DNA transcript
C) constant gene region rearrangement
D) immature B cells
Q4) Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule can bind antigen?
A) Fab
B) CL
C) CH
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Chapter 5: Cytokines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can be attributed to interleukin-6 (IL-6)?
A) stimulates red blood cell production
B) increases vascular permeability
C) inhibits antigen presentation by macrophages
D) increases activation of T and B cells
Q2) A protein released from a virally infected cell that protects other cells from viral invasion best describes:
A) Il-3
B) interferon-alpha
C) TNF
D) IL-4
Q3) What is the main action of interferon-gamma?
A) increased synthesis of acute phase reactants
B) stimulation of T cells
C) inhibition of T cell activity
D) activation of macrophages
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Chapter 6: Complement System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which immunoglobulin(s)help(s)initiate the classic complement pathway?
A) IgA and IgD
B) IgM only
C) IgG and IgM
D) IgG only
Q2) The C3 convertase of the alternative pathway of complement activation is:
A) C3bBbP
B) C3bB
C) C4b2a3b
D) C4b2a
Q3) A native bacterial cell surface itself will activate complement via which pathway(s)?
A) classical
B) alternative
C) lectin
D) two of these
E) all of these
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Chapter 7: Safety and Specimen Preparation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent,what dilution does this represent?
A) 1:3
B) 1:4
C) 1:5
D) 3:1
Q2) Which series of dilutions would be best in order to make a 1:3000 dilution?
A) 1:10,1:3,1:10
B) 1:5,1:6,1:100
C) 1:3,1:100,1:100
D) 1:30,1:10,1:100
Q3) Which of the following is part of the federal Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard Act ?
A) All employees must practice universal precautions at all times.
B) Only workers who come in contact with patients need to wear gloves.
C) Taking a cup of coffee into the lab is okay as long as it doesn't spill.
D) A blood spill can be mopped up at the end of the day.
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9
Chapter 8: Precipitation Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The strength of binding of one Fab on an immunoglobulin to one epitope on an antigen is referred to as:
A) affinity
B) inflammation
C) diapedesis
Q2) Electrophoresis followed by diffusion of antibody from wells cut in the gel best describes which of the following?
A) immunofixation electrophoresis
B) immunoelectrophoresis
C) Ouchterlony diffusion
D) rocket immunodiffusion
Q3) The initial force of attraction between an antigen and an antibody is called:
A) affinity
B) avidity
C) equivalence
D) Van der Waals force
Q4) A situation in which antibody is in excess as compared to antigen is called:
A) postzone
B) prozone
C) equivalence zone
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Chapter 9: Agglutination
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Sample Questions
Q1) A serological reaction is set up in which the antigen is bound to a large carrier,the antibody is soluble,and they bind and form an insoluble complex that is detected macroscopically.What type of assay is described?
A) precipitation
B) agglutination
C) flocculation
D) neutralization
Q2) When a patient's red blood cells combine with anti-A typing serum to produce a positive result,this reaction is known as:
A) passive agglutination
B) reverse passive agglutination
C) hemagglutination
D) flocculation
Q3) The process by which particulate antigens such as cells aggregate to form larger complexes when specific antibody is present is called:
A) sensitization
B) precipitation
C) agglutination
D) flocculation
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Chapter 10: Labeled Immunoassays
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes homogeneous assays?
A) A washing step is necessary.
B) Concentration of patient antigen is directly proportional to the label detected.
C) The reagent antibody has an enzyme tag.
D) Labeled and unlabeled analyte are present in equal amounts.
Q2) An ELISA assay was performed on a patient's serum sample.What is the relationship of the amount of enzyme activity to the amount of patient analyte measured?
A) directly proportional
B) indirectly proportional
Q3) Components of a competitive immunoassay include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) labeled analyte
B) means of detection of the label
C) solid-phase antibody
D) standard different from the analyte
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12
Chapter 11: Molecular Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Their DNA base sequences are the same.
B) Different DNA bases result in cleavage at different places.
C) They are detected by gel electrophoresis.
D) Different patterns can be used for identification purposes.
Q2) Which type of RNA is used to directly translate the DNA code into making functional proteins?
A) transfer RNA
B) ribosomal RNA
C) messenger RNA
D) probe RNA
Q3) In order for a probe to hybridize to the target,which condition must be met?
A) The target must be double-stranded.
B) The target can only be RNA.
C) The target must have the same bases.
D) The target must have complementary bases.
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Chapter 12: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A range of values that all produce a positive result is known as:
A) analytic sensitivity
B) reportable range
C) accuracy
D) precision
Q2) Which is a difference between batch and random access analyzers?
A) Batch analyzers are not automated.
B) Random access analyzers only analyze one sample at a time.
C) Batch analyzers only do one type of analysis at a time.
D) Random access analyzers cannot be used for stat samples.
Q3) As measured in flow cytometry,cells that are the smallest and have the least granules would be identified as:
A) lymphocytes
B) granulocytes
C) monocytes
D) erythrocytes
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14
Chapter 13: Hypersensitivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaphylaxis is characterized by which of the following?
A) degranulation of mast cells
B) production of IgG
C) T-cell mediators
D) all of the above
Q2) Complement is responsible for tissue damage in which of the following reactions?
A) immediate hypersensitivity
B) cytotoxic reactions
C) delayed hypersensitivity
D) anaphylaxis
Q3) Which of the following diseases is an example of a type II hypersensitivity?
A) anaphylaxis
B) myasthenia gravis
C) post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
D) Bruton's agammaglobulinemia
Q4) Which is true of immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
A) Histamine is released from mast cells.
B) Antigen must bind to two IgE molecules.
C) Eosinophil chemotactic factor is released.
D) all of the above
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Chapter 14: Autoimmunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 54-year-old woman presents to her optometrist complaining that she has been having difficulty focusing on objects,both near and far.Her vision problems are getting progressively worse.She also thinks that her eyelids are drooping and she is thinking of getting plastic surgery to "put them back up." The optometrist cannot find a good reason for her vision problems but is able to fit her with glasses and recommends that she see a rheumatologist.The rheumatologist sends the women's blood for autoantibody testing,and the laboratory professionals report that the woman has autoantibodies against the acetylcholine receptor.This woman has:
A) myasthenia gravis
B) Goodpasture's syndrome
C) Addison's disease
D) multiple sclerosis
Q2) Which of the following would be an indicator of systemic lupus?
A) anti-Sm antibody
B) anti-EB antibody
C) anti-myelin basic protein antibody
D) anti-insulin antibody
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Immunoproliferative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 55-year-old male presents with symptoms that include weakness,loss of appetite,and anemia.Immunofixation electrophoresis reveals a heavy IgM band.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) SCID
B) multiple myeloma
C) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
D) DiGeorge syndrome
Q2) A CBC,differential,and flow cytometry were performed on a patient with the following results (normal values): WBC = 8.0 th/uL (5.0-10.0 th/uL),diff = 90% lymphs (20-40%),CD3 = 5% (60-80%),CD5 = 95% (60-80%),CD19 = 95% (5-20%),CD10 = 0% (0%),surface Ig = pos (positive),and cytoplasmic Ig = neg (negative).What disease does this patient have?
A) B-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia
B) B-cell chronic leukemia
C) T-cell acute lymphocytic leukemia
D) T-cell chronic leukemia
E) AIDS
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17
Chapter 16: Immunodeficiency Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Decreased CD3-positive lymphocytes and a lack of responsiveness to phytohemagglutinin (PHA)in the circulation would typically be associated with:
A) inflammation
B) Bruton's hypogammaglobulinemia
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) chronic granulomatous disease
Q2) A male baby who has suffered from persistent Candida fungal infections and several bouts of pneumonia all before the age of 6 months is found to have some developmental problems as well as low-set ears.Lab testing reveals an absence of T cells.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) selective IgA deficiency
B) common variable immunodeficiency
C) Waldenström's macroglobulinemia
D) DiGeorge syndrome
Q3) Which is true of selective IgA deficiency?
A) It is invariably fatal.
B) It is very rare.
C) It mainly occurs in older adults.
D) Patients may develop an anti-IgA antibody.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Transplantation Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antigens are most important in matching for tissue transplants?
A) HLA A and B
B) blood group antigens A or B
C) HLA DR1 and DQ1
D) all of the above
Q2) The type of rejection that occurs within minutes to hours due to preformed antibody is known as:
A) delayed rejection
B) chronic rejection
C) accelerated rejection
D) hyperacute rejection
Q3) Transplantation of an individual's skin from one place to another is an example of a(n):
A) autograft
B) allograft
C) xenograft
D) heterograft
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Chapter 19: Tumor Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ASO test was performed on the serum from a 10-year-old female patient with the following results: no hemolysis in the 1:10,1:20,1:40,and 1:80 tubes; and hemolysis in the 1:160,1:320,and 1:640 tubes.What conclusion can you draw from these results?
A) The titer is 1:640,and the patient may have glomerulonephritis.
B) The titer is 1:160,and the patient may have rheumatic fever.
C) The titer is 1:80,and the patient is normal.
D) The test is invalid and must be repeated.
Q2) Which of the following bacterial enzymes causes the release of lysosomal contents into the cytoplasm of the phagocytic cell,leading to the death of the cell?
A) protein H
B) leukocidin
C) M protein
D) IgA protease
Q3) Which of the following statements best describes Helicobacter pylori?
A) It is a gram-positive coccus that causes skin infections.
B) It is a gram-negative spiral that causes ulcers.
C) It lacks a cell wall and produces a lot of acid.
D) It can be detected by testing for cold agglutinins.
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Chapter 20: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 25-year-old pregnant female has serologic testing to determine if she has a toxoplasmosis infection.A low level of both IgM and IgG is found.On repeat testing 2 weeks later,the results are the same.What can be concluded from these results?
A) She has an active infection.
B) The baby will have serious central nervous system damage.
C) She was exposed to toxoplasmosis at some time in the past.
D) She has never been exposed to toxoplasmosis.
Q2) A 30-year-old male patient with AIDS exhibits pulmonary symptoms that include coughing and some difficulty breathing.The patient reported that he had previously worked in a bakery.His white blood cell count was normal,indicating that the infection is not bacterial in nature.Tests for the presence of fungal antigens were performed with the following results: ouchterlony immunodiffusion negative for antibodies to Aspergillus; negative latex agglutination test for Candida antigen,and positive EIA test for the galactomannan antigen of Aspergillus.What conclusion can be reached from these results?
A) The galactomannan is a false-positive result.
B) The infection is likely caused by Aspergillus.
C) The Candida antigen test is a false-negative
D) An Aspergillus infection is ruled out due to negative antibody testing.
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Chapter 21: Serologic and Molecular Detection of Bacterial
Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents with a painless genital ulcer.The patient is then diagnosed as having syphilis.In what stage of syphilis is the patient?
A) primary
B) secondary
C) latent
D) tertiary
Q2) A 32-year-old heterosexual male presents to the physician with a 3-day history of multiple skin lesions located all over his body and on his mucous membranes.He hasn't felt well and has a low-grade fever.The patient cuts down trees in Massachusetts for a living.He is single,has had multiple sex partners,and does not use condoms.Here are the results of his laboratory tests: rapid plasma reagin = reactive 1:128; Treponema pallidum-particle agglutination assay = reactive; Borrelia burgdorferi IgM = < 1:8; Rickettsia rickettsii IgM < 1:8.This patient has:
A) primary syphilis
B) secondary syphilis
C) lyme disease
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
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Page 22
Chapter 22: Serology of Parasitic and Fungal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient was diagnosed with acute hepatitis B infection 9 months ago and has follow-up testing performed today.The following results are obtained: anti-HAV IgM = not detected; HBsAg = not detected; anti-HBc IgM = not detected; anti-HBc total = detected; anti-HBs = detected; anti-HCV = not detected.What is the diagnosis now?
A) acute hepatitis B
B) chronic hepatitis B
C) chronic hepatitis C
D) convalescent hepatitis B
Q2) Serologic test results indicating that a patient is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B would be which of the following?
A) HBsAb positive; HBsAg negative
B) HBcAb and HBsAb positive
C) HBsAb negative; HBsAg positive for 12 months
D) HBeAb and HBeAg negative
Q3) All of the following are characteristic of the Epstein Barr virus EXCEPT:
A) latent virus
B) DNA virus
C) cause of infectious mono
D) invades T cells
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Spirochete Diseases
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Q1) Which is most likely a positive Western blot result for infection with HIV?
A) band at p24
B) band at gp60
C) bands at p24 and p31
D) bands at p24 and gp120
Q2) All of the following conditions would indicate AIDS EXCEPT:
A) a CD4+ count of less than 200 cells/\(\mu\)L
B) Kaposi's sarcoma
C) esophageal candidiasis
D) infectious mononucleosis
Q3) What is different about the replication cycle of HIV that separates it from many other RNA viruses?
A) Viral RNA is used to make cDNA.
B) Viral RNA replicates itself directly to make new RNA.
C) The virus reproduces only in B cells.
D) Proviral DNA makes new viral particles immediately.
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