Allied Health Physiology
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Allied Health Physiology provides an in-depth exploration of human physiological systems relevant to allied health professions. The course examines the function and regulation of major organ systems including cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous, muscular, and endocrine systems with an emphasis on understanding how these systems interact to maintain homeostasis. Students will develop a foundational knowledge base applicable to the diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation processes in various allied health fields. Course content integrates theoretical principles with clinical correlations, preparing students to apply physiological concepts in practical health care settings.
Recommended Textbook
Human Physiology From Cells to Systems 8th Edition by Lauralee Sherwood
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Physiology and Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Evaporation of sweat cooling the body is an example of
A)negative feedback
B)positive feedback
C)a feedforward mechanism
D)an intrinsic (local) control mechanism
E)autoregulation
Answer: A
Q2) A non-mechanistic explanation of why a person sweats is to cool off.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Tissues are composed of two or more types of cells organized to perform a particular function or functions.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Skeletal muscles and sweat glands
Answer: D
Q5) Primary component of the heart
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cell Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ refers to programmed cell death, whereas _______ refers to uncontrolled cell death.
Answer: Apoptosis, necrosis
Q2) Essential for creating and maintaining an asymmetrical cell shape
Answer: A
Q3) Guide egg to oviduct
Answer: B
Q4) Consists of organelles and cytosol
Answer: C
Q5) Separates chromosomes during mitosis
Answer: B
Q6) Disassembles and reassembles within pseudopods
Answer: D
Q7) The complexes within electron transport chains
A)are "circuits" for small amounts of electricity to pass through
B)contain NADH that transports electrons
C)transport H+ into the mitochondrial matrix
D)are responsible for transporting electrons and hydrogen ions
E)perform all of the above functions
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: The Plasma Membrane and Membrane
Potential
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many cells, the hormone called ____________________ promotes the insertion of glucose carriers into the plasma membranes.
Answer: insulin
Q2) Solution 1 has two solutes (A and B) and an osmotic pressure of 250 mOsm.Solution 2 has only one solute (C) and an osmotic pressure of 300 mOsm.If a membrane between these solutions is permeable to only water and B, then
A)Solution 1 will gain water from solution 2.
B)Solution 2 will gain water from solution 1.
C)Some of solute C will move into solution 1.
D)Solution 1 has a higher osmotic pressure.
E)Solution 1 would be hypertonic to a human cell. Answer: B
Q3) Phosphorylation of a carrier can alter the affinity of its binding sites, accompanied by a change in its conformation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Concentration gradient for K at resting potential Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Principles of Neural and Hormonal Communication
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Sample Questions
Q1) ____________________ are local chemical messengers that exert an effect only on neighboring cells in the immediate environment.
Q2) Cholera toxin is more disruptive to the action of hydrophilic hormones than to the action of lipophilic hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Concentration gradient for K at the peak of an action potential
Q4) A change in a membrane potential from -70 mV to -60mV is an example of A)depolarization
B)hyperpolarization
C)polarization
D)repolarization
E)zero potential
Q5) The myelin covering the axon promotes the leakage of ions from an axon, but it promotes conservation of ATP in the neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q6) At resting potential
Q7) Ion movement that would cause an EPSP
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Chapter 5: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) By ____________________ competition, somatotopic mapping can be altered.
Q2) The ____________________ lobes of the ____________________ hemisphere excel in performance of logical, analytical, sequential, and verbal tasks, whereas the same lobes of the ____________________ hemisphere excel in nonlanguage skills such as spatial perception and artistic and musical endeavors.
Q3) The central sulcus separates the ____________________ and ____________________ lobes.
Q4) The right and left cerebral hemispheres perform identical functions except for controlling opposite sides of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Afferent neurons carry impulses through columns of the spinal cord, while efferent neurons carry impulses from the columns to effectors.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Contains cell bodies of the efferent motor neurons supplying skeletal muscles
Q7) Efferent neurons are the most abundant type of neuron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Peripheral Nervous System: Afferent Division
Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Unlike the visual pathways, auditory signals from each ear are transmitted to both hemispheres.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Coding of sensory information may result from
A)the intensity of the stimuli
B)the location of the stimuli
C)they stimulus modality
D)all of the above
E)none of the above
Q3) The term adequate stimulus refers to the intensity of a stimulus developing above a threshold value.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The choroid
A)contains rods and cones
B)is a fluid within the eye
C)is also known as the blind spot
D)is the middle layer of the eye
E)refracts light rays
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Chapter 7: The Peripheral Nervous System: Efferent Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) Postganglionic fiber secretes norepinephrine
Q2) Lie entirely within the central nervous system
Q3) Causes explosive release of ACh.
Q4) Acetylcholinesterase
A)has enhanced activity from organophosphates
B)inactivates a neurotransmitter.
C)is a neurotransmitter
D)stimulates an EPSP
E)triggers the release of sodium from postsynaptic cells
Q5) Which statement is correct about terminal ganglia?
A)Those on parasympathetic preganglionic fibers lie in or near the effector organ.
B)They give rise to sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
C)They are the final common pathway for the autonomic nervous system.
D)They contain muscarinic receptors.
E)They lie in a chain located along either side of the spinal cord.
Q6) Predominates in relaxed situations
Q7) Autonomic activity can be influenced by conscious neural activity.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Muscle Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the steps in excitation-contraction below, which step occurs before the others?
A)Exposed actin sites bind with myosin cross bridges.
B)Sodium channels open in the fiber's membrane.
C)Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D)Troponin binds calcium.
E)Attachment of ATP allows for cross bridge detachment.
Q2) The H zone
A)is the area within the middle of the A band where the thin filaments do not reach B)shortens or disappears during contraction
C)contains only thick filaments
D)does not contain cross bridges
E)is all of the above
Q3) Which region(s) marked by arrows or brackets do not change length during normal contraction and relaxation of the muscle fiber? ____
Q4) ____________________ and ____________________ are referred to as contractile proteins, whereas ____________________ and ____________________ are referred to as regulatory proteins.
Q5) Found in the sarcomere
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Freely floating clot
Q2) An increase in afterload ____________________ the length of time available for ventricular ejection.
Q3) If the cardiac output is 4,800 ml/min and the heart rate is 60 beats per minute, the stroke volume averages ____ ml.
A)60
B)70
C)80
D)120
E)140
Q4) Oxygenated blood flows through semilunar valves, whereas deoxygenated blood flows through AV valves.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle
Q6) The arrangement of a particular pair of electrodes used to record electrical activity of the heart a called a(n) _________.
Q7) Although not seen on an ECG, the period of isovolumetric relaxation would occur nearest which deflection on the ECG?
Page 11
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Chapter 10: The Blood Vessels and Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Changes in the radius of this vessel type regulate the distribution of the cardiac output to various areas of the body
Q2) The average driving force that gets blood into the tissues throughout the cardiac cycle is called the _________________ pressure (not "blood").
Q3) Which of the following conditions might be the cause of edema?
A)Extensive burns
B)Congestive heart failure
C)Blocked lymphatics
D)Increased venous pressure
E)All of the above
Q4) Number ____ identifies the linear velocity of flow in mm/sec, while number ____ identifies the blood flow rate in liters/min.
a.1, 2
b.2, 1
c.3, 1
d.4, 1
e.2, 4
Q5) Increased venous radii ____ the blood flow through veins.
Q6) Serve as low-resistance passageways from the tissues to the heart
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The least abundant type of polymorphonuclear components in the blood is
A)macrophages
B)eosinophils
C)basophils
D)lymphocytes
E)thrombocytes
Q2) Albumin belongs to the group of ____ in the blood plasma.
A)hormones
B)electrolytes
C)proteins
D)gases (O , CO , N2)
E)red blood cells
Q3) Plasma albumins primarily
A)contribute to the clotting process
B)function in the body's defense
C)maintain the blood's osmotic pressure
D)transport certain proteins in the blood
E)transport iron in the blood
Q4) ____________________ is converted to ____________________ and then acts as an enzyme to activate fibrinogen.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Body Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antihistamines are effective in combating the allergic symptoms induced by a slow-reactive substance of anaphylaxis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Secrete B-cell growth factor
Q3) ____________________ are lymphocyte-like cells that nonspecifically destroy virus-infected cells and tumor cells.
Q4) Keratinocytes
A)form the outer protective layer of the skin
B)secrete interleukin 1
C)present antigens to helper T cells
D)have characteristics a and b
E)have characteristics a and c
Q5) Resistance to antigen exposure is immediate upon injection of antibodies
Q6) The immune system functions entirely independently of the body's two major control systems: the nervous and endocrine systems.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Mediator in asthma and hives
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Chapter 13: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cyanide poisoning
Q2) The partial pressure of _______ in the arteries is normally the most important input in regulating the magnitude of ventilation under resting conditions.
Q3) At a constant temperature, the pressure that a gas exerts depends on the volume that it occupies.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Deep breaths usually result in the greatest alveolar ventilation rates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Vital capacity + residual volume
Q6) ____________________ refers to a ventilation rate that exceeds the metabolic needs of the body.
Q7) The apneustic center
A)is located in the medulla
B)stimulates the inspiratory neurons
C)inhibits inspiratory activity
D)stimulates the pneumotaxic area
E)performs c and d
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Chapter 14: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each tuft of glomerular capillaries is held together by ____________________ cells.
Q2) Tubular secretion of foreign substances, such as drugs, generally occurs in the
A)Bowman's capsule
B)loop of Henle
C)proximal tubule
D)collecting duct
E)glomerulus
Q3) Changes in the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid are detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Is secreted from the granular cells of the renal juxtaglomerular apparatus
Q5) The proximal tubule
A)reabsorbs about 65 percent of the filtered water
B)is not the site of action of renin
C)is where glucose is reabsorbed
D)receives filtrate from Bowman's capsule
E)has all of the above characteristics
Q6) Nitrogen waste product from RNA metabolism
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Fluid and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Water is the most abundant component of the body, making up over 95 percent of the body weight.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Diabetes insipidus often leads to hypertonicity of the body fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Often patients experiencing sympathetically induced hyperventilation are told to breathe into a paper bag.Why?
Q4) Fluid-shifts are controlled by the kidneys and help to maintain optimum blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The amount of Na excreted in the urine equals the amount of Na ____ minus the amount of Na ____.
A)filtered; reabsorbed
B)ingested; filtered
C)ingested; metabolically consumed
D)ingested; placed in storage
E)secreted; reabsorbed
17
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Chapter 16: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glucose and galactose, along with sodium ions, enter the small intestine's epithelial cells through a symporter, abbreviated with the letters _________.
Q2) Bile acts on
A)distention of the stomach
B)gastrin
C)carbohydrate in the stomach
D)fat in the duodenum
E)fat in the stomach
Q3) Secretions from digestive organs include
A)enzymes
B)bile
C)mucus
D)hormones
E)all of the above
Q4) The three structural modifications of the small intestine mucosa that greatly increase the surface area available for absorption are ________________, ________________, and _______________.
Q5) Stimulates secretion of secretin
Q6) Cholecystokinin
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Chapter 17: Energy Balance and Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stimulation of gastric ____________________ receptors as food accumulates in the stomach can suppress the intake of food.
Q2) The factor that increases the metabolic rate to the greatest extent is increased
A)skeletal muscle activity
B)mental effort
C)dietary fiber intake
D)epinephrine secretion
E)brown fat deposition
Q3) Most people suffer convulsions when internal body temperature reaches ____ F.
A)96
B)98
C)100
D)102
E)106
Q4) The region of the brain primarily responsible for controlling food intake is the ____________________.
Q5) The most important factor determining the extent of evaporation of sweat is the ____________________ of the air.
Q6) Freezing of tissues as a result of cold exposure
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Principles of Endocrinology: the Central
Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ___________ secretes insulin and glucagon.
A)posterior pituitary
B)liver
C)pancreas
D)stomach
E)adrenal medulla
Q2) Which of the following hormones is regulated by the anterior pituitary?
A)parathyroid hormone
B)cortisol
C)aldosterone
D)insulin
E)TRH
Q3) Which of the following hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary is non-tropic?
A)TSH
B)PRL
C)LH
D)ACTH
E)FSH
Q4) Stimulated by growth hormone
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Peripheral Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypothyroidism may occur due to
A)anterior pituitary failure
B)inadequate dietary supply of iodine
C)failure of the thyroid gland itself
D)both b and c
E)all of the above
Q2) Tri-iodothyronine does not
A)increase the overall metabolic rate
B)exert a calorigenic effect
C)bind to receptors on the surface of all body cells
D)enhance glycogenolysis and lipolysis
E)cause a proliferation of specific catecholamine target-cell receptors
Q3) _________________ and ______________ causes glycogenolysis and, thereby, help to counteract decreasing blood sugar levels.
Q4) PTH increases plasma Ca² and decreases plasma PO .
A)True
B)False
Q5) A catecholamine
Q6) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Q7) Increases blood glucose levels
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Chapter 20: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Colostrum
Q2) Human cells have 23 pairs of sex chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Erection
A)involves dilation of the arterioles supplying the sponge-like vascular spaces of the penis
B)results from cGMP production induced by nitric oxide
C)occurs when the seminiferous tubules of the penis become engorged with sperm
D)occurs in response to sympathetic nervous stimulation of the penis
E)has both a and b characteristics
Q4) Each gamete contains 23 chromosomes, including 22 autosomes and 1 sex chromosome.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ____________________ (labeled # ____) is the site where a blastocysts embeds.
Q6) Placenta
Q7) Portion of blastocyst responsible for accomplishing implantation
Q8) Secondary oocyte
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