

Allied Health Sciences
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that encompasses a wide range of health care professions distinct from medicine, dentistry, and nursing. This course introduces students to the roles, responsibilities, and contributions of allied health professionals in patient care, disease prevention, and health promotion. Covering topics such as medical laboratory technology, radiologic sciences, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and clinical nutrition, students gain an understanding of the collaborative nature of health care teams and the importance of evidence-based practice. The course also explores the ethical, legal, and cultural considerations relevant to allied health, preparing students for successful integration into the dynamic health care environment.
Recommended Textbook
Respiratory Disease A Case Study Approach to Patient Care 3rd Edition by James
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20 Chapters
484 Verified Questions
484 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3793

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R. Dexter

Chapter 1: Introduction to Patient Assessment
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75737
Sample Questions
Q1) The sputum smear for your patient reveals 3+ gram positive cocci and many epithelial cells.What should you do?
A)Start antibiotics
B)Discard the sample
C)Get a chest x-ray
D)Start oxygen
Answer: B
Q2) What is indicated by a P-R interval of .24?
A)An enlarged heart
B)A myocardial infarction
C)Heart block
D)Bundle branch block
Answer: C
Q3) Your patient has pneumonia in the left lower lobe.What breath soundsdo you expect to hear over this lobe?
A)Vesicular
B)Bronchial
C)Normal
D)Absent
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Introduction to Respiratory Failure
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75736
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient with inadequate oxygenation of the brain will usually display what symptom(s)?
A)Confusion
B)Excitement
C)Diminished cognitive function
D)A and C only
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following modes of therapy is most likely to be effective when the patient has hypoxemia due to physiologic shunting?
A)Simple oxygen mask
B)Nasal cannula
C)Air entrainment mask
D)Positive pressure ventilation
Answer: D
Q3) What clinical finding(s)is (are)consistent with diaphragm fatigue?
A)Tachypnea
B)Respiratory alterans
C)Abdominal paradox
D)All the above
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Asthma
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75735
Sample Questions
Q1) What can be said about the incidence of asthma and the death rate from asthma in the past decade or so?
A)Both are on the decrease
B)Both are on the increase
C)Incidence is up,but death rate is down
D)Incidence is down,but death rate is up
Answer: B
Q2) Your patient is having a severe asthma attack.What treatment should be avoided at this time?
A)Dense aerosols
B)Sedatives
C)Acetylcysteine
D)All the above
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is NOT associated with provoking an asthma attack?
A)Aspirin use
B)Exercise
C)Viral respiratory infection
D)Use of Atropine to increase heart rate
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75734
Sample Questions
Q1) About how many deaths are attributed to COPD each year in the United States?
A)10,000
B)50,000
C)100,000
D)200,000
Q2) What is the goal of bronchodilator therapy in the COPD patient with moderate to severe disease?
A)Improve the quality of life
B)Stop the progression of the disease
C)Reduce the risk of sudden death
D)Keep the airways clear of mucus
Q3) What characteristics of COPD patients indicate that lung volume reduction surgery may be useful in improving the quality of life?
A)Upper lobe disease and poor exercise tolerance
B)Lower lobe disease and evidence of cor pulmonale
C)Upper lobe disease and FEV1 <60% of predicted
D)Homogenous disease and maximal treatment has shown no benefit
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Chapter 5: Cystic Fibrosis
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75733
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the medical problem that most cystic fibrosis patients first seek help for?
A)Recurrent pulmonary infections
B)Frequent episodes of hyperglycemia
C)Bowel obstructions
D)Weight loss
Q2) What finding is common in patients with cystic fibrosis during the general examination?
A)Patient appears malnourished
B)Patient appears younger than their stated age
C)Patient appears to be in pain
D)Patient appears to be sleepy
Q3) Your patient with cystic fibrosis is having frequent pulmonary infections and her doctor asks you for a suggestion on therapy that might help reduce the frequency of these exacerbations.What do you suggest?
A)Better hydration for the patient
B)Aerosolized tobramycin
C)Home chest physical therapy
D)A home humidifier
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Chapter 6: Hemodynamic Monitoring and Shock
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75732
Sample Questions
Q1) What hemodynamic monitoring result is most consistent with cardiogenic shock?
A)CVP = 2 mmHg
B)Cardiac output = 5 L/min
C)PCWP = 20 mmHg
D)Mean blood pressure = 85 mmHg
Q2) Your patient has a history of heart disease and is now complaining of chest pain.What finding on the ECG would suggest coronary hypoperfusion?
A)Elevated ST segment
B)Depressed ST segment
C)Inverted T waves
D)All the above
Q3) What is the normal range for cardiac index?
A)1.0-3.5 L/min/m<sup>2</sup>
B)2.5-4.0 L/min/m<sup>2</sup>
C)4.0-5.5 L/min/m<sup>2</sup>
D)4.5-6.0 L/min/m<sup>2</sup>
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Chapter 7: Pulmonary Thromboembolic Disease
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75731
Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following conditions is pulmonary infarction more likely when a pulmonary embolism occurs?
A)Left ventricular failure
B)COPD
C)Both A and B
D)None of the above
Q2) What is the most common initial treatment for a patient with a small or moderate PTE?
A)Oxygen
B)Bronchodilators
C)Heparin
D)Streptokinase
Q3) When is thrombolytic therapy most useful?
A)During the first five days after clot formation
B)Only during the first 12 hours after clot formation
C)One week after clot formation
D)None of the above
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Chapter 8: Heart Failure
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75730
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the 1-year survival rate for patients diagnosed with congestive heart failure?
A)25%
B)50%
C)75%
D)90%
Q2) Your patient develops severe pulmonary edema with severe hypoxemia and a PaCO<sub>2</sub> of 55 mmHg.What therapy would you recommend to the attending physician?
A)Oxygen via non-rebreathing mask
B)CPAP with FIO<sub>2</sub> of 1.0
C)CPAP with BiPAP and an FIO<sub>2</sub> of 1.0
D)Intubate and use blow-by at an FIO<sub>2</sub> of 0.50
Q3) Which of the following ABG findings is most suggestive of a severe case of congestive heart failure?
A)Respiratory alkalosis
B)PaO<sub>2</sub> = 40 mmHg
C)Metabolic acidosis
D)PaCO<sub>2</sub> = 44 mmHg
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Page 10

Chapter 9: Smoke Inhalation Injury and Burns
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75729
Sample Questions
Q1) Delayed neuropsychological sequelae of carbon monoxide poisoning include all of the following except:
A)Movement disorders
B)Cognitive deficits
C)Arrhythmias
D)Personality changes
Q2) Which of the following is the method of choice for treating COHb levels of less than 30% with cardiovascular stability?
A)Hyperbaric oxygen at 3 atm with 100% O<sub>2</sub> for 30-60 minutes
B)Tight-fitting non-rebreathing mask at 15 L/min
C)Answer A is optimal,but answer B is acceptable
D)Low flow O<sub>2</sub> at 6 L/min
Q3) Which of the following may account for the lack of the classic cherry-red skin color sign in victims of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A)Hypoxia
B)Hyperthermia
C)Hypotension
D)Albinism
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Chapter 10: Near Drowning
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75728
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary concern during the first week for a near drowning victim who is sent home after 24 hours of observation and appears to be doing well?
A)Long-term neurologic damage
B)Sudden heart failure
C)Pulmonary infection
D)Pulmonary embolism
Q2) Which of the following physical examination findings is/are suggestive of neurologic injury?
A)Dilated pupils that respond poorly or not at all to light
B)Pulse rate below 60/min
C)Hypothermia
D)All the above
Q3) What percent of drowning deaths in the United States each year are male victims?
A)40%
B)55%
C)78%
D)None of the above
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Chapter 11: Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75727
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a common cause of acute lung injury?
A)Sepsis
B)Severe trauma
C)Aspiration
D)All the above
Q2) All of the following are side effects of PEEP except:
A)Decreased lung compliance from overdistended alveoli
B)Barotrauma
C)Increased cardiac output
D)Increased PVR
Q3) All the following statements are true regarding the use of static compliance measurements in monitoring the ARDS patient except:
A)Is indicative of lung stiffness only
B)Is obtained with the following formula: Cst = Vt / (Pstat-PEEP)
C)Is obtained using a short inspiratory hold after a volume-limited breath
D)Plateau pressures of <30 cwp are usually indicative of acceptable static compliance in the adult
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Chapter 12: Chest Trauma
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75726
Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following statements are true regarding rib fractures except:
A)Less likely in adults than children because adult bones are more pliable
B)Fractures of ribs one and two are rare because they are somewhat protected by the shoulder girdle
C)Sternal fractures and/or costochondral separations are often the result of motor vehicle accidents
D)Rib fractures can lead to pneumonia
Q2) Beck's triad,which includes the three signs of cardiac tamponade,contains all of the following except:
A)Distended neck veins
B)Increased pulse pressure
C)Diminished heart tones
D)Hypotension
Q3) Which of the following factors is considered by most experts to be the most important factor in predicting the severity of a penetrating wound from a projectile?
A)Length of the missile
B)Mass (weight)of the missile
C)Velocity of the missile
D)Design of the missile
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Chapter 13: Postoperative Atelectasis
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75725
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary objective when intrapulmonary percussive ventilation (IPV)is applied to the postoperative patient with atelectasis?
A)Hyperinflate the lung
B)Enhance secretion removal
C)Improve surfactant production
D)Improve CO<sub>2</sub> removal
Q2) What prior diagnosis increases the risk of postoperative atelectasis due to mucus plugging?
A)Chronic bronchitis
B)Pulmonary fibrosis
C)Sarcoidosis
D)Congestive heart failure
Q3) Which of the following factors increases the risk of postoperative atelectasis by reducing the patient's inspiratory capacity?
A)Patient is over 55 years of age
B)Marked obesity
C)Men below 68 inches in height
D)History of diabetes
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Chapter 14: Interstitial Lung Disease
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75724
Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial blood gases done in the early stages of ILD nearly always reveal
A)Mixed (metabolic and respiratory)acidosis with hypoxemia
B)Widening (P[A-a] O<sub>2</sub>)
C)Hypoxemia initially limited to exercise
D)Both B and C are correct
Q2) Pulmonary function studies typically reveal which of the following in ILD?
A)A predominantly obstructive ventilatory defect
B)A purely restrictive defect
C)Normal flow rates and volumes initially
D)None of the above
Q3) What is the first symptom of lung involvement in ILD?
A)Productive cough
B)Hepatojugular reflex
C)Bubbling rales
D)Progressive dyspnea on exertion
Q4) The goals of therapy in most cases of ILD are all of these except:
A)Preventing further exposure
B)Reducing inflammation
C)Reversing damage
D)Identifying offending agent

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Chapter 15: Neuromuscular Diseases
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75723
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the response of the central (medullary)chemoreceptors to hypoxemia?
A)None
B)Brisk in contrast to the peripheral chemoreceptors
C)Slower but more sustained response than the peripheral chemoreceptors
D)Response augmented when hypercapnia also present
Q2) Which of these specific treatment modalities is NOT used to treat Guillain-Barré syndrome patients?
A)Plasmapheresis
B)Anticholinesterase drug
C)Mechanical ventilation
D)NIPPV
Q3) Conditions that can affect the neuromuscular function include all of the following except:
A)Organophosphate poisoning
B)Botulism
C)Nerve gases
D)Hyperthermia
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Chapter 16: Bacterial Pneumonia
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75722
Sample Questions
Q1) What type of pneumonia is especially frequent in AIDS patients?
A)Varicella zoster
B)Pneumocystis carinii
C)Staphylococcus aureus
D)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Q2) Which of these is not a pathway for organisms to enter the lungs in the adult?
A)Aspiration
B)From the blood
C)Inhalation
D)From the lymphatic system
Q3) Which of these is not a typical early sign or symptom of pneumonia?
A)Fever
B)Pleuritic pain
C)Dyspnea
D)Nausea
Q4) Lobar pneumonia is evidenced by all of the following except:
A)Unilateral chest expansion on involved side
B)Increased tactile fremitus on involved side
C)Bronchial breath sounds
D)Increased resonance to percussion
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Chapter 17: Pneumonia in the Immunocompromised Patient
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75721
Sample Questions
Q1) The reaction of cell-mediated immunity to an antigen is termed what?
A)Anaphylaxis
B)Cytotoxicity
C)Immune complex reaction
D)Delayed hypersensitivity
Q2) Which of these statements does not describe empiric therapy for immunocompromised pneumonia patients?
A)Is initiated with a broad-spectrum antibiotic
B)Is directed toward organisms least likely to have caused infection
C)Initiated without waiting for culture results
D)Is not directed at any as yet identified organisms
Q3) What cells are the major constituent of pus?
A)Dead and alive neutrophils
B)Dead and alive macrophages
C)Dead and alive eosinophils
D)Dead and alive lymphocytes
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Chapter 18: Sleep Disordered Breathing
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75720
Sample Questions
Q1) Why do patients with obstructive sleep apnea complain of excessive daytime sleepiness?
A)CO<sub>2</sub> build up during sleep makes the brain abnormal
B)Sleep is normal,but patient perception is not
C)Sleep is very fragmented
D)Nobody knows
Q2) Contraindications for using CPAP to treat obstructive sleep apnea include all the following except:
A)Uncontrolled emesis
B)Hypotension with hypovolemia
C)Pneumothorax
D)Left heart failure
Q3) Why do people with central sleep apnea stop breathing periodically during sleep?
A)Their chronic CO<sub>2</sub> retention blunts their drive to breathe during sleep
B)Their pons and medulla are atrophied compared to normal
C)They often have hypothyroidism
D)The cause is unknown
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Chapter 19: Tuberculosis
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75719
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of the medications used to treat TB?
A)Chemical hepatitis
B)Skin eruptions
C)Bluish discoloration of the urine and saliva
D)Gastrointestinal upset
Q2) The spread of TB can occur through all the following mechanisms except:
A)Active TB patient coughing near other people
B)Ingestion of unpasteurized milk from infected cattle
C)Contact with fomites
D)Direct inoculation through the skin
Q3) What is the name of the skin test used to diagnose TB?
A)Mantoux skin test
B)Lilly skin test
C)Homans' skin test
D)Gold skin test
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Chapter 20: Lung Cancer
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/75718
Sample Questions
Q1) Transbronchial needle aspiration to obtain tumor cells employs a needle passed through what type of artificial airway?
A)Tracheostomy
B)Bronchoscope
C)Oral endotracheal tube
D)Oropharyngeal airway
Q2) Which of these are common sites for extrathoracic spread?
A)Brain and spinal cord
B)Bone marrow
C)Liver
D)All the above
Q3) What is the primary treatment for small-cell carcinoma?
A)Surgery
B)Radiation
C)Chemotherapy
D)No therapy
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