Allied Health Sciences
Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that encompasses a wide range of healthcare professions distinct from medicine, nursing, and dentistry. The course provides students with a foundational understanding of diagnostic, therapeutic, and supportive roles that allied health professionals play in healthcare systems. Major topics include the organization and delivery of care, roles and responsibilities of different allied health careers, healthcare ethics, patient interactions, and the impact of technological advancements. Students will develop core knowledge in health sciences, as well as practical insights into the collaborative environment of modern healthcare, preparing them for further specialization or entry-level roles in allied health services.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 6th Edition by Barbara Herlihy
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27 Chapters
2281 Verified Questions
2281 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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69 Verified Questions
69 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medial canthus (corner) of the eye is
A)located near the nose.
B)located near the ear.
C)superior to the eyebrow.
D)inferior to the eyelid.
Answer: A
Q2) Which plane divides the body into right and left halves?
A)Sagittal
B)Coronal
C)Transverse
D)Frontal
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is superior to the umbilicus?
A)Groin
B)Popliteal area
C)Sternal area
D)Pelvic cavity
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an anion?
A)NaCl
B)KCl
C)H SO
D)HCO -
Answer: D
Q2) A combination of sugar granules and iron filings is best described as a(n) A)mixture.
B)colloidal suspension.
C)tincture.
D)isotope.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is true of an anion?
A)An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes.
B)An anion always has an atomic mass of 15.
C)An anion carries a negative charge.
D)A hydrogen ion is an anion.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prophase,metaphase,anaphase,and telophase
A)are stages of cytokinesis.
B)occur during G .
C)are concerned with the synthesis of DNA and the doubling of the chromosomes.
D)are stages of mitosis.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome?
A)Differentiation
B)Phagocytosis
C)Meiosis
D)Hemolysis
Answer: B
Q3) Methotrexate,an anticancer drug that interferes with cell replication,is most effective when the cancer cell is in the S phase of the cell cycle.Which of the following best describes methotrexate?
A)Cell cycle phase-specific
B)Stem cell stimulator
C)Anaplastic
D)Keratinized
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary cellulose
A)is absorbed from the digestive tract and converted to glucose and fuels the cells.
B)is converted to protein by the process of gluconeogenesis.
C)is catabolized by the liver to ketone bodies.
D)cannot be metabolized but is beneficial because it provides fiber and bulk.
Q2) Which of the following represents a base sequence of tRNA that will bind to mRNA UUU?
A)UUU
B)AAA
C)TTT
D)CCC
Q3) Which of the following is not true of glycogen? Glycogen
A)is a storage form of glucose.
B)is an alcohol to which three fatty acids attach,thereby forming a triglyceride.
C)helps in the regulation of blood glucose.
D)is stored within the liver and skeletal muscle.
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A helminth is a(n)
A)parasite.
B)arthropod.
C)worm.
D)bacterium.
Q2) Biting flies,fleas,and ticks
A)most often cause systemic infections.
B)are best described as ectoparasites.
C)are classified as helminths.
D)cause mycotic infections.
Q3) Which of the following lives in the intestinal tract and lays its eggs in the perianal area,causing severe pruritus?
A)Clostridium tetani
B)Pinworms
C)Salmonella typhi
D)Candida albicans
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endocrine and exocrine glands are composed of A)cuboidal epithelia.
B)dense,fibrous connective tissue.
C)transitional epithelium.
D)glial tissue.
Q2) Which of the following is most related to mucous membrane?
A)Forms the dermis
B)Lines all the body cavities that open to the exterior of the body
C)Is also called the skin
D)Is the same as the epidermis
Q3) Endocrine is least often described as A)hormone secreting.
B)ductless.
C)glandular epithelium.
D)contractile.
Q4) Stratified and squamous refer to A)layered and striped.
B)solid and liquid.
C)layered and flat.
D)columnar and cube shaped.
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the structure in this description: The cells are continuously dividing,pushing older cells toward the surface of the cutaneous membrane?
A)Sudoriferous glandular epithelium
B)Dermis
C)Arrector pili
D)Stratum germinativum
Q2) Which of the following is associated with the conservation of heat?
A)The person appears flushed.
B)The person sweats.
C)Melanin is secreted.
D)Blood vessels constrict.
Q3) Dander and dandruff are
A)composed of dead skin cells.
B)clumps of infected sebum.
C)called striae.
D)worn out tactile receptors.
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The olecranon process articulates with the humerus to form a (the)
A)ball-and-socket joint.
B)shoulder joint.
C)carpal tunnel.
D)elbow.
Q2) Cancellous refers to a(n)
A)irregular bone.
B)cartilage.
C)spongy bone.
D)osteon.
Q3) Which of the following is not a bone of the vertebral column?
A)Atlas
B)Sacrum
C)Coccyx
D)Coxal bone
Q4) What group of bones includes the calcaneus?
A)Metatarsals
B)Tarsals
C)Phalanges
D)Carpals
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group of muscles is located on the posterior thigh?
A)Rotator cuff muscles
B)Quadriceps femoris
C)Hamstrings
D)Muscles of mastication
Q2) The rectus femoris,vastus lateralis,vastus medialis,and vastus intermedius
A)insert on the calcaneus.
B)flex the leg at the knee.
C)are antagonistic to the quadriceps femoris.
D)are the muscles of the quadriceps femoris.
Q3) The somatic motor neuron
A)causes release of ACh into the NMJ.
B)stimulates the SR to release calcium into the sarcomeres.
C)moves the tropomyosin away from the myosin binding sites on actin.
D)stimulates the axon terminal to release calcium into the NMJ.
Q4) To which contractile protein does calcium bind?
A)Troponin
B)Tropomyosin
C)Actin
D)Thick filament
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the function of the ependymal cells of the choroid plexus?
A)Synthesize neurotransmitters such as ACh
B)Form cerebrospinal fluid
C)Phagocytose debris
D)Secrete myelin
Q2) What is the name of the first phase of the action potential that is caused by the inward movement of sodium?
A)Repolarization
B)Refractory period
C)Depolarization
D)Saltatory conduction
Q3) This structure is part of the diencephalon; it regulates the anterior pituitary gland,water balance,appetite,body temperature,and the autonomic nervous system.
A)Cerebellum
B)Pons
C)Medulla oblongata
D)Hypothalamus
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the disorder: clusters of vesicles develop along cranial or spinal dermatomes; herpes zoster; postherpetic neuralgia.
A)Multiple sclerosis
B)Shingles
C)Myasthenia gravis
D)Trigeminal neuralgia
Q2) A surgical patient is given a curare-like drug intravenously,thereby blocking his NM receptors.You would expect this patient to A)become jaundiced.
B)bleed excessively during the postoperative period.
C)require assistance breathing.
D)have restraints on all four extremities to limit movement.
Q3) Sensory information is carried by the cochlear branch of CN VIII to the A)primary auditory cortex.
B)occipital lobe.
C)temporal lobe.
D)More than one of the above are true.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system?
A)Adrenergic
B)Norepinephrine
C)Fight-or-flight response
D)Feed-and-breed system
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?
A)Craniosacral outflow
B)Cholinergic fibers only
C)Paravertebral ganglia
D)Postganglionic transmitter is ACh
Q3) Which of the following is true of AChase,MAO,and COMT?
A)Terminate adrenergic receptor activation
B)Are enzymes that degrade neurotransmitters
C)Are adrenergic neurotransmitters
D)Are neurotransmitters that activate nicotinic receptors
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the specialized area of a sensory neuron that detects a specific stimulus?
A)Tract
B)Receptor
C)Dorsal root
D)Node of Ranvier
Q2) Which of the following is most related to refraction?
A)Rods and cones
B)Retina
C)Lens
D)Light
Q3) Which of the following occur as an object is moved closer to the eyes?
A)Mydriasis and miosis
B)Accommodation and convergence
C)Muscarinic and alpha1 activation
D)Contraction of the levator palpebrae superioris and relaxation of the orbicularis oculi
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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113 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) PTH
A)lowers plasma calcium.
B)stimulates osteoclastic activity.
C)is an iodine-containing hormone.
D)stimulates osteoblastic activity and causes blood calcium levels to increase.
Q2) A deficiency of ADH most likely
A)elevates blood glucose levels.
B)causes diabetes mellitus.
C)induces polyuria.
D)expands blood volume.
Q3) ACTH stimulates the
A)hypothalamus to secrete corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH).
B)adenohypophysis to secrete cortisol.
C)adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol.
D)adrenal medulla to secrete glucagon.
Q4) T and T
A)stimulate the adenohypophysis to secrete TSH.
B)regulate the basal metabolic rate (BMR).
C)stimulate osteoclastic activity,thereby elevating plasma calcium levels.
D)All of the above are true.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The word icterus refers to
A)infection.
B)bleeding.
C)jaundice.
D)fever.
Q2) Which of the following is caused by agglutination of the RBCs?
A)Hemolysis
B)Coagulation
C)Crenation
D)Hemostasis
Q3) Which of the following is the most common cause of myelosuppression?
A)Drugs,especially the anticancer drugs
B)Bed rest
C)Dietary deficiencies
D)Hereditary abnormalities of the bone marrow
Q4) Which of the following is least related to the other words?
A)Fibrinolysis
B)Platelet plug formation
C)tPA
D)Plasmin
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) What causes S and S ?
A)Closure of heart valves
B)Firing of the SA node
C)Opening of heart valves
D)Movement of the cardiac impulse along the His-Purkinje fibers
Q2) Which of the following is not considered a "great" vessel?
A)Left anterior descending artery
B)Aorta
C)Venae cavae
D)Pulmonary artery
Q3) Into what structure does blood reflux as a consequence of an incompetent aortic semilunar valve?
A)Right atrium
B)Circumflex artery
C)Left ventricle
D)Pulmonary artery
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Starling's law of the heart relates force of myocardial contraction with A)heart rate.
B)preload.
C)end-systolic volume.
D)blood pressure.
Q2) Excess vagal stimulation to the SA node is most likely to cause A)hypertension.
B)bradycardia.
C)tachycardia.
D)anemia.
Q3) Increased return of the blood to the heart stretches the muscle,thereby A)stimulating the sympathetic nerve.
B)activating the Beta -adrenergic receptors.
C)closing the AV valves.
D)increasing stroke volume.
Q4) What happens during ventricular diastole?
A)The ventricles are filling with blood.
B)All semilunar valves are open.
C)Both AV valves are closed.
D)Blood is pumped to the lungs and systemic circulation.
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels and Special
Circulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Through which blood vessel does blood not flow on its way from the hepatic vein to the brachial artery?
A)Pulmonary artery
B)Ascending aorta
C)Descending aorta
D)Subclavian artery
Q2) The subclavian artery is
A)a branch of the abdominal aorta.
B)part of the hepatic-portal circulation.
C)part of the circle of Willis.
D)a branch of the aorta that supplies the upper extremity.
Q3) Which of the following is true of these vascular structures: coronary sinus,pulmonary artery,umbilical arteries,and venae cavae? They all
A)are found exclusively in the fetal circulation.
B)carry unoxygenated blood.
C)are attached directly to the heart.
D)are color-coded red.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the left ventricle of the heart fails,blood backs up in the pulmonary capillary,
A)decreasing plasma oncotic pressure and drying out the lungs.
B)blocking the flow of lymph and drying out the lungs.
C)increasing capillary pressure and forcing fluid into the lungs.
D)increasing plasma oncotic pressure,causing pulmonary edema.
Q2) What is the pulse pressure when a person's blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg?
A)120 mm Hg
B)80 mm Hg
C)40 mm Hg
D)Can't determine the pulse pressure from this information
Q3) Which of the following is a consequence of sympathetic nerve stimulation?
A)Increased myocardial force of contraction
B)Peripheral vasoconstriction
C)Increased systemic vascular resistance
D)All of the above
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen,thymus gland,tonsils,and lymph nodes are
A)confined to the thoracic cavity.
B)lymphoid organs.
C)primarily concerned with hematopoiesis.
D)concerned only with phagocytosis.
Q2) What is the name of the lymph nodes that drain the head and neck region?
A)Inguinal
B)Cervical
C)Thoracic
D)Pelvic
Q3) The inguinal lymph nodes
A)line the entrance of the spleen.
B)are the Kupffer cells within the liver.
C)are located in the groin.
D)are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
Q4) Which of the following is least characteristic of the pharyngeal tonsils?
A)Lymphoid organs
B)Called adenoids
C)Protect body from infection
D)Most commonly removed by tonsillectomy
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the toxin that has been altered so that it is harmless yet still antigenic?
A)Vaccine
B)Antibody
C)Gamma globulin
D)Toxoid
Q2) Antibodies
A)include IgG,IgM,and IgE.
B)are secreted by plasma cells.
C)react with antigens,causing agglutination.
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Which of the following is not a step in the activation of a B lymphocyte?
A)Antigen presentation
B)Production of antibody-secreting plasma cells
C)Activation by helper T cells
D)Activation of cells that engage in cell-to-cell combat
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diaphragm
A)is smooth muscle that forms the bronchioles.
B)is skeletal muscle.
C)contracts in response to the firing of the vagus nerve.
D)forms the outer lining of the lungs.
Q2) Boyle's law states the relationship between volume and A)O .
B)CO .
C)pressure.
D)H O.
Q3) The alveoli
A)are supported by C-shaped cartilaginous rings.
B)are the primary site of respiratory gas exchange.
C)contract and relax,thereby determining resistance to air flow through the respiratory passages.
D)are composed primarily of smooth muscle.
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which organ produces bile and secretes it into the hepatic ducts?
A)Pancreas
B)Gallbladder
C)Spleen
D)Liver
Q2) This structure is located between the pylorus and the jejunum.
A)Stomach
B)Duodenum
C)Cecum
D)Esophagus
Q3) Which of the following produces amino acids as its end-product of digestion?
A)Bile
B)Lipase
C)Trypsin
D)Amylase
Q4) The sphincter of Oddi,ampulla of Vater,and cystic duct
A)drain into the portal vein.
B)are biliary structures.
C)carry pancreatic enzymes to the duodenum.
D)connect the pylorus to the duodenum.
25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anticholinergic (muscarinic antagonist) drug,such as atropine,prevents both the relaxation of the urinary sphincter and the contraction of the detrusor muscle.You would therefore observe the patient for signs of A)uremia.
B)urinary suppression.
C)urinary retention.
D)nephrotic syndrome.
Q2) Which of the following is false with regard to normal urine?
A)Normal urine has E.coli as part of its normal flora.
B)Urinary tract infections are more common in alkaline urine than in acid urine.
C)Urine does not contain glucose.
D)Urine does not contain significant amounts of albumin.
Q3) Which of the following is handled by the kidneys as either urea or ammonia?
A)Carbon dioxide
B)Creatinine
C)Nitrogen
D)Glucose
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Which of the following is true of dehydration?
A)Is characterized by poor skin turgor and "tenting"
B)Is accompanied by an decrease in urine specific gravity
C)Causes a shift of water from the vasculature into the interstitium
D)Is generally treated with a diuretic
Q2) Which of the following anions buffers H ?
A)Ca² +
B)HCO -
C)Na+
D)K+
Q3) An unconscious diabetic patient with a blood sugar of 450 mg/dL has an elevated temperature and is experiencing Kussmaul respirations.You suspect that
A)he is excreting large amounts of bicarbonate in his urine.
B)his PO is normal or high-normal.
C)his blood pH is 7.25.
D)Two of the above are true.
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which hormone promotes the maturation of the egg and helps develop the female characteristics?
A)Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B)Androgen
C)Estrogen
D)Interstitial cell-stimulating hormone
Q2) An elevation of plasma levels of estrogen and progesterone
A)stimulates the release of gonadotropins.
B)prevents the release of FSH and LH.
C)transforms the corpus luteum into the corpus albicans.
D)causes menstruation.
Q3) Which structure secretes the gonadotropins?
A)Adrenal cortex
B)Testes
C)Anterior pituitary gland
D)Ovum
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Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least characteristic of hCG?
A)Secreted by trophoblasts
B)Maintains the corpus luteum
C)Maintains maternal levels of estrogen and progesterone
D)Exerts an oxytoxic effect
Q2) What is the name of the fine downy hair that covers the fetus?
A)Vernix caseosa
B)Lanugo
C)Colostrum
D)Meconium
Q3) Which hormone is secreted by the trophoblastic cells during implantation and helps preserve the corpus luteum?
A)Estrogen
B)Progesterone
C)hCG
D)FSH
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