Allied Health Sciences
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that encompasses a wide range of health-related professions such as medical laboratory technology, radiologic technology, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and more working collaboratively to support patient care, diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation. The course provides a comprehensive overview of the roles and responsibilities of allied health professionals, foundational scientific principles, healthcare ethics, and effective communication within a multidisciplinary healthcare environment. Students gain insight into patient-centered care, public health initiatives, and the evolving landscape of healthcare services, preparing them for diverse career pathways and further specialized training within the allied health sector.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Immunology and Serology A Laboratory Perspective 4th Edition by Christine Dorresteyn
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Immunity and the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hematopoietic stem cells are located in the:
A) lymph nodes.
B) spleen.
C) bone marrow.
D) thymus.
Answer: C
Q2) Contact with antigen and activation of B cells normally occurs in the:
A) peripheral blood.
B) connective tissue.
C) thymus.
D) lymph nodes.
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following cells are considered part of natural immunity EXCEPT:
A) eosinophils.
B) B lymphocytes.
C) monocytes.
D) neutrophils.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Nature of Antigens and the Major
Histocompatibility Complex
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Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of MHC-DR,MHC-DP,and MHC-DQ molecules?
A) Antigen receptors on all lymphocytes
B) Antigen receptors on T lymphocytes
C) Surface alloantigens on liver and kidney cells
D) Expressed co-dominantly (maternal and paternal)
Answer: D
Q2) A 50-kDa protein from a bacterial cell that has numerous different epitopes would be called:
A) a hapten but not an antigen.
B) a hapten and an antigen.
C) an antigen but not an immunogen.
D) an immunogen and an antigen.
Answer: D
Q3) Characteristics of heterophile antigens include which of the following?
A) Found in unrelated plants or animals but cross-react with the same antibody
B) One's own self-antigens
C) Any antigens used for immunization
D) All of the above
Answer: A
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute-phase reactants are elevated in a patient's serum.What does this result,on its own,indicate about the patient?
A) Inflammation of an unknown cause is present.
B) The patient has a leukemia but not a lymphoma.
C) The patient has a bacterial infection.
D) There is a parasitic infection and not a viral infection.
Answer: A
Q2) Which substance best inactivates bacterial proteins?
A) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
B) Oxygen
C) Hypochlorite
D) Lactic acid
Answer: C
Q3) For diapedesis to occur:
A) CD16 receptors must be bound.
B) microbes must be phagocytized.
C) endothelial cells must contract.
D) NADPH must be activated.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of leukocyte is identified by an ability to form rosettes with sheep red blood cells?
A) T cell
B) B cell
C) Natural killer cell
D) Plasma cell
Q2) A T cell that is rarely found in secondary lymphoid organs and recognizes a limited number of native epitopes is known as:
A) a helper T cell.
B) a gamma-delta T cell.
C) a cytotoxic T cell.
D) an alpha-beta T cell.
Q3) Cytotoxic T cells are the primary immune response against which type of pathogen?
A) Viruses
B) Parasites
C) Bacteria
D) Fungi
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6
Chapter 5: Antibody Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Somatic mutation of immunoglobulin genes accounts for:
A) allelic exclusion.
B) class switching from IgM to IgG.
C) affinity maturation.
D) creation of the isotype.
Q2) The region of an antibody molecule that exhibits the greatest variability from antibody to antibody is known as the:
A) hypervariable region.
B) constant region.
C) Fc region.
Q3) The combination of a plasma cell fused to a myeloma cell is called a:
A) melanoma.
B) hybridoma.
C) mycetoma.
D) myeloma.
Q4) Which antibody is found mainly as a dimer in mucosal secretions?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cytokines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytokines exhibit pleiotropy,which refers to:
A) multiple cytokines affecting the same cell.
B) one cytokine inhibiting the activity of another cytokine.
C) one cytokine affecting multiple cells.
D) cytokines acting together to affect a cell.
Q2) Which cells are primary producers of IL-1?
A) T helper cells
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) B cells
D) Macrophages
Q3) Multiple cytokines are activated to cause similar biological effects.What is this process called?
A) Pleiotropy
B) Redundancy
C) Synergism
D) Antagonism
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Chapter 7: Complement System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of complement?
A) It is activated by IgE in the classical pathway.
B) It cannot be activated by molecules other than antigen-antibody complexes.
C) It plays a role in the lysis of target cells coated with specific antibodies.
D) It is enhanced by decay-accelerating factor.
Q2) Chemotactic and anaphylactic factors are produced by proteolytic cleavage of:
A) C1q, C1r, and C1s.
B) C4 and C2.
C) C5 and C3.
D) C5, C6, C7, and C8
Q3) In the alternative pathway,C3 and C5 convertase are stabilized by which of the following?
A) Properdin
B) Factor B
C) Factor I
D) C4
Q4) What is cleaved by C3bBb?
A) C3
B) C5
C) C6
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Safety and Quality Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which option is considered the primary goal of a Six Sigma program?
A) To increase laboratory productivity
B) To cut laboratory costs
C) To decrease the amount of reagent used
D) To reduce variables and decrease errors
Q2) A patient under isolation precautions is being transported to the x-ray department.He has no mask on and sneezes in the elevator.This scenario is an example of what type of hazard?
A) Chemical hazard
B) Sharps hazard
C) Chain-of-infection hazard
D) Physical hazard
Q3) Where should you dispose of blood-soaked gauze pads?
A) Regular garbage
B) Sharps container
C) Red biohazard bag
D) Laundry bag
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Chapter 9: Principles of Serological Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent,what dilution does this represent?
A) 1:3
B) 1:4
C) 1:5
D) 3:1
Q2) The probability that a person with a positive screening test actually has the disease screened for is called:
A) sensitivity.
B) specificity.
C) positive predictive value.
D) negative predictive value.
Q3) How should a 1:50 dilution be made if the final volume needed is 10 mL?
A) 0.1 mL of serum and 9.9 mL of diluent
B) 0.2 mL of serum and 9.8 mL of diluent
C) 0.2 mL of serum and 10.0 mL of diluent
D) 0.5 mL of serum and 9.5 mL of diluent
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11
Chapter 10: Precipitation and Agglutination Reactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The AFFINITY of antigen-antibody binding is influenced by which of the following?
A) How well the antigen fits into the binding site on Fab
B) The number of Fab sites on the immunoglobulin
C) The number of antigens in the reaction
D) The charge distribution on Fc
Q2) If an Ouchterlony immunodiffusion pattern shows an arc equidistant between antigens A and B,this indicates that the antigens:
A) are identical.
B) are entirely different.
C) share a common epitope, with A being a more complex antigen.
D) share a common epitope, with B being a more complex antigen.
Q3) The particle-counting immunoassay method counts the number of:
A) agglutinated particles.
B) free antibody molecules.
C) free latex particles.
D) antigen-antibody bonds.
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Chapter 11: Labeled Immunoassays
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Sample Questions
Q1) You must choose between two widely accepted,commonly used colorimetric enzyme immunoassay kits to measure a plasma protein that circulates at a moderately high concentration.Each kit uses a different enzyme and substrate.What is the most important consideration in making your choice?
A) Shelf life of reagents
B) Speed of detection
C) Wavelengths detected by microtiter plate reader
D) Sensitivity
Q2) An immunoassay is performed in the following manner to look for an antigen (Ag)in the patient serum: Patient serum + labeled Ag + known antibody (Ab)are added together and incubated.Unbound material is washed off.The amount of labeled Ag is then measured.What assay is performed?
A) Homogeneous
B) Competitive
C) Capture
D) ELISA
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13
Chapter 12: Molecular Diagnostic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Light is generated when nucleotides are added to a growing strand of DNA in the process of:
A) pyrosequencing.
B) ligase chain reaction.
C) strand displacement amplification.
D) branched DNA amplification.
Q2) When denatured,DNA is converted from:
A) a double-stranded double helix to a double-stranded linear structure.
B) a double strand to a pair of single strands.
C) DNA to RNA.
D) polymerized strands of nucleic acids to individual nucleic acids.
Q3) Which process can be combined with a bead array format enabling detection of 100 different targets in one sample?
A) Branched DNA amplification
B) Transcription-mediated amplification
C) Ligase chain reaction
D) Strand displacement amplification
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14
Chapter 13: Flow Cytometry and Laboratory Automation
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Sample Questions
Q1) In flow cytometry,it is possible to detect the expression of 10 different cell membrane proteins simultaneously by:
A) using 10 different lasers that produce light at different wavelengths.
B) measuring the amount of light scattered at 10 different angles.
C) staining the cells with 10 different labeled probes that fluoresce at different wavelengths.
D) measuring mass as well as fluorescent intensity.
Q2) What are the advantages of automated testing in a clinical immunology laboratory?
A) Requires minimal investment and maintenance
B) Reduces turnaround time
C) Increases hands-on time by staff
D) Does not require validation
Q3) In flow cytometry,the sheath fluid:
A) contains a dye required for cell identification.
B) draws the suspended cells into a laminar flow.
C) filters out extraneous wavelengths of light.
D) provides nutrients necessary to maintain cellular metabolism.
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15
Chapter 14: Hypersensitivity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaphylaxis is characterized by which of the following?
A) Degranulation of mast cells
B) Production of IgG
C) T-cell mediators
D) All of the above
Q2) The precipitation of immune complexes in small blood vessels under the skin that occurs when antigen is injected in an animal with large amounts of circulating antibody describes which of the following?
A) Serum sickness
B) Arthus reaction
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Delayed hypersensitivity
Q3) The purified protein derivative reaction to determine exposure to tuberculosis is based on which of the following?
A) Formation of antigen-antibody complexes
B) An immediate hypersensitivity reaction
C) A sensitized T-cell response
D) A type II hypersensitivity reaction
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16
Chapter 15: Autoimmunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antibodies to cyclic citrullinated proteins (anti-CCP)are specific diagnostic indicators for:
A) type 1 diabetes mellitus.
B) celiac disease.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) biliary cirrhosis.
Q2) Hashimoto's thyroiditis can best be differentiated from Graves disease on the basis of which of the following?
A) Decrease in thyroid hormone levels
B) Presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies
C) Enlargement of the thyroid
D) Presence of lymphocytes in the thyroid
Q3) Which mechanism is involved in peripheral tolerance to self-antigens?
A) Negative selection
B) Receptor editing
C) Inhibition of co-stimulatory signals from antigen-presenting cells
D) All of the above
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Chapter 16: Transplantation Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In direct allorecognition,the recipient T cells bind and respond directly to foreign HLA proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A transplant patient on a follow-up visit to his physician is noted to have progressive fibrosis and scarring with narrowing of the vessels leading to the transplanted organ.What type of rejection is occurring?
A) Hyperacute
B) Acute
C) Chronic
D) Accelerated
Q3) Four candidate bone-marrow donors were tested for compatibility with a patient in need of a transplant.HLA typing was performed,and the serologic types and alleles of the patient and four potential donors are shown in the table.On the basis of these findings,which donor would be the best match for the patient?
A) Donor 1
B) Donor 2
C) Donor 3
D) Donor 4
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Tumor Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that has a positive influence on cell proliferation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the definition of a sarcoma?
A) A cancer that is derived from skin or epithelial linings of internal organs or glands
B) A cancer that is derived from muscle, bone, fat or soft tissues
C) A cancer that is derived from blood and lymphatic systems
D) A cancer that is derived from brain and spinal tissue
Q3) Cancer antigen 125
A)Hepatocellular carcinoma
B)Ovarian cancer
C)Colorectal, breast, or lung cancer
D)Breast cancer only
E)Pancreatic and gastrointestinal cancers
Q4) Tumor-associated antigens are expressed only in tumor cells.
A)True
B)False
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19
Chapter 18: Immunoproliferative Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement regarding myelogenous leukemias is true?
A) They originate from a common colony-forming cell line.
B) They originate from a common myeloid precursor cell.
C) They originate from a common erythroid precursor cell.
D) They originate from a common megakaryocytic precursor cell.
Q2) A patient's immunofixation electrophoresis shows excessive amounts of free monoclonal light chains.These light chains are referred to as:
A) Bence Jones proteins.
B) precipitated immunoglobulin A
C) albumin.
D) alpha-1 antitrypsin.
Q3) Malignant plasma cells exhibiting CD38,CD56,and CD138 are found in:
A) Waldenström macroglobulinemia.
B) chronic myeloid leukemia.
C) multiple myeloma.
D) monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Immunodeficiency Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 9-month-old infant is seen by a physician because of a persistent skin infection.His white and red blood cell counts are normal.However,immunofixation electrophoresis indicates a low level of IgG.When the infant returns to the physician for a follow-up visit in a month,his IgG level has increased.What condition do these results indicate?
A) Severe combined immunodeficiency
B) Transient hypogammaglobulinemia
C) Common variable immunodeficiency
D) DiGeorge anomaly
Q2) A nitroblue tetrazolium test shows little color in cells observed under a microscope.What disease does this finding correlate with?
A) Chronic granulomatous disease
B) Ataxia telangiectasia
C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D) Transient hypogammaglobulinemia
Q3) The most common complement component deficiency is:
A) C1q.
B) factor B.
C) MASP.
D) C2.
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Serological and Molecular Detection of Bacterial Infections
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Q1) A primary disadvantage of using serology in the diagnosis of an infection is: A) cost.
B) delayed appearance of antibodies after onset of infection.
C) sensitivity.
D) biologic hazard to laboratory personnel.
Q2) Which of the following is an endotoxin,not an exotoxin?
A) Streptolysin O
B) Lipid A
C) Streptokinase
D) Hyaluronidase
Q3) Which bacterium does not cause fever?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C) Rickettsia rickettsii
D) Helicobacter pylori
Q4) Which test is inappropriate for identifying Helicobacter pylori?
A) Polymerase chain reaction
B) Urease
C) Enzyme immunoassay
D) DNase
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Chapter 21: Spirochete Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical hallmark of early Lyme disease infection is: A) a chancre.
B) erythema migrans.
C) chronic fatigue.
D) a gumma.
Q2) A patient is suspected of having latent syphilis.Which set of test results for RPR,TP-PA,and CSF-VDRL best confirms this diagnosis?
A) RPR = reactive 1:8; TP-PA = reactive; VDRL = reactive 1:4
B) RPR = nonreactive; TP-PA = reactive; VDRL = nonreactive
C) RPR = nonreactive; TP-PA = nonreactive; VDRL = nonreactive
D) RPR = reactive 1:2; TP-PA = nonreactive; VDRL = nonreactive
Q3) Treponema pallidum and Borrelia burgdorferi can be distinguished from each other on the basis of which of the following?
A) Only T pallidum has axial filaments.
B) Only B burgdorferi has an outer sheath.
C) Only B burgdorferi can be grown in the laboratory on artificial media.
D) Only T pallidum stimulates IgM production against the membrane proteins.
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Chapter 22: Serological and Molecular Diagnosis of Parasitic
and Fungal
Infections
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Q1) A complement fixation test for Histoplasma antibodies shows a 1:32 titer.This means the patient is negative for Histoplasma infection.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Eosinophilia and an increase in which immunoglobulin play a role in the defense against parasites?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgG
Q3) A parasite that causes the immune system to increase protein production to distract the immune system is using which survival strategy?
A) Antigen shedding
B) Antigenic mimicry
C) Immunologic subversion
D) Immunologic diversion
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Chapter 23: Serology and Molecular Detection of Viral Infections
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Q1) Serology is performed on a patient with a rash and fever.Results are: rubella IgM = positive; rubella IgG = positive; measles IgM = negative; measles IgG = positive; varicella-zoster IgM = negative; varicella-zoster IgG = negative.What is the interpretation of these results?
A) Acute infection with rubella virus
B) Acute infection with measles virus
C) Not immune to measles or rubella viruses
D) Immune to varicella-zoster virus only
Q2) Which of the following positive antibody tests may be an indication of recent rubella vaccination or early primary rubella infection in a patient with no clinical symptoms?
A) Only IgG positive
B) Only IgM positive
C) Both IgG and IgA antibodies positive
D) Fourfold rise in titer for IgG
Q3) Interferons alpha and beta help the host in defense against viral infections by: A) enhancing antibody production.
B) stimulating cytotoxic T cells.
C) activating Toll-like receptors.
D) inhibiting viral replication.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Laboratory Diagnosis of HIV Infection
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Q1) gp41
A) Component of reverse transcriptase enzyme
B) Transmembrane protein
C) Envelope protein that binds to CD4 on T cells
D) Core coat for nucleic acids
Q2) Which of the following peripheral blood measurements is used to determine the stage of HIV infection?
A) The number of CD4 T cells
B) The number of CD8 T cells
C) The number of HIV RNA copies
D) The HIV antibody titer
Q3) In the Western blot test for HIV antibody,a positive test result is indicated by the bands p24 and p55.
A)True
B)False
Q4) gp120
A) Component of reverse transcriptase enzyme
B) Transmembrane protein
C) Envelope protein that binds to CD4 on T cells
D) Core coat for nucleic acids
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Chapter 25: Immunization and Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) An inactivated vaccine is used clinically to prevent:
A) chickenpox.
B) measles.
C) mumps.
D) influenza.
Q2) A mother provides immunity to her unborn child in the womb via which process?
A) Active immunity
B) Passive immunity
C) Adoptive immunity
D) Adoptive immunotherapy
Q3) Trastuzumab,an antibody used in the treatment of breast cancer with an overexpression of the HER2 marker,is an example of a
A) mouse monoclonal antibody.
B) chimeric antibody.
C) humanized antibody.
D) fully human antibody.
Q4) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation is an example of adoptive immunity.
A)True
B)False
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