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Allied Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that encompasses a wide range of health professions outside of medicine, dentistry, and nursing. This course offers an in-depth exploration of the roles, responsibilities, and collaborative functions of allied health professionals such as medical laboratory technologists, radiographers, physiotherapists, occupational therapists, and speech-language pathologists. Students will learn about the fundamental principles of patient care, diagnostic techniques, therapeutic interventions, and healthcare systems. The course also emphasizes the importance of teamwork, ethical considerations, and the impact of technological advancements in enhancing healthcare delivery and improving patient outcomes.
Recommended Textbook Essentials of Anatomy Physiology 7th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Q1) Which statement is true?
A) An organ will likely be composed of different tissues.
B) Organs are composed of organ systems.
C) Many molecules come together to form atoms.
D) All organs in an organ system have the same function.
E) The smallest living unit in the body is an atom.
Answer: A
Q2) The forearm is called the
A) acromial.
B) olecranon.
C) antebrachium.
D) lumbus.
E) brachium.
Answer: C
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Q1) A mixture of water and a salt would result in breaking down the salt into a mixture of cations and anions.This process is called
A) dehydration synthesis.
B) dissociation.
C) hydrolysis.
D) condensation reaction.
E) equilibrium.
Answer: B
Q2) Phospholipids consist of ________ linked to a non-lipid group by a phosphate group.
A) four connected rings of carbon atoms
B) a glycerol and three fatty acids
C) a glycerol and two fatty acids
D) long chains of carbon atoms with attached hydrogen atoms that end in a carboxyl group
E) interconnected glucose molecules
Answer: C
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Q1) The folds of the internal membrane within mitochondria are called A) cristae.
B) cytosol.
C) cisternae.
D) matrix.
E) histones.
Answer: A
Q2) The cell seen in the preceding diagram could be
A) undergoing cell respiration.
B) replicating its DNA.
C) phagocytosing cell debris.
D) modifying and releasing a cellular protein.
E) performing active transport.
Answer: D
Q3) When a person receives intravenous fluids to help build up blood volume,why could it be detrimental to administer a hypotonic solution?
Answer: Intravenous fluids must be isotonic to prevent the cells from losing or gaining water.The introduction of hypotonic fluid would cause the cells to swell and possibly rupture,possibly causing massive hemolysis.
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Q1) Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue.
A) cartilage
B) nervous
C) epithelial
D) connective
E) muscle
Q2) Secretions that are discharged directly into the blood are characteristic of ________ glands.
A) exocrine
B) merocrine
C) endocrine
D) apocrine
E) holocrine
Q3) During a lab practical,a student examines a tissue that is composed of a densely packed epithelium composed of square-shaped cells in a single layer.The epithelia are often cut into circles,and sometimes into parallel rows.What organ is the student most likely observing?
Q4) Jim and Pam are at the beach soaking up the sunlight when Pam notices that Jim's feet are very callused and hers are not.What would cause Jim's feet to be callused,while Pam's are not?
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Q1) The nail ________ covers the nail bed.
A) root
B) body
C) lunula
D) cuticle
E) eponychium
Q2) The layer of the epidermis at the exposed surface is the A) stratum corneum.
B) stratum lucidum.
C) stratum basale.
D) stratum granulosum.
E) stratum spinosum.
Q3) A hair shaft is composed of
A) melanin.
B) carotene.
C) starch.
D) lipid.
E) keratin.
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Q1) Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
A) the skull
B) the manubrium
C) the sternum
D) the scapula
E) the vertebrae
Q2) The ridges that can be felt along the backbone,on the dorsal aspect of the body,are produced by the
A) vertebral arches.
B) dens.
C) spinous processes.
D) transverse processes.
E) styloid processes.
Q3) Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
A) clavicle
B) patella
C) carpal bones
D) ribs
E) coxal bones
Q4) Differentiate between compact bone and spongy bone.
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Q1) The muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the
A) tibialis anterior.
B) tibialis posterior.
C) soleus.
D) peroneus.
E) gastrocnemius.
Q2) A single stimulus-contraction-relaxation sequence in a muscle fiber is known as a(n)
A) incomplete tetanus.
B) latent period.
C) complete tetanus.
D) summation.
E) twitch.
Q3) The deltoid acts to A) flex the wrist.
B) medially rotate the shoulder.
C) abduct the arm.
D) adduct the arm.
E) laterally rotate the shoulder.
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Q1) Which cranial nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of pharyngeal muscles and parotid salivary glands?
A) XII
B) X
C) VIII
D) IX
E) VI
Q2) The ________ is the layer of the meninges that is in direct contact with the surface of the brain.
A) pia mater
B) subarachnoid space
C) dura mater
D) epidural space
E) arachnoid
Q3) Which neuroglial cells produce CSF in some regions of the brain?
A) microglia
B) Schwann cells
C) ependymal cells
D) oligodendrocytes
E) astrocytes
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Q1) Structure G is the
A) retina.
B) sclera.
C) choroid.
D) ciliary body.
E) cornea.
Q2) Which of the following arrives at the primary sensory cortex?
A) olfactory sensations
B) visual sensations
C) auditory sensations
D) motor efferents
E) touch sensations
Q3) Night blindness can be treated by administering
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin D.
C) vitamin E.
D) vitamin K.
E) vitamin C.
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Q1) Which statement is true regarding structure H?
A) This organ produces only one hormone.
B) This organ produces many hormones.
C) This organ is an important endocrine gland.
D) This organ is the thyroid gland.
E) This organ is the pancreas.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding structure L?
A) This is the adrenal gland.
B) This organ is a major endocrine gland.
C) This organ makes no hormones.
D) The organ is labeled just because the adrenal gland sits upon it.
E) This organ has a secondary endocrine function.
Q3) During the Alarm Phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS),there is
A) decreased blood flow to skeletal muscles and skin.
B) decreased mental alertness.
C) mobilization of glycogen and lipid reserves.
D) increased urine production.
E) decreased respiratory rate.
Q4) Explain the interactions of parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
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Q1) Agglutinogens of the various blood types are examples of A) surface antibodies.
B) channel proteins.
C) leukocytes.
D) surface antigens.
E) agranulocytes.
Q2) Label A represents
A) electrolytes.
B) albumins.
C) globulins.
D) fibrinogen.
E) erythrocytes.
Q3) The term ________ refers to the combination of plasma and the formed elements together.
A) whole blood
B) hematocrit
C) thrombocyte
D) hemopoiesis
E) packed cell volume
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Q1) Normal cardiac muscle is similar to normal skeletal muscle in terms of
A) the duration of the action potentials, which last 250-300 msec.
B) the duration of the resulting contractions.
C) the refractory period, which continues until relaxation is under way.
D) the appearance of calcium among the myofibrils.
E) the appearance of summation of twitches.
Q2) During repolarization,________ ions rush out of the ventricular contractile cell.
A) sodium
B) calcium
C) magnesium
D) selenium
E) potassium
Q3) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) brain.
D) kidneys.
E) pancreas.
Q4) Explain the significance of the thickness of the left ventricular wall.
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Q1) The vessel that supplies blood to the face is the
A) internal carotid artery.
B) external carotid artery.
C) basilar artery.
D) anterior cerebral artery.
E) middle cerebral artery.
Q2) Blood leaving the capillaries in the sole of each foot collects into a network of ________ veins.
A) dorsal
B) fibular
C) tibial
D) saphenous
E) plantar
Q3) ________ involves the alteration of peripheral resistance by acting directly on precapillary sphincters.
A) ANP release
B) Autoregulation
C) Chemoreceptor reflex
D) Renin release
E) Baroreceptor reflex

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Q1) What does label A represent?
A) complement binding site
B) antigen binding site
C) antigenic determinant sites
D) macrophage binding site
E) antibodies
Q2) Which of the following is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous connective tissue capsule?
A) palatine tonsils
B) appendix
C) lymph nodes
D) Peyer patches
E) pharyngeal tonsils
Q3) ________ is the ability to produce a normal immune response upon exposure to an antigen.
A) Versatility
B) Complement activation
C) Neutralization
D) Specificity
E) Immunological competence
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Q1) The following is a list of some of the structures of the respiratory tree: 1.secondary bronchi
2)tertiary bronchi
3)bronchioles
4)primary bronchi
The order in which air passes through these structures beginning at the trachea is
A) 4, 1, 2, 3.
B) 3, 2, 1, 4.
C) 2, 3, 1, 4.
D) 4, 1, 3, 2.
E) 1, 2, 3, 4.
Q2) The enzyme carbonic anhydrase causes what to occur in RBCs?
A) carbon dioxide to be converted to carbonic acid
B) carbon dioxide to be converted to water
C) water to be converted to oxygen and carbon dioxide
D) water to react with hydrogen ions
E) carbonic acid to be converted to hemoglobin
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Q1) Label E represents which structure?
A) circular fold
B) submucosa
C) muscularis externa
D) serosa
E) mucosa
Q2) ________ is a buffer that helps to increase the pH of chyme.
A) Secretin
B) Trypsin
C) Sodium bicarbonate
D) Bile salt
E) Cholecystokinin
Q3) ________ interact with bile salts to form micelles needed for lipid absorption.
A) Fatty acids and monoglycerides
B) Fatty acids and diglycerides
C) Fatty acids and triglycerides
D) Complex carbohydrates and monoglycerides
E) Complex carbohydrates and fatty acids
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Q1) In transamination,the amino group of an amino acid is transferred to A) ammonia.
B) urea.
C) another carbon chain.
D) a molecule in the glycolytic pathway.
E) acetyl CoA.
Q2) Lipids that can diffuse easily across plasma membranes are called A) triglycerides.
B) steroids.
C) albumins.
D) high-density lipoproteins.
E) free fatty acids.
Q3) ________ are inorganic ions released through electrolytes,such as sodium chloride.
A) Minerals
B) Enzymes
C) Water-soluble vitamins
D) Essential proteins
E) Fat-soluble vitamins
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Q1) If pH increases in a protein buffer system,which of the following is most likely to occur?
A) The amino group of the amino acid accepts an additional hydrogen ion.
B) Carbon dioxide is converted to carbonic acid.
C) The carboxyl group of the amino acid dissociates, releasing a hydrogen ion.
D) In solution, dihydrogen phosphate reversibly dissociates into a hydrogen ion and monohydrogen phosphate.
E) Carbonic acid dissociates into hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions.
Q2) Sylvia is suffering from severe edema (an abnormal buildup of serous fluid between tissue cells)in her arms and legs.Her physician prescribes a diuretic (a substance that will increase the volume of urine produced).Why might this help to alleviate Sylvia's problem?
Q3) Label P represents which of the following structures?
A) nephron loop
B) renal corpuscle
C) proximal convoluted tubule
D) distal convoluted tubule
E) collecting duct
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Q1) Label I represents which of the following structures?
A) urinary bladder
B) clitoris
C) labium minus
D) labium majus
E) greater vestibular gland
Q2) Maturing spermatozoa are stored primarily in the A) seminiferous tubules.
B) straight tubules.
C) lobules.
D) interstitial areas.
E) epididymis.
Q3) The layer of visceral peritoneum of the uterine wall is called the A) isthmus.
B) endometrium.
C) perimetrium.
D) myometrium.
E) internal os.
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Q1) The most common viable chromosome abnormality is
A) Fragile-X syndrome.
B) Trisomy 21.
C) Turner's syndrome.
D) Klinefelter's syndrome.
E) a translocation defect.
Q2) When labor begins,the fetal pituitary gland secretes ________,which may be the actual trigger for the onset of labor.
A) prolactin
B) hCG
C) oxytocin
D) growth hormone
E) thyroxine
Q3) If an X-carrying sperm fertilizes an egg,the resulting zygote will be
A) either male or female.
B) male only.
C) female only.
D) nonviable.
E) both male and female.
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