Allied Health Procedures
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Allied Health Procedures introduces students to the foundational skills and practices essential for supporting clinical professionals in a variety of healthcare settings. The course covers vital aspects such as patient assessment, infection control, basic clinical procedures, documentation, and effective communication within the healthcare team. Students will learn proper techniques for vital sign measurement, specimen collection, patient preparation for exams, and assistance with minor procedures. Emphasis is placed on ethical considerations, safety, and adherence to current healthcare standards, ensuring the development of competent entry-level allied health professionals.
Recommended Textbook
Todays Medical Assistant Clinical and Administrative Procedures 2nd Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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50 Chapters
3010 Verified Questions
3010 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Health Care System
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical transcription is performed by the medical assistant in most medical settings.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
Q2) Most physician assistant programs award a master's degree.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) A medical assistant should avoid using diagnostic terminology in the medical record.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) What is the name for an insurance plan's list of approved medications?
A) Formulary
B) Prescription
C) Premium
D) Generic Answer: A
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Chapter 2: The Professional Medical Assistant
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65 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A medical assistant should always determine the legal status of the medical assisting profession in the state in which he or she intends to work, because state laws can vary widely.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following activities might the medical assistant perform in the medical office?
A) Paying bills such as rent, insurance, electricity, etc.
B) Writing prescriptions for medications patients should take
C) Deciding when a patient needs X-rays
D) Hiring and supervising all staff in the medical office
Answer: A
Q3) How often must a CMA (AAMA) (certified medical assistant) recertify to continue to use the credential?
A) Every year
B) Every 3 years
C) Every 5 years
D) Every 7 years
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Ethics and Law for the Medical Office
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90 Verified Questions
90 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT one of the four Ds of malpractice?
A) Duty owed by physician to patient
B) Dereliction of duty by physician to patient
C) Damages to the patient resulting from breach of duty
D) Determination of negligence to patient
Answer: D
Q2) When one employee engages another with unwanted comments or physical contact of a sexual nature, what is it called?
A) Bad behavior
B) Flirting
C) A moral offense
D) Harassment
Answer: D
Q3) What right is the basis for informed consent?
A) Right to life
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to autonomy
D) Right to the means to sustain life
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Interacting With Patients
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term that best defines "a psychologic response to a perceived threat," and one of the most common responses to illness, is
A) Hypochondria
B) Depression
C) Acting out
D) Anxiety
Q2) Identify the role of self boundaries in the health care setting
Q3) If a patient facing a serious illness appears to be using denial, how should the medical assistant respond?
A) Agree with the patient that the illness is minor.
B) Tell the patient that he or she does not appear to be facing reality.
C) Accept the denial without reinforcing it.
D) Reassure that patient that everything will probably turn out well.
Q4) How can the medical assistant facilitate communication nonverbally?
A) Avoid eye contact
B) Be aware of his or her own and the patient's body language
C) Ask the patient to repeat anything that is unclear
D) Stand close to the patient
Q5) Discuss the role of assertiveness in effective professional communication
Q6) Psychology of Human Relations
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for a group of cells with a similar structure and function?
A) Tissue
B) Organ
C) Body system
D) Total organism
Q2) What is the function of serous fluid?
A) Reduces friction and provides lubrication
B) Traps foreign particles
C) Synthesizes cartilage
D) Destroys bacteria
E) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following structures is NOT located in the thoracic cavity?
A) Heart
B) Esophagus
C) Stomach
D) Trachea
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q6) Identify body systems
Q7) Describe body planes, directional terms, quadrants, and cavities
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Chapter 6: Integumentary System
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The visible portion of the nail is known as the A) Nail body
B) Nail root
C) Nail matrix
D) Hang nail
Q2) The whitish, crescent-shaped area of the nail is known as the
A) Nail root
B) Nail matrix
C) Eponychium
D) Lunula
Q3) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q4) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the lifespan
Q5) The cuticle of the hair is made up of
A) Melanocytes
B) Keratinized cells
C) Simple squamous epithelial tissue
D) Elastic fibers
Q6) List major organs in each body system
Q7) Identify body systems
Q8) Anatomy and Physiology
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Chapter 7: Skeletal System
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What happens when the blood calcium level decreases?
A) Calcium is released from the bones
B) Scurvy
C) Less calcium is absorbed from food in the digestive tract
D) Calcium is stored in the bones
Q2) The malleus, incus, and stapes make up the
A) Lacrimal bones
B) Auditory ossicles
C) Nasal septum
D) Orbit of the eye
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the pelvic girdle?
A) Provides support for the weight of the body
B) Provides support and protection for the intestines
C) Protects the heart and lungs
D) Attaches the lower extremities to the axial skeleton
Q4) What is the name of the central indentation of the sternum?
A) Manubrium
B) Body
C) Jugular (suprasternal) notch
D) Xiphoid process
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Chapter 8: Muscular System
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify body systems
Q2) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q3) A buildup of lactic acid in the muscles causes
A) Muscle pain
B) Heat stroke
C) Perspiration
D) Hives
Q4) What are the products of anaerobic respiration?
A) Large amount of ATP, carbon dioxide and water
B) Amino acids and carbon dioxide
C) Small amount of ATP and lactic acid
D) Glucose and fatty acids
Q5) A muscle that opposes or reverses a particular movement is known as
A) A synergist
B) An antagonist
C) A prime mover
D) A secondary mover
Q6) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q7) Medical Terminology
Q8) List major organs in each body system
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Chapter 9: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the name of the interconnected fluid-filled cavities in the brain?
A) Central canals
B) Fossa
C) Ventricles
D) Dorsal columns
Q2) Which of the following are under control of the medulla?
A) Adjustment of heart rate
B) Regulation of blood pressure
C) Regulation of breathing
D) Vomiting
E) All of the above
Q3) What are the meninges?
A) Fluid-filled cavities in the brain
B) Membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord
C) Fissures that separate the lobes of the brain
D) Protrusions on the surface of the brain
Q4) Describe structural organization of the human of the human body
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Medical Terminology
Q7) Identify body systems
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Chapter 10: The Senses
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of receptors do extreme temperatures stimulate?
A) Heat receptors
B) Pain receptors
C) Cold receptors
D) Pressure receptors
Q2) What are the mechanoreceptors involved with proprioception?
A) Taste buds
B) Golgi tendon organs
C) Free nerve endings
D) Organ of Corti
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a function of tears?
A) Moisten and cleanse the eye
B) Destroy bacteria
C) Prevent foreign objects from entering the eye
D) Lubricate the eye
Q4) The sense of position or orientation is known as
A) Proprioception
B) Equilibrium
C) Global positioning
D) Placement
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Chapter 11: Endocrine System
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48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q2) Which of the following is NOT produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
A) Growth hormone
B) Oxytocin
C) Thyroid stimulating hormone
D) Luteinizing hormone
Q3) aden/o
A)to secrete
B)in, within
C)nerve
D)to grow
E)hormone
F)gland
G)beneath, below
H)out, away from
Q4) What hormone regulates the sleep/wake cycle?
A) Melatonin
B) Epinephrine
C) Melanin
D) Estrogen
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Chapter 12: Circulatory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is necessary for red blood cell production?
A) Iron
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) Folic acid
D) All of the above
Q2) Microscopic arteries are known as
A) Capillaries
B) Arterioles
C) Venules
D) Veins
Q3) What makes up the buffy coat?
A) White blood cells and platelets
B) Red blood cells and platelets
C) Plasma and platelets
D) Serum and plasma
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the sinoatrial node?
A) Initiates impulses without neural stimulation
B) Initiates an impulse four to five times per minute
C) Known as the "pacemaker" of the heart
D) Located in the right atrium
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Chapter 13: Respiratory System
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38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paranasal sinuses
A)Air-filled cavities that reduce the weight of the skull
B)Bony ridges that project into the nasal cavity
C)Interior chamber of the nose
D)Divides the nose into two parts
E)Opening through which air enters the nasal cavity
F)Openings from the nasal cavity into the pharynx
G)Separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity
H)Posterior portion of the soft palate that helps direct food into the oropharynx
Q2) Which of the following prevents food and water from entering the trachea?
A) Epiglottis
B) Glottis
C) Cricoid cartilage
D) Fauces
Q3) Which of the following does NOT occur during exhalation?
A) The diaphragm relaxes.
B) The alveoli become smaller.
C) Lung volume decreases.
D) The size of the thoracic cavity increases.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Digestive System
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50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the total number of secondary teeth?
A) 10
B) 16
C) 32
D) 40
Q2) Which of the following emulsifies fat into small fat droplets?
A) Amylase
B) Cholesterol
C) Lipase
D) Bile salts
Q3) Which of the following provides a passageway for food between the pharynx and stomach?
A) Larynx
B) Trachea
C) Esophagus
D) Oropharynx
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Urinary System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the act of expelling urine?
A) Mensuration
B) Excretion
C) Peristalsis
D) Micturition
Q2) Which of the following does the urinary system NOT comprise?
A) Prostate gland
B) Kidneys
C) Ureters
D) Urinary bladder
Q3) Which of the following does NOT occur to the urinary system as an individual ages?
A) The muscles in the wall of the urinary structures become less elastic.
B) The kidneys are unable to maintain a stable balance in the blood under normal conditions.
C) The urinary bladder is unable to expand or contract as much as it once used to.
D) Awareness of the need to urinate may be delayed until the bladder is nearly full.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive System
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41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following uterine layers is sloughed off during menstruation?
A) Stratum functionale
B) Stratum basale
C) Perimetrium
D) Myometrium
Q2) When an infant girl is born, which of the following cells are present in the ovaries?
A) Primitive germ cells
B) Oogonia
C) Primary oocytes
D) Secondary oocytes
Q3) What is the function of the fimbriae?
A) Help propel the oocyte into the fallopian tube
B) Help propel sperm through the uterus
C) Attach the fertilized egg to the wall of the uterus
D) Secrete mucus
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18
Chapter 17: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term describes a device that makes an exposure incident involving a contaminated sharp less likely to occur?
A) Postexposure prophylaxis
B) Decontamination
C) Personal protective equipment
D) Safer medical device
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an example of nonintact skin?
A) Skin with dermatitis
B) Burned skin
C) Bruised skin
D) Chapped skin
Q3) Which of the following employees would be least likely to have occupational exposure?
A) Medical laboratory technician
B) Dental hygienist
C) Electrician
D) Law enforcement officer
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Chapter 18: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included on the label of a hazardous chemical?
A) Name of the chemical
B) Physical hazards of the chemical
C) Health hazards of the chemical
D) Storing and handling of the chemical
E) All of the above
Q2) The purpose of wrapping articles before they are sterilized in the autoclave is to
A) Permit better steam penetration during autoclaving
B) Protect the articles from recontamination after autoclaving
C) Ensure complete destruction of all pathogens
D) Protect the articles from damage
E) All of the above
Q3) The purpose of the Hazard Communications Standard (HCS) is to ensure that employees
A) Do not come in contact with hazardous chemicals
B) Are protected from bloodborne pathogens in the workplace
C) Practice quality control when performing laboratory tests
D) Are informed of the hazards associated with chemicals in the workplace
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals has the fastest pulse rate?
A) Infant
B) School-age child
C) Adolescent
D) Adult
Q2) If a rectal temperature of 99 °F was taken orally, it would register as
A) 97 °F
B) 98 °F
C) 99 °F
D) 100 °F
Q3) Which of the following does NOT affect the SpO<sub>2</sub> reading?
A) Dark fingernail polish
B) Darkly pigmented skin
C) Bruises
D) Artificial fingernails
Q4) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q5) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q6) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q7) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q8) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 20: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of a speculum is to
A) Measure intraocular pressure
B) Grasp tissue and prevent it from slipping
C) Clamp off blood vessels and establish hemostasis
D) Open a body orifice or cavity for viewing
Q2) Anatomy and Physiology
Q3) A branch of medicine
A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Discuss the role of cultural, social, and ethnic diversity in ethical performance of medical assisting practice
Q6) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
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Chapter 21: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q2) Medical Terminology
Q3) Without
A)a-
B)audi/o
C)hyper-
D)-ic
E)-ism
F)-meter
G)-opia
H)ot/o
I)-scope
J)tympan/o
K)stigma/a
Q4) During ear irrigation, which of the following techniques is performed to prevent injury to the tympanic membrane?
A) Cleansing the outer ear
B) Straightening the external ear canal
C) Injecting the irrigating solution toward the roof of the ear canal
D) Placing a cotton wick loosely in the ear canal
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Chapter 22: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) When explaining the use of a heating pad, the medical assistant should instruct a patient to
A) Lie on the pad
B) Use pins to secure the pad in place
C) Adjust the pad to a higher setting if it no longer feels warm
D) Place a protective covering over the pad
E) All of the above
Q2) What is the definition of the term ambulation?
A) Being confined to bed
B) The inability to walk
C) The ability to walk
D) Poor muscular coordination and balance
Q3) A cane should be held
A) On the strong side of the body
B) With the cane handle 2 inches above the greater trochanter
C
On the weak side of the body
C) With the elbow flexed at a 45-degree angle
Q4) Medical Terminology
Q5) Identify principles of body mechanics and ergonomics
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Chapter 23: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amniocentesis can be used to
A) Aid in the diagnosis of congenital abnormalities
B) Assess fetal lung maturity
C) Determine the gender of the fetus
D) Detect fetal distress
E) All of the above
Q2) The purpose of the interval prenatal history is to
A) Record weight, blood pressure, and urine testing results
B) Determine the presence of any concerns or problems
C) Determine the occurrence of any additional signs of pregnancy
D) Record the fetal heart tones and fundal height
E) All of the above
Q3) What is the purpose of the Pap test?
A) Early detection of cervical cancer
B) Diagnosis of gonorrhea
C) Evaluation of the cause of infertility
D) Evaluation of postmenopausal bleeding
E) All of the above
Q4) Describe structural organization of the human body
Q5) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
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Chapter 24: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Measuring pediatric blood pressure helps to identify children at risk for developing
A) Hypertension
B) Type 2 diabetes
C) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
D) Heart disease
E) All of the above
Q2) What immunizations are included in an MMR injection?
A) Meningitis, mumps, rubella
B) Measles, mumps, rubella
C) Measles, mumps, chickenpox
D) Measles, hepatitis, rubella
Q3) How is length measured?
A) The child lies in a supine position.
B) The child stands with his or her back to the measuring device.
C) The child sits in a chair with both feet flat on the floor.
D) The child lies in a prone position.
Q4) Medical Law and Ethics
Q5) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Q6) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
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Chapter 25: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following wounds, would the physician be most likely to order a tetanus booster?
A) Cut
B) Puncture
C) Laceration
D) Abrasion
Q2) Laser mole surgery is used to remove
A) Raised moles
B) Small or flat moles
C) Dysplastic nevi
D) Melanoma
Q3) What occurs during the maturation phase of the healing process?
A) A scab forms.
B) Scar tissue forms.
C) New skin is generated.
D) Bleeding is controlled.
Q4) Psychology of Human Relations
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q7) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
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Chapter 26: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the abbreviation for immediately?
A) ASA
B) STAT
C) NPO
D) Prn
Q2) Identify measurement systems
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of active pulmonary tuberculosis?
A) Fever
B) Chronic cough
C) Abdominal pain
D) Hemoptysis
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a reason for charting the location of the injection?
A) To avoid injecting the medication into a major nerve or blood vessel
B) To avoid overuse of a site if the patient requires more than one injection
C) To locate the site if test results need to be read at a later date
D) To provide a reference point if a problem results at the injection site
Q5) Medical Terminology
Q6) Define basic units of measurement in metric, apothecary, and household systems
Q7) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
28
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Chapter 27: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of quick-relief asthma medication?
A) It quickly opens up the airways.
B) It is usually taken every day.
C) It is used to prevent asthma symptoms.
D) It helps to relieve bronchial inflammation.
E) All of the above.
Q2) The aVR, aVL, and aVF are known as the
A) Standard leads
B) Chest leads
C) Augmented leads
D) Bipolar leads
Q3) Describe the normal function of each body system
Q4) Which of the following is NOT a guideline for oxygen usage?
A) Store in a clean, dry, well-ventilated room.
B) Store oxygen cylinders in an upright position.
C) Never smoke while using oxygen.
D) Use at least 50 feet of tubing with the oxygen delivery system.
Q5) Diagram medical terms, labeling the word parts
Q6) Identify body systems
Q7) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
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Chapter 28: Specialty Examinations and Procedures: Colon
Procedures, Male Reproductive Health, and Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare body structure and function of the human body across the life span
Q2) Organize technical information and summaries
Q3) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q4) Which of the following uses ultrasound to measure the direction and speed of blood as it flows through blood vessels?
A) DEXA scan
B) Doppler ultrasound
C) PET scan
D) Electrocardiography
Q5) Which of the following X-ray studies does NOT require the use of a contrast medium?
A) Bronchogram
B) Chest radiograph
C) IVP
D) Angiocardiogram
Page 30
Q6) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q7) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q9) Medical Terminology
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Chapter 29: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q2) What is the purpose of a laboratory report?
A) To indicate the patient diagnosis
B) To relay the results of laboratory tests to the physician
C) To order laboratory tests on a patient
D) To indicate the patient prognosis
Q3) Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?
A) Disposing of broken glassware in a puncture-resistant container
B) Talking in the laboratory
C) Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop
D) Recapping reagent bottles immediately after use
Q4) Which of the following is NOT found in a laboratory directory?
A) Names and CPT codes of the tests performed by the laboratory
B) Patient preparation required for laboratory tests
C) Amount and type of specimen required by the laboratory
D) Instructions for testing specimens
E) Handling and storage of laboratory specimens
Q5) Identify safety techniques that can be used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment
Q6) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Page 32
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Chapter 30: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify disease processes that are indications for CLIA-waived tests
Q2) What is the name of the hormone present only in the urine and blood of a pregnant woman?
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) HCGH
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin
E) Testosterone
Q3) Define both medical terms and abbreviations related to all body systems
Q4) Which of the following is usually found in the urine sediment of a patient with candidiasis?
A) Parasites
B) Yeast
C) Bacteria
D) Casts
Q5) Which of the following does NOT result in oliguria?
A) Profuse perspiration
B) Vomiting
C) Diarrhea
D) Edema
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Chapter 31: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bone
A)ante-
B)anti-
C)chondr/o
D)hemat/o
E)-itis
F)lysis
G)myel/o
H)-oma
I)oste/o
J)-otomy
K)-ous
L)phleb/o
M)stasis
Q2) Which of the following indicates the correct order of draw for the vacuum tube method of venipuncture?
A) Red, green, lavender, gray
B) Red, lavender, gray, green
C) Lavender, red, gray, green
D) Red, gray, lavender, green
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Chapter 32: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Abnormal condition
A) an-
B) -emia
C) cyt/o
D) hemat/o
E) anti-
F) leuk/o
G) -coagulant
H) -ology
I) poly-
J) -osis
K) -penia
Q2) Mr. Stoney has a white blood cell count of 8,000. This is considered
A) Within normal range
B) Above normal range
C) Below normal range
D) An inaccurate test result
Q3) Identify common pathology related to each body system
Q4) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
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Chapter 33: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient preparation instructions for a triglyceride test include which of the following?
A) Follow a normal diet for 7 days before the test.
B) Do not consume alcohol for 24 hours before the test.
C) Do not consume lipid-lowering medications before the test.
D) Do not eat or drink (except for water) for 12 hours before the test.
E) All of the above
Q2) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q3) Which of the following tests is used to detect a blood incompatibility problem with a mother and her unborn child?
A) Rh antigen titer
B) C-reactive protein
C) Rh antibody titer
D) Rubella titer
Q4) The hemoglobin A<sub>1c</sub> test measures the
A) Average amount of glucose in the blood over a three-month period
B) Amount of hemoglobin in the blood
C) Fasting blood glucose level
D) Amount of glycogen in the body over a 30-day period
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Chapter 34: Medical Microbiology
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Q1) Conditions caused by Staphylococcus aureus include
A) Boils
B) Wound infections
C) Food poisoning
D) Abscesses
E) All of the above
Q2) Which of the following parts of a microscope is used for precise focusing?
A) Iris diaphragm
B) Coarse adjustment
C) Substage condenser
D) Fine adjustment
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a natural defense mechanism of the body?
A) Phagocytosis by white blood cells
B) The skin
C) Antibiotics
D) Antibodies
Q4) Discuss quality control issues related to handling microbiological specimens
Q5) Discuss implications for disease and disability when homeostasis is not maintained
Q6) Describe implications for treatment related to pathology
Page 37
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Chapter 35: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shock is caused by a reaction of the body to a substance to which an individual is highly allergic?
A) Psychogenic
B) Status asthmaticus
C) Anaphylactic
D) Allergenic
Q2) Analyze pathology as it relates to the interaction of body systems
Q3) Medical Office Clinical Procedures
Q4) What is the purpose of first aid?
A) To save a life
B) To reduce pain
C) To prevent further injury
D) To reduce the incidence of permanent disability
E) All of the above
Q5) Which of the following is an example of an ingested poison?
A) Carbon monoxide
B) Fertilizers
C) Insect stings
D) Aspirin overdose
E) All of the above
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Chapter 36: The Medical Record
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings
Q2) Identify types of records common to the health care setting
Q3) A copy of the patient's emergency department report is sent to the
A) Patient's insurance company
B) Patient
C) Patient's family physician
D) Laboratory
Q4) Which of the following is an example of a familial disease?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Pneumonia
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Emphysema
Q5) What is a symptom?
A) Conclusions drawn from an interpretation of data
B) Any change in the body or its functioning that indicates disease
C) The probable outcome of a disease
D) The scientific method of identifying a patient's condition
Q6) Organize technical information and summaries
Q7) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
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Chapter 37: Patient Reception
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the importance of routine maintenance of office equipment
Q2) What does the medical assistant do in the morning to prepare the medical office laboratory?
A) Make sure that food has not been stored in the laboratory refrigerator.
B) Remove all specimens from the incubator if one is used.
C) Run the controls to make sure that equipment and supplies are working properly.
D) Clean and disinfect all surfaces and equipment in the laboratory.
Q3) What is it called when the office accepts payments directly from the insurance company?
A) Assignment of benefits
B) Direct pay
C) Insurance benefits
D) Capitation
Q4) Explore the issue of confidentiality as it applies to the medical assistant
Q5) When the medical assistant opens the office, what should he or she do first?
A) Unlock file cabinets, medical record files, and medicine cabinets.
B) Review the electronic task system or tickler file.
C) Sterilize the instruments.
D) File the patient charts from the previous day.
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Chapter 38: Medical Office Computerization
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the printing speed range of a laser printer?
A) 2-5 ppm
B) 5-10 ppm
C) 12-35 ppm
D) 40-60 ppm
Q2) When five computers in the medical office are linked together, it is known as a
A) Mini-network
B) LAN (local area network)
C) WAN (wide area network)
D) Server
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of an electronic medical record (EMR)?
A) It does not have to be filed.
B) Documents can be easily located in an EMR.
C) More than one person can view the record at the same time.
D) Older records must be scanned into the computer.
Q4) Encryption is a process by which electronic information is changed into an unreadable form before electronic transmission.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Telephone Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) For which of the following symptoms can the medical assistant offer advice over the telephone?
A) Nausea of two days' duration
B) Diarrhea that appears to be getting more frequent
C) Pain in the arms with shortness of breath
D) All of the above
E) None of the above
Q2) Call park allows storage of frequently called telephone numbers in the telephone system's memory.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following items should be readily available when taking telephone messages?
A) Desk clock, computer clock, or wristwatch
B) Looseleaf notebook
C) Paper clips
D) Telephone book or Rolodex containing telephone numbers
Q4) Organize technical information and summaries
Q5) Recognize office policies and protocols for handling appointments
Q6) Recognize communication barriers
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Chapter 40: Scheduling Appointments
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Q1) Which of the following applies to any manual appointment book?
A) The pages display a single day.
B) There is a separate book for each physician.
C) It is a legal document that must be kept on file.
D) It may be written in pencil to facilitate corrections.
Q2) Established patients are usually scheduled for 10-20 minutes for a sick visit.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Open hours
A) Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time
B) An appointment scheduling method in which each patient is given a specific appointment time
C) Scheduling similar types of patients for examinations on the same day or part of the day
D) An appointment system in which some patients have individual appointment times and some have the same appointment time as other patients
E) A method of scheduling appointments in which several patients are given the same appointment time and seen in the order they arrive
F) Patients may come to the office at any time during a range of hours
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Page 43
Chapter 41: Medical Records Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of medical records may be reviewed to record statistical information?
A) Paper medical records
B) Electronic medical records
C) Both paper medical records and electronic medical records
D) Neither paper medical records nor electronic medical records
Q2) Discuss principles of using Electronic Medical Record (EMR)
Q3) A sorter is a device that facilitates placing documents in alphabetic or numeric order.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is always necessary if a paper medical record system is used?
A) A means to back up data every day
B) A means to lock the medical record storage cabinets or storage room
C) A means to maintain high humidity in the medical record storage area
D) Color-coded labels or file folders to facilitate identification of records
Q5) Discuss pros and cons of various filing methods
Q6) Describe the implications of HIPAA for the medical assistant in various medical settings
Q7) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
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Chapter 42: Written Communications
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Sample Questions
Q1) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q2) What is the letter style in which the first line of each new paragraph is indented five spaces?
A) Block
B) Semiblock
C) Simplified
D) Modified block
Q3) What is the process used by a fax (facsimile) machine to send documents from one location to another ?
A) The fax machine takes a photograph of the document which is transmitted electronically.
B) The fax machine scans the document like a computer scanner so that it can be transmitted.
C) The fax machine encodes the images on the document into signals to be sent over the telephone.
D) The fax machine encodes the images on the document into electronic signals to be sent over the Internet.
Q4) Discuss applications of electronic technology in effective communication
Q5) Recognize fundamental writing skills
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Chapter 43: Mail
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the medical office wants to be sure that a letter is delivered only to the intended recipient, how should it be sent?
A) Certified Mail
B) Special Handling
C) Restricted Delivery
D) Signature Confirmation
Q2) Medical offices usually add barcodes to letters and presort mail in order to receive lower postage rates.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does the medical office obtain a postage meter?
A) Purchase the meter from the local post office.
B) Purchase the meter from an approved vendor.
C) Rent or lease the meter from an approved vendor.
D) Rent or lease the meter from the local post office.
Q4) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Q5) Identify safety techniques that can be used to prevent accidents and maintain a safe work environment
Q6) Recognize fundamental writing skills
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Chapter 44: Managing Practice Finances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe banking procedures
Q2) What does it mean to successfully reconcile a bank statement?
A) The bank records and medical office records are in agreement.
B) The bank has credited all the deposits the office has made.
C) All of the checks that were written by the office have "cleared."
D) There are adequate funds in the office checking account to cover anticipated expenses.
Q3) What is another name for the itemized charge slip commonly used in the medical office?
A) Receipt
B) Superbill
C) Register slip
D) CMS-1500 form
Q4) Which type of codes appear on most office itemized charge slips?
A) Diagnosis codes only
B) Procedure codes only
C) Both diagnosis and procedure codes
D) Codes do not usually appear on the itemized charge slip
Q5) Discuss types of adjustments that may be made to a patient's account
Q6) Medical Office Business Procedures/Management
Page 47
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Chapter 45: Medical Coding
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Sample Questions
Q1) HCPCS Level I codes include the current CPT codes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the CPT manual, a code that provides only text to replace the words after a semicolon in the code above it is called an indented code.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the format of most CPT codes?
A) Two-digit code
B) Five-digit code
C) Four-digit code
D) Three-digit code
Q4) When coding the diagnosis "tachycardia, R/O angina pectoris," the medical assistant should look up the code in the index under "angina."
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how to use the most current HCPCS coding
Q6) Define upcoding and why it should be avoided
Q7) Describe how to use the most current procedural coding system
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Chapter 46: Medical Insurance
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the term for the amount of money that must be paid each year for services before the insurance company begins to pick up the payments?
A) Benefit
B) Premium
C) Deductible
D) Assignment
Q2) Tom's insurance plan is a traditional indemnity insurance plan. If Tom wants to make an appointment with a dermatologist to treat his acne, what must he do?
A) Simply make the appointment.
B) Obtain a referral from his primary care physician.
C) Visit the plan website and fill out a request for referral form.
D) Call the insurance company and obtain a preauthorization number.
Q3) Which method is most commonly used to submit insurance forms?
A) Typed paper forms
B) Handwritten paper forms
C) Electronically submitted forms
D) Computer-generated paper forms
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Chapter 47: Billing and Collections
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Q1) Cathy is a 16-year-old who goes to the doctor for an HIV test. Which is the best method for the office to collect the amount due?
A) Send a bill to Cathy's home address.
B) Bill the parent's insurance company.
C) Ask Cathy to pay at the time of the visit.
D) Try to collect the money from Cathy's parents.
Q2) When a collection agency sends a check to the medical office, what is the first step to post the check to the patient account?
A) Post a payment labeled Collection Agency Payment in the amount of the check received.
B) Post a payment labeled Collection Agency Payment in the amount that the patient owes.
C) Post a credit adjustment labeled Reverse Collection in the amount that the patient owes.
D) Post a credit adjustment labeled Reverse Collection in the amount of the check received.
Q3) A check returned for not sufficient funds (NSF) is an example of an overdraft.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 48: The Medical Assistant As Office Manager
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Q1) What type of waste container should needles and glass slides be discarded in?
A) Ordinary trash container.
B) Rigid biohazard waste container.
C) Covered biohazard waster container with plastic liner.
D) It depends on whether the item is contaminated with blood or potentially infectious material.
Q2) Federal tax
A) Employees withholding allowance certificate
B) Wage and Tax Statement provided annually before January 31
C) Money withheld from paycheck and paid to the federal government
D) Employment Eligibility Form
E) Money withheld from paycheck and paid to the state
F) 1.45% of employee wages matched by an additional 1.45% paid by the employer
G) Federal unemployment tax paid by the employer
H) Social Security tax to fund the U.S. retirement program
I) Amount of pay before deductions
J) Wages based on number of hours worked times hourly rate
K) Wages paid as fixed amount of money that does not depend on the number of hours worked
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Chapter 49: Emergency Protective Practices for the Medical Office
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Q1) Which of the following agencies coordinates a response to any disaster that overwhelms the resources of state and local authorities?
A) FEMA
B) American Red Cross
C) National Guard
D) Alcoholics Anonymous
Q2) What is the term for the psychiatric condition that may develop after a catastrophic life disturbance?
A) Borderline personality disorder
B) Bipolar disorder
C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
D) Autism
Q3) Disasters that tend to cause the most serious psychological effects include those that
A) Occur without warning
B) Pose a serious threat to personal safety
C) Have an uncertain duration
D) Result from malicious intent
E) All of the above
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Chapter 50: Obtaining Employment
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Q1) A medical assistant with several years of experience might want to highlight skills that will transfer to a different type of work. What style of résumé meets this goal?
A) Targeted
B) Functional
C) Experiential
D) Chronological
Q2) If possible, it is best to limit a résumé to a single page.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the best example of networking?
A) Meeting your best friend for coffee every week
B) Describing your job search to a friend of the family
C) Dropping by to visit former instructors in your medical assisting program
D) Asking your boyfriend to proofread your résumé for grammar and spelling
Q4) The statement, "prepared patients for examination" would be an example of the participle form of the verb.
A)True
B)False
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