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This course offers a comprehensive overview of the essential skills and knowledge required for allied health professionals to effectively support patient care in diverse healthcare settings. Students will explore the roles and responsibilities of allied health occupations, including but not limited to medical laboratory technicians, radiologic technologists, physical therapists, and respiratory therapists. Emphasis is placed on foundational medical terminology, patient communication, ethical practice, infection control, and interdisciplinary collaboration. Through interactive lectures, hands-on activities, and case studies, participants will develop core competencies needed to excel in their chosen allied health field and adapt to the evolving demands of the healthcare industry.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Terminology for Health Professions 7 th Edition by Ann Ehrlich
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Q1) Which combining form means fungus?
A) mucos/o
B) myc/o
C) myel/o
D) my/o
Answer: B
Q2) tonsillitis
A)before birth
B)inflammation of the tonsils
C)joint pain
D)mature red blood cell
E)surgical removal of the appendix
Answer: B
Q3) hypo-
A)abnormal condition
B)abnormal enlargement
C)deficient
D)excessive
E)pain
Answer: C
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Q1) functional disorder
A)a disorder with no detectable physical changes to explain the symptoms
B)a disorder with pathologic physical changes that explain the symptoms
C)an illness caused by a pathogenic organism
D)an illness without known cause
E)any disease transmitted from one person to another
Answer: A
Q2) ____________________ glands,such as sweat glands,secrete chemical substances into ducts that lead either to other organs or out of the body.
Answer: Exocrine
Q3) Somatic cell mutation can be transmitted to the offspring.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) A gamete is the only type of cell that does not contain 46 chromosomes. A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) The larynx is part of the ____________________ system.
Answer: respiratory
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Q1) The ____ is also known as the hip socket.
A) acetabulum
B) clavicle
C) olecranon process
D) patella
Answer: A
Q2) A bursectomy is the surgical removal of a bursa.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The surgical procedure for loosening an ankylosed joint is known as ____.
A) ankylosis
B) arthrodesis
C) arthrolysis
D) spondylosis
Answer: C
Q4) The shaft of a long bone is known as the ____________________.
Answer: diaphysis
Q5) A surgical incision into a bone is known as a/an ____________________.
Answer: osteotomy
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Q1) A/An ____ is the surgical division of a tendon for relief of a deformity caused by the abnormal shortening of a muscle.
A) tenectomy
B) tenodesis
C) tenolysis
D) tenotomy
Q2) The circular movement of a limb at the far end is known as ____________________.
Q3) A sudden,involuntary contraction of one or more muscles is known as a/an
Q4) The condition of extreme slowness in movement is known as ____________________.This is one of the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
Q5) biceps
A)formed from four muscle divisions
B)formed from three muscle divisions
C)formed from two muscle divisions
D)where a muscle begins
E)where a muscle ends
Q6) The term ____________________ means the degeneration of muscle tissue.
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Q7) The term ____________________ means the rupture or tearing of a muscle.

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Q1) A/An ____,which is designed for use by nonprofessionals,externally shocks the heart to restore a normal cardiac rhythm.
A) automated external defibrillator
B) defibrillator
C) implantable cardioverter defibrillator
D) pacemaker
Q2) The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is controlled by the ____________________ valve.
Q3) angiospasm
A)inflammation of a blood vessel
B)inflammation of a vein
C)narrowing of a blood vessel
D)spasmodic contraction of blood vessels
E)thickening and the loss of elasticity of arterial walls
Q4) The systemic condition caused by the spread of microorganisms and their toxins via the circulating blood is known as ____________________.
Q5) Hypoperfusion is a deficiency of blood passing through an organ or body part.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which statement is accurate regarding Hodgkin's lymphoma?
A) Hodgkin's lymphoma is distinguished from other lymphomas by the absence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma is distinguished from other lymphomas by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells.
C) Hodgkin's lymphoma describes all lymphomas except non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
D) Hodgkin's lymphoma is commonly known as preleukemia.
Q2) Which condition is a malignant tumor derived from muscle tissue?
A) myoma
B) myeloma
C) myosarcoma
D) osteosarcoma
Q3) Rod-shaped,spore-forming bacteria,such as those that cause tetanus,are known as
Q4) A/An ____ occurs when the immune response is weakened,reduced,absent,or not functioning properly.
A) autoimmunity
B) immunodeficiency disorder
C) immunosuppressant
D) transfusion reaction

Page 8
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Q1) eupnea
A)abnormally deep respiration
B)abnormally rapid respiration
C)difficult or labored breathing
D)normal breathing
E)shallow respiration
Q2) bronchitis
A)also known as the common cold
B)excessive flow of mucus from the bronchi
C)expands the opening of the passages into the lungs
D)inflammation of the bronchial walls
E)inflammation of the pleura
Q3) Mucus helps moisten,warm,and filter the air as it enters the nose.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What structure,commonly known as the Adam's apple,protects the larynx?
A) epiglottis
B) mediastinum
C) thyroid cartilage
D) trachea

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Q1) A cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Morbid ____________________ is the condition of weighing two to three times,or more,than the ideal weight.
Q3) colostomy
A)surgical reduction of the size of the stomach
B)surgical creation of a connection between the stomach and duodenum
C)surgical creation of an artificial opening into the stomach
D)surgical creation of an opening between the colon and the body surface
E)surgical creation of an opening between the ileum and the abdominal wall
Q4) A cleft lip is a congenital fissure involving the upper lip,the hard palate,or the soft palate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The flow of waste through the anus is controlled by the two anal sphincter muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The surgical removal of the ileum is a/an ____________________.
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Q1) The treatment that provides ongoing dialysis is known as continuous ambulatory ____________________ dialysis.
Q2) The term ____________________ describes the distention of a ureter.
Q3) nephrolithiasis
A)condition of having a kidney stone
B)presence of a stone in the kidney
C)presence of a stone in the ureter
D)presence of a stone in the urinary bladder
E)surgical incision to remove a stone
Q4) A female ureter is 10 inches long.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A cystocele is a hernia of the bladder through the vaginal wall.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The term ____________________ means scanty urination.
Q7) Hydronephrosis is the enlargement of the renal pelvis of one or both kidneys.
A)True
B)False
Q8) A ____________________ is the surgical fixation of a floating kidney.
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Q1) A/An ____ is administered to temporarily relieve anxiety and to reduce tension.
A) antipsychotic drug
B) anxiolytic drug
C) mood-stabilizing drug
D) psychotropic drug
Q2) The medical term for the condition that is commonly known as fainting is ____________________.
Q3) A traumatic brain injury is a blow to the head or a penetrating head injury that damages the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A reflex is an automatic,involuntary response to some change,either inside or outside the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A transient ischemic attack is an episode of bleeding in the brain that causes numbness,blurred vision,dizziness,or loss of balance.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Xerophthalmia is also known as dry eye.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The choroid is also known as the white of the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Synechia is an adhesion that binds the iris to any adjacent structure,such as the lens or cornea.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A sense of whirling,dizziness,and the loss of balance is known as
Q5) A ____ test is performed to determine losses in peripheral vision.
A) refraction
B) tonometry
C) visual acuity
D) visual field testing
Q6) A/An ____________________ evaluation is the measurement of the ability to hear and understand speech sounds based on their pitch and loudness.
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Q1) seborrheic keratosis
A)skin inflammation due to overproduction of sebum
B)overproduction of sebum
C)lesion formed by the buildup of sebum
D)benign,flesh-colored skin growth
E)cyst containing yellow,fatty material
Q2) A biopsy is the removal of a small piece of living tissue for examination.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Impetigo is a highly contagious viral skin infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A form of soft-tissue augmentation used to soften facial lines or scars or to make lips appear fuller is known as ____________________ replacement therapy.
Q5) An acute,rapidly spreading infection within the connective tissue that is characterized by malaise,swelling,warmth,and red streaks is known as
Q6) Dandruff is a form of seborrheic keratosis.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) thyroid hormone
A)stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
B)regulates the rate of metabolism
C)aids in regulating the salt and water levels
D)has an anti-inflammatory action
E)works with calcitonin
Q2) Progesterone completes the preparation of the uterus for possible pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which gland secretes the hormone melatonin?
A) adrenal
B) pineal
C) pituitary
D) thymus
Q4) pineal
A)control glucose metabolism
B)regulate calcium levels
C)influence sleep-wakefulness cycle
D)regulate electrolyte levels
E)active in immune reaction
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Q1) IVF
A)in vitro fertilization
B)zygote intrafallopian transfer
C)advanced maternal age
D)gamete intrafallopian transfer
E)assisted reproductive technology
Q2) Which term describes the surgical removal of a cone-shaped specimen of tissue from the cervix?
A) colopexy
B) colpectomy
C) conization
D) curettage
Q3) clitoris
A)external female genitalia
B)fleshy prominence over the pubic symphysis
C)organ of sensitive,erectile tissue
D)secrete mucus to lubricate the vagina
E)vaginal lips
Q4) In the male,the region between the scrotum and the anus is known as the
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Q1) ____ is the presence of the protein albumin in the urine and is a sign of impaired kidney function.
A) Albuminuria
B) Calciuria
C) Glycosuria
D) Hematuria
Q2) A/An ____ test is used to detect an internal hemorrhage lasting more than 24 hours.
A) erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B) hematocrit
C) platelet count
D) red blood cell count
Q3) A bone ____________________ is a nuclear scanning test that identifies new areas of bone growth or breakdown.
Q4) ____________________ is the diagnostic procedure to determine the density of a body part by the sound produced by tapping the surface with the fingers.
Q5) A placebo eases the pain or severity of a disease but does not cure it.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which type of fracture is associated with osteoporosis?
A) Colles' fracture
B) oblique fracture
C) spiral fracture
D) transverse fracture
Q2) The hormone ____ works with the parathyroid hormone to regulate calcium levels in the blood and tissues.
A) aldosterone
B) calcitonin
C) glucagon
D) luteotropin
Q3) The medical term ____ describes any voice impairment,including hoarseness,weakness,or loss of voice.
A) dysphonia
B) dysphagia
C) laryngitis
D) laryngoplegia
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Q1) Which term describes evidence of disease,such as a fever,that can be observed by the patient and others?
A) prognosis
B) sign
C) symptom
D) syndrome
Q2) A/An ____ is a surgical incision into the chest wall.
A) thoracostomy
B) thoracotomy
C) tracheostomy
D) tracheotomy
Q3) Which term means harmful,tending to spread,becoming progressively worse,and life threatening?
A) benign
B) congenital
C) hereditary
D) malignant
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