Allied Health Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that encompasses a wide range of health care professions distinct from nursing, medicine, and pharmacy. This course provides students with a comprehensive overview of the various allied health disciplines, such as medical laboratory technology, radiologic technology, physiotherapy, occupational therapy, and more. Emphasizing the critical role of allied health professionals in patient care, public health, and disease prevention, the course covers foundational concepts in healthcare systems, medical ethics, health communication, and interprofessional collaboration. Students will gain insights into the educational pathways, core competencies, and emerging trends in allied health, preparing them for dynamic roles within the evolving healthcare environment.
Recommended Textbook
Immunology Serology in Laboratory Medicine 5th Edition by Mary Louise Turgeon
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33 Chapters
851 Verified Questions
851 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Overview of Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) B lymphocytes respond to:
A) antigens presented on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell.
B) antigens on microorganisms or other living cells.
C) native antigenic determinants of appropriate fit.
D) antigens floating in body fluids.
Answer: C
Q2) Immunology is defined as the relationship among cells during embryonic development.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) If microorganisms penetrate the first line of defense,a second line of _______________ forms defense mechanisms that become operational.
A) cellular components
B) humoral components
C) secretions
D) both a and b
Answer: D
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3
Chapter 2: Antigens and Antibodies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which region determines the class of an immunoglobulin molecule?
A) VH
B) VL
C) CH
D) CL
Answer: C
Q2) Allotype determinants
A)Genetically determined variations representing the presence of allelic genes at a single locus within a species
B)Heavy-chain,constant region structures associated with different classes and subclasses
C)Individual determinants characteristic of each antibody as a result of the unique structures on light and heavy chains
Answer: A
Q3) Outer surfaces of bacteria can be immunogenic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cells and Cellular Activities of the Immune
System: Granulocytes and Mononuclear Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basophil
A)Principal leukocyte associated with phagocytosis
B)High concentrations of heparin and histamine
C)Homeostatic regulator of inflammation
Answer: B
Q2) A major factor in the killing of bacteria within a vacuole is:
A) hydrogen peroxide.
B) elastase.
C) myeloperoxidase.
D) defensin.
Answer: A
Q3) Patients with leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD)can manifest:
A) recurrent bacterial infection.
B) recurrent fungal infection.
C) often fatal bacterial and fungal infections.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cells and Cellular Activities of the Immune
System: Lymphocytes and Plasma Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) B lymphocytes
A)Lead to antibody production
B)Destroy target cells through an extracellular nonphagocytic mechanism (cytotoxic reaction)
C)Kill target cells sensitized with antibody
Q2) Surface markers on lymphocytes can be used to:
A) identify and count CD4+ and CD8+ cells.
B) classify leukemic cells.
C) monitor patients on immunotherapy.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
A)Inadequate response to Epstein-Barr virus
B)T cell defect
C)Likely to be confused with pediatric AIDS
D)Low levels of antibodies
E)Poor humoral response to bacterial polysaccharide antigens
Q4) Suppressor T lymphocytes or T suppressor (Ts)cells
A)Effector cells that can directly destroy virally infected target cells
B)Downregulate the actions of other T and B cells
C)Relatively high avidity for self-antigens
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Chapter 5: Soluble Mediators of the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following characteristics is representative of C-reactive protein (CRP)?
A) The first acute-phase reactant to become elevated
B) Nonspecific indicator of inflammation
C) Acute-phase reactant
D) All of the above
Q2) The alternate complement pathway is activated by:
A) bacterial exotoxins.
B) viruses.
C) antigen-antibody complexes.
D) haptens.
Q3) Increased complement levels can be observed in:
A) inflammatory conditions.
B) excessive activation.
C) genetic defects.
D) both b and c
Q4) In adaptive immunity,cytokines mediate early inflammatory reactions to microbial organisms and stimulate adaptive immune responses.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Safety in the Immunology-Serology Laboratory
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Q1) In regard to handwashing in the medical laboratory environment,hands should be washed before putting on clean gloves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) After skin or mucosal exposure to blood from a patient known to be infected with hepatitis C,a laboratory worker should:
A) perform follow-up testing to detect the development of infection.
B) administer immune globulin.
C) receive vaccination for hepatitis C virus (HCV).
D) both a and b
Q3) Sterile gloves must be used for all laboratory work.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In regard to handwashing in the medical laboratory environment,hands should be washed after removing gloves.
A)True
B)False
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8
Chapter 7: Quality Assurance and Quality Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Required regulation of clinical laboratories is achieved by (the):
A) Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments of 1988.
B) The Joint Commission (TJC;formerly JCAHO).
C) College of American Pathologists (CAP).
D) American Hospital Association (AHA).
Q2) Specificity is defined as the:
A) proportion of subjects with the specific disease or condition who have a positive test result.
B) proportion of subjects without the specific disease or condition who have a negative test result.
C) proportion of a population who have the disease.
D) Number of patients with a normal test result who do not have the disease.
Q3) Precision
A)How close a test result is to the true value
B)Highly purified substances of a known composition
C)Specimen with a known value that is similar in composition to the test specimen
D)How close the test results are to one another when repeated analyses of the same material are performed
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9
Chapter 8: Basic Serologic Laboratory Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) parts of distilled water would be added to the 10-mL mark.
A)0.01
B)0.1
C)0.5
D)1.0
E)10
F)9
G)4.5
H)0.10
Q2) A dilution is a(n):
A) ratio of volume or number of parts of the substance to be diluted in the total volume,or parts,of the final solution.
B) indication of relative concentration.
C) frequently used measure in serologic testing.
D) all of the above.
Q3) A meniscus is the:
A) curvature in the top surface of a liquid.
B) zero mark on a pipette.
C) last marking on a serologic pipette.
D) flat line of liquid in a pipette.
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Chapter 9: Point-Of-Care Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any over-the-counter test approved by the U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA)is automatically placed into the category of:
A) waived tests.
B) moderately complex tests.
C) highly complex tests.
D) provider-performed microscopy tests.
Q2) A minimum of two laboratory staff members are required to be responsible for each POCT program.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Moderately complex tests
A)More complex than waived tests but usually automated
B)Usually nonautomated or complicated tests requiring considerable judgment
C)Simple procedures
D)Slide examinations
Q4) Written policies and procedures must be available to all laboratory personnel for patient preparation and for specimen collection and preservation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Agglutination Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first phase of agglutination represents:
A) physical attachment of antibody molecules to antigens on the erythrocytic membrane.
B) physical attachment of antigens to antibody molecules on the erythrocytic membrane.
C) a reversible chemical reaction.
D) both a and c
Q2) Postzone phenomenon
A)Dilute patient's serum and retest.
B)Wash cells according to directions;use positive and negative quality control (QC)steps.
C)Repeat blood specimen should be collected a week or more later.
D)Calibrate centrifuge to proper speed and time.
Q3) Weak (±)
A)Tiny aggregates
B)No aggregates
C)Medium-sized aggregates,some free red blood cells (RBCs)
D)Clear supernatant
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Chapter 11: Electrophoresis Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Electrophoresis is defined as:
A) migration of charged solutes in an electrical field.
B) migration of charged particles in an electrical field.
C) diffusion of charged particles in an electrical field.
D) both a and b
Q2) Formation of a precipitin arc between a well containing a test specimen and a trough containing antiserum indicates:
A) the presence of a protein specific to that antiserum.
B) the presence of monoclonal immunoglobulin M (IgM).
C) absence of abnormal proteins.
D) the excess concentration of antiserum in the trough.
Q3) Monoclonal immunoglobulin M (IgM)bands are:
A) skewed arcs of a circle.
B) short thick arcs in the antigen well.
C) thick elongated bands.
D) radial in configuration.
Q4) Heterogeneous
A)The antigen-antibody precipitation line resembles a segment or arc of a circle.
B)The antigen-antibody precipitation line assumes an elliptical shape.
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Chapter 12: Labeling Techniques in Immunoassay
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Sample Questions
Q1) In fluorescent antibody microscopy using a fluorescent substance or dye,the incident light is infrared.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Indirect immunofluorescent assay
A)Antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins.
B)Conjugated antibody is used to detect antigen-antibody reactions at a microscopic level.
C)An antigen is first exposed to unlabeled antibody and then to labeled antibody.
Q3) Chemiluminescence:
A) has excellent sensitivity and dynamic range.
B) does not require sample radiation.
C) uses unstable chemiluminescent reagents and conjugates.
D) both a and b
Q4) Chemiluminescence refers to:
A) light emitted.
B) heat emitted.
C) a chemical reaction.
D) both a and c
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Chapter 13: Automated Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cryoglobulin analysis can be useful in the diagnosis of:
A) hypothermia.
B) Raynaud's phenomenon.
C) infectious hepatitis.
D) rheumatoid arthritis.
Q2) Nephelometry can be used to assay all the following except:
A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgD.
D) IgA.
Q3) Current fluorescent methods can perform up to _______-color analysis.
A) two
B) four
C) eight
D) 16
Q4) Laser is an acronym for:
A) light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
B) light augmentation by stimulated emitted radiation.
C) light amplified by stimulated energy radiation.
D) large angle stimulation by emitted radiation.
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Chapter 14: Molecular Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiplex PCR is limited by the number of primers that can be included in a single reaction.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nucleic acid sequence-based amplification (NASBA)
A)Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q3) The final number of molecules produced in 30 cycles of the PCR process is:
A) 22
B) 210
C) 220
D) 230
Q4) The advantages of molecular testing include all the following except:
A) faster turnaround time.
B) decreased sensitivity.
C) smaller specimen volume required.
D) increased specificity.
Q5) Multiplex PCR is limited by specific nucleic acid amplification.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Immune Response in Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A zoonosis is any infectious disease that can be:
A) transmitted (by a vector)from humans to wild and domestic animals.
B) transmitted (by a vector)from other animals,both wild and domestic,to humans.
C) transmitted from birds to humans.
D) transmitted from humans to gorillas.
Q2) Rubella
A)The most common congenital virus infection
B)A spectrum of congenital defects
C)Hydrocephalus,intracranial calcification,and retinochoroiditis-the most common manifestations of tissue damage
D)Sequelae of virus infection (include three distinct neurologic syndromes)
Q3) Survival mechanisms of fungi that successfully invade the body include:
A) the presence of an antiphagocytic capsule.
B) resistance to digestion within macrophages.
C) destruction of phagocytes (e.g. ,neutrophils).
D) all of the above.
Q4) Primary infection with the virus results in the clinical manifestations of
A)Shingles
B)Chickenpox
Page 17
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Chapter 16: A Primer on Vaccines
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Sample Questions
Q1) Smallpox vaccine
A)Has reduced disease by 99%
B)Successful in cats
C)Given to high-risk individuals
Q2) Hay fever vaccine
A)Protection against bioterrorism
B)Protection against cervical cancer
C)Not available for preventing congenital infection
D)DNA-based vaccine
E)Annual vaccination required
Q3) The earliest host response to vaccination is a(n):
A) innate immune response.
B) memory response.
C) anamnestic response.
D) both a and b
Q4) Therapeutic vaccine
A)Given to HIV-negative individuals
B)For HIV-positive patients to improve their immune system
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Chapter 17: Streptococcal Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Streptokinase
A)Is elaborated by scarlet fever-associated strains
B)Also called "spreading factor"
C)Dissolves clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin
D)Four immunologically distinct forms
Q2) Constant (low)titer
A)Current infection
B)Past infection
C)Trend toward recovery
D)Rules out Streptococcus pyogenes infection
Q3) Hyaluronidase
A)Is elaborated by scarlet fever-associated strains
B)Also called "spreading factor"
C)Dissolves clots by converting plasminogen to plasmin
D)Four immunologically distinct forms
Q4) Declining titer
A)Current infection
B)Past infection
C)Trend toward recovery
D)Rules out Streptococcus pyogenes infection
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Chapter 18: Syphilis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of antigen used in the RPR card procedure is:
A) carbon particle cardiolipin.
B) tanned sheep erythrocytes.
C) sensitized latex particles.
D) sensitized charcoal particles.
Q2) Treponemes may remain viable for ______________ in tissue specimens from diseased animals.
A) 1 day
B) 3 days
C) 5 days
D) up to 30 days
Q3) Pathogenic treponemes are cultivatable in artificial laboratory media.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Late (tertiary)syphilis
A)Diagnosis only by serologic methods
B)Presence of gummas
C)Development of a chancre
D)Generalized illness followed by macular lesions in most patients
E)Very early in infection,even before the first lesions
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Chapter 19: Vector-Borne Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical case definition of Lyme disease includes but is not limited to:
A) the presence of erythema migrans.
B) at least one objective,late-manifesting sign of musculoskeletal,neurologic,or cardiovascular disease for antibody to Borrelia burgdorferi.
C) positive serologic evidence.
D) all of the above.
Q2) One of the most widely available assays for antibody in Lyme disease is:
A) EIA for total IgM or IgG antibodies.
B) Southern blot test.
C) indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA).
D) RIA.
Q3) First stage
A)Packed elementary bodies (initial bodies)visible
B)Enter a leukocyte by phagocytosis and multiply rapidly
C)Morular,or mulberry,forms
Q4) Borrelia burgdorferi strains
A)Associated with the chronic skin condition acrodermatitis chronica atrophicans (ACA)in Europe
B)United States
C)Associated with neurologic symptoms in Europe
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Toxoplasmosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Any positive result in a pregnant patient confirmed as positive by a second reference laboratory should be evaluated by:
A) amniocentesis testing by PCR for T.gondii.
B) IgM,IgA,and IgE ELISAs.
C) Sabin-Feldman dye test (IgG).
D) IgE immunosorbent agglutination assay.
Q2) The preferred method for detection of T.gondii is:
A) culture.
B) ELISA.
C) IFA.
D) PCR.
Q3) Transfusion-transmitted toxoplasmosis is associated with:
A) packed red blood cells.
B) platelet concentrates.
C) leukocyte concentrates.
D) either b or c
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22
Chapter 21: Cytomegalovirus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary infection
A)IgG,but IgM response unknown
B)Specific IgM antibody response
C)IgG (no detectable IgM)
Q2) CMV infection in normal adults and children is:
A) associated with CMV hepatitis as well.
B) asymptomatic in most patients.
C) occasionally a self-limited,mononucleosis-like syndrome.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Reinfection
A)CMV strain in the donor's blood that differs from the strain originally infecting the recipient
B)Seronegative recipient is transfused with blood from actively or latently infected donor
C)Seropositive recipient is transfused with blood from CMV antibody-positive or CMV antibody-negative donor
Q4) Congenital CMV infection is the most common intrauterine infection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Infectious Mononucleosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fill in the blanks.The incubation period of infectious mononucleosis is from (1)__________days;once fully developed,it lasts for (2)________ weeks.
A)1 to 2
B)1 to 4
C)2 to 4
D)3 to 6
E)5 to 10
F)10 to 50
Q2) Davidsohn differential test
A)Distinguishes between heterophil antibodies;uses beef erythrocytes,guinea pig kidney cells,and sheep erythrocytes
B)Detects heterophil antibodies and uses horse erythrocytes
C)Detects heterophil antibodies and uses sheep erythrocytes
Q3) EBV is typically manifested by:
A) young children.
B) young adults.
C) middle-aged individuals.
D) older adults.
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Chapter 23: Viral Hepatitis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B vaccination should be administered in three doses over a span of
A) 6 weeks
B) 2 months
C) 7 months
D) 1 year
Q2) Primary hepatitis viruses account for approximately ______% of cases of hepatitis.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 95
Q3) Hepatitis A virus
A)Complex DNA virus
B)Small,RNA-containing picornavirus
C)Small,enveloped,single-stranded RNA virus
Q4) Epstein-Barr virus
A)Primary hepatitis virus
B)Secondary hepatitis virus
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Chapter 24: Rubella and Rubeola Infections
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Q1) In countries in which vaccination is uncommon,the incidence of rubella infection is high and epidemics are frequent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The presence of IgM antibody to rubella virus in a single specimen suggests that the patient has recently experienced a rubella infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rubella infection may resemble all the following except:
A) infectious mononucleosis.
B) drug-induced rashes.
C) chickenpox.
D) scarlet fever.
Q4) Rubella infection is transmitted by:
A) blood transfusions.
B) respiratory secretions.
C) fecal contamination.
D) contaminated food.
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Chapter 25: Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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Q1) Pattern 1: North and South America,Western Europe,Scandinavia,Australia,New Zealand.
A)Primarily a disease of heterosexuals
B)Fewer known cases of HIV-AIDS
C)Primarily a disease of homosexuals and intravenous (IV)drug abusers
Q2) Pattern 2: Africa,Caribbean,parts of South America.
A)Primarily a disease of heterosexuals
B)Fewer known cases of HIV-AIDS
C)Primarily a disease of homosexuals and intravenous (IV)drug abusers
Q3) A protein included in the core of the HIV-1 virus is called:
A) gp41.
B) p24.
C) p25.
D) either b or c
Q4) In addition to lymphocytes,___________ and skin cells can be infected by HIV.
A)macrophages
B)monocytes
C)cells in the lymph nodes
D)all of the above
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Chapter 26: Hypersensitivity Reactions
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Q1) Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for:
A) contact sensitivity.
B) elimination of tumor cells bearing neoantigens.
C) rejection of foreign graft tissue.
D) all of the above.
Q2) Type I hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by:
A) activation of complement.
B) antigen cross-links with IgE on mast cells.
C) being potentially fatal.
D) both b and c
Q3) Delayed hypersensitivity
A)Cell-mediated
B)Antibody-mediated
C)Dependent on the host's response to a subsequent exposure of antigen
D)Not mediated by antigen-antibody interaction
Q4) Asthma is an example of a _____________ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
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Chapter 27: Immunoproliferative Disorders
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Q1) Patients with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia (WM)exhibit abnormally large amounts of:
A) IgM.
B) IgG.
C) IgE.
D) IgA.
Q2) DNA hybridization or blotting is the newest technology available and can be used to detect:
A) abnormal gene arrangements.
B) mutations in cellular oncogenes.
C) increased protein synthesis.
D) both a and b
Q3) What is the M component in a monoclonal gammopathy?
A) Excessive IgM antibody
B) Monoclonal antibody or cell line
C) Excessive number of macrophages
D) Proliferation of malignant cells
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29
Chapter 28: Autoimmune Disorders
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Q1) Anti-Scl antibody
A)Measures antibody to nuclear antigens
B)Produces a characteristic granular cytoplasmic staining pattern to cytoplasmic constituents of granulocytes
C)An antibody to a basic nonhistone nuclear protein
D)Found in about 80% of patients with pernicious anemia
Q2) Tendency to develop lymphoreticular neoplasia.
A)Organ-specific
B)Organ- nonspecific
Q3) An early marker of beta pancreatic cell destruction is
antibody.
A) anti-DNA
B) anti-islet cell
C) antinuclear
D) anti-intrinsic factor
Q4) Antigens only available to lymphoid system in low concentrations.
A)Organ-specific
B)Organ- nonspecific
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Chapter 29: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
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Q1) A speckled pattern in antinuclear antibody (ANA)testing characterizes:
A) dsDNA,histones,and DNA-histone complexes.
B) anti-RNP and anti-Sm.
C) centromere proteins A,B,and C.
D) nuclear lamins A,B,and C and nuclear pore proteins.
Q2) One of the most potent inducers of abnormalities and clinical manifestations of SLE is:
A) hydralazine.
B) procainamide.
C) isoniazid.
D) both a and b
Q3) Serologic assessment of renal disease in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)includes:
A) cryoglobulin level assay.
B) serum electrophoresis.
C) serum creatinine level assay.
D) urinary protein excretion.
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Chapter 30: Rheumatoid Arthritis
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Q1) The RA agglutination test is based on the reaction between patient antibodies in the serum,known as the rheumatoid factor,and an antigen derived from:
A) human gamma globulin (IgM).
B) rabbit gamma globulin (IgM).
C) human gamma globulin (IgG).
D) rabbit gamma globulin (IgG).
Q2) Prognostic markers that may help identify patients with more severe RA who are still in the early stages of the disease include persistently high numbers of swollen joints.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A biologic false-positive rheumatoid factor (RF)assay can be manifested by patients with:
A) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
B) hepatitis.
C) syphilis.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 31: Solid Organ Transplantation
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/51621
Sample Questions
Q1) HLA-B27 antigen is the only HLA antigen with a disease association strong enough to be useful in the differential diagnosis of:
A) Reiter's syndrome.
B) juvenile chronic arthritis with spinal involvement.
C) anterior uveitis.
D) ankylosing spondylitis.
Q2) Autograft
A)Graft between individuals of different species (e.g. ,pig heart valve to a human heart)
B)Graft transferred from one position to another in the same individual (e.g. ,skin,hair,bone)
C)Graft between genetically different recipient and donor of the same species;grafted donor tissue or organ contains antigens not present in recipient
D)Graft transplanted between different but identical recipient and donor (e.g. ,kidney transplant between monozygous twins)
Q3) Immunosuppression is used for the suppression of established rejection.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Bone Marrow Transplantation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Toxicities and side effects associated with the infusion of cryopreserved products are mainly caused by:
A) DMSO preservative.
B) volume overload.
C) glycerol preservative.
D) both a and b
Q2) Increased cell selection and purging of grafts using cell surface membrane markers has resulted in:
A) decreased risk of tumor reinfusion into autologous recipients.
B) decreases in the amount of T cells infused in allogeneic recipients.
C) a lower incidence of GVHD.
D) both a and b
Q3) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is treatable by stem cell transplantation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements about progenitor blood cells is correct?
A) They are pluripotent.
B) They are found in bone marrow and peripheral circulating blood.
C) They contain precursor cells to leukocytes and platelets.
D) All of the above.
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Chapter 33: Tumor Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Corticosteroids
A)Cell cycle active,phase-specific
B)Cell cycle active,phase-nonspecific
C)Non-cell cycle active
Q2) The most common cause of pediatric cancer deaths is:
A) acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
B) tumors of the central and sympathetic nervous system.
C) malignant lymphoma.
D) renal tumors.
Q3) Tumors can be described as benign or malignant.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Spontaneous tumor antigens
A)Cell surface molecules coded for by tumorigenic viruses
B)Gene derepression responsible for the production of increased concentrations of these gene products
C)Chemically induced tumors
D)Caused by no known mechanism
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