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Allied Health Pharmacology Exam Preparation Guide - 1305 Verified Questions

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Allied Health Pharmacology Exam Preparation Guide

Course Introduction

Allied Health Pharmacology provides an introduction to the principles of pharmacology and the application of drug therapy as it relates to allied health professions. The course covers fundamental concepts such as drug classifications, mechanisms of action, routes of administration, pharmacokinetics, side effects, and drug interactions. Emphasis is placed on commonly encountered medications in clinical practice, safety considerations, dosage calculations, and the role of allied health professionals in the administration and monitoring of pharmacologic treatments. Through case studies and practical examples, students develop foundational knowledge essential for safe and effective medication management within their scope of practice.

Recommended Textbook

Understanding Pharmacology 2nd Edition by Workman

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32 Chapters

1305 Verified Questions

1305 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Drug Regulation, Actions, and Responses

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40 Verified Questions

40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient asks why she becomes sleepy after she takes a specific drug but that her neighbor who takes the same drug at the same dose does not experience sleepiness.What is your best response?

A) "Your neighbor may also be taking another drug to reduce the side effects of this drug."

B) "Your neighbor is probably addicted to this prescribed drug and you are not."

C) "Side effects are very dependent on the time of day when the drug is taken."

D) "People often experience side effects of the same drug differently."

Answer: D

Q2) In the United States,which group is responsible for enforcing established standards for drug manufacturing?

A) U.S.Pharmacopeia

B) National Institutes of Health

C) Food and Drug Administration

D) Association of Pharmaceutical Manufacturers

Answer: C

Q3) What is the weight in pounds for an individual who weighs 70 kg? _____lb

Answer: 154

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Safely Preparing and Giving Drugs

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45 Verified Questions

45 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) You are teaching a patient about a prescribed sublingual drug.What will you be sure to tell the patient? (select all that apply)

A) "Keep the drug sterile to avoid infection."

B) "Do not drink anything until the drug is completely dissolved."

C) "Place this drug between your jaw and your molar teeth."

D) "Notify your prescriber if you experience side effects."

E) "Place the drug beside or below the tongue."

F) "Don't swallow this drug."

Answer: B,D,E,F

Q2) When you bring in the next dose of a drug that a patient first received 6 hours ago,the patient reports a "pounding" heart rate ever since taking the last dose.What is your best first action?

A) Document the report as the only action.

B) Check the patient's vital signs for changes.

C) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.

D) Reassure the patient that this is an expected response to the drug.

Answer: B

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Page 4

Chapter 3: Mathematics Review and Introduction to Dosage Calculation

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40 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which decimal represents the smallest part of a whole?

A) 0.2

B) 0.15

C) 0.085

D) 0.85

Answer: C

Q2) A pediatric patient is prescribed 0.004 mg of digoxin (Lanoxin)orally as a one-time dose now.The drug on hand is digoxin 0.05 mg/mL.How many drops is the correct dose? _____ gtt

Answer: 1

Want 11ea681a_4365_b9fc_b611_a1ed8faf9af8_TB1177_11 ,Have 11ea681a_4365_b9fd_b611_5b506adc9027_TB1177_11 ; 11ea681a_4365_b9fe_b611_adb100673a5c_TB1177_11 = 0.08 * 1 mL = 0.08 mL,at 15 gtt/mL = 0.08 * 15 = 1.2 gtt,rounded down to 1 gtt.

Q3) A patient is prescribed aspirin 650 mg orally.The aspirin form on hand is 325 mg/tablet.How many tablets is the correct dose? _____ tablet(s)

Answer: 2

Want 650 mg/Have 325 mg; 11ea681a_4365_1dac_b611_6da88a19f984_TB1177_11 = 2.

Page 5

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Chapter 4: Medical Systems of Weights and Measures

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29 Verified Questions

29 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Using dimensional analysis,calculate the correct dosage of theophylline 2 mg/kg to give orally to a child who weighs 51 lb.The drug is available as an elixir of 80 mg in 15 mL.Give the answer in mL.

Q2) What is the boiling point of water in Fahrenheit measurement?

A) 0 degrees

B) 30 degrees

C) 100 degrees

D) 212 degrees

Q3) A patient is prescribed 2500 units of heparin.How many milliliters should you draw up from a vial of heparin with a strength of 10,000 units/mL to make the correct dose? _____ mL

Q4) A patient is prescribed potassium 15 mEq in an oral solution.How many ounces is the correct dose to be administered to the patient from a solution of potassium with a strength of 20 mEq in 8 ounces?

_____ ounces

Q5) A patient who weighs 168 lb is prescribed 15 mg of theophylline per kilogram of body weight intravenously as a loading dose.The drug is available at 250 mg/10 mL.How many milliliters should you prepare for this patient?

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Chapter 5: Dosage Calculation of Intravenous Solutions and Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) What will the drip rate of an intravenous infusion with a drop factor of 20 need to be in order to deliver 1000 mL in 8 hours?

A) 13 gtt/min

B) 31 gtt/min

C) 42 gtt/min

D) 60 gtt/min

Q2) What is the most important advantage for intravenous (IV)infusion of drugs?

A) Anyone can administer IV drugs.

B) The drug reaches the bloodstream immediately.

C) Drugs given intravenously cost less than drugs given orally.

D) The patient is not required to be alert to swallow the drug.

Q3) Which term describes how much fluid is to be infused intravenously?

A) Rate

B) Infusion

C) Volume

D) Duration

Q4) What is the hourly flow rate for 250 mL of normal saline to be administered over 2 hours?

_____ mL/h

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Chapter 6: Anti-Inflammatory Drugs

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43 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) For which drug should you ask a patient about an allergy to "sulfa" drugs before administering it?

A) Aspirin (Bufferin)

B) Ketorolac (Toradol)

C) Celecoxib (Celebrex)

D) Oxaprozin (Daypro)

Q2) A patient who has been prescribed diphenhydramine (Benadryl)reports a dry mouth and feeling sleepy.What is your best action?

A) Document the finding and notify the prescriber.

B) Remind the patient that naps provide needed rest.

C) Suggest sucking on hard candy to relieve dry mouth.

D) Reassure the patient that these are expected side effects.

Q3) For which health problem will you specifically monitor in the older patient prescribed to take a corticosteroid for the next month?

A) Sudden hair loss

B) Weight loss

C) High blood glucose level

D) Change in sleep patterns

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Chapter 7: Drugs for Pain Control

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient who received a first dose of an opioid drug is not arousable and has an oxygen saturation of 88% (five percentage points lower than his or her normal saturation)even when fully awake.What is your best next action?

A) Wait 2 minutes and recheck respiratory rate and oxygen saturation.

B) Shake the patient firmly and keep trying to arouse him or her.

C) Notify respiratory therapy to draw an arterial blood gas.

D) Call for help and apply supplemental oxygen.

Q2) Which statement by a patient indicates the need for more teaching about pain and pain control?

A) "If my pain interferes with my usual activities,I will take medication for it."

B) "There is no reason for me to take drugs for pain;after all,you can't cure old age."

C) "I don't mind taking pain drugs for my sprained ankle because I know it won't hurt this way forever."

D) "I will take enough pain medication to make me comfortable without making me too sleepy."

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9

Chapter 8: Anti-Infectives: Antibacterial Drugs

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient is to receive trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Septra)intravenously.The drug is mixed in 250 mL of D<sub>5</sub>W and is to be administered over 90 minutes.With a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL,how many drops per minute is the correct infusion rate?

A) 10

B) 20

C) 30

D) 40

Q2) A patient who has been on antibiotic therapy for 3 weeks has a cottage cheese-like coating on the teeth,gums,and roof of the mouth.What your best action?

A) Take a specimen and send it to the laboratory for culture.

B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.

C) Document this expected finding as the only response.

D) Assist the patient to perform frequent mouth care

Q3) Which two drug types have almost identical chemical structures?

A) Aminoglycosides and "sulfa drugs"

B) Macrolides and fluoroquinolones

C) Penicillins and cephalosporins

D) Tetracyclines and penicillins

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Chapter 9: Anti-Infectives: Antiviral Drugs

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55 Verified Questions

55 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which common side effects should you watch for when a patient is taking adefovir dipivoxil?

A) Numbness and tingling in extremities

B) Nausea,vomiting,and abdominal pain

C) Dizziness and light-headedness

D) Increased confusion

Q2) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)?

A) "After the drug is mixed,store it away from light."

B) "Use sterile technique to draw up and inject the drug."

C) "Do not take this drug if there is any possibility that you are pregnant."

D) "Mix the drug with tap water,then rinse the drug's original container and add that fluid to the drug mixture."

Q3) Which food,drink,or herbal supplement do you warn a patient who is prescribed nevirapine (Viramune)to avoid?

A) Caffeinated beverages

B) Grapefruit juice

C) St.John's wort

D) Dairy products

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Page 11

Chapter 10: Anti-Infectives: Antitubercular and Antifungal Drugs

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42 Verified Questions

42 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient taking ketoconazole (Nizoral)for the last 2 weeks has all of the following blood laboratory test values.Which value should you report to the prescriber immediately?

A) White blood cell count (WBC)10,500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>

B) Lactate dehydrogenase 880 IU/L

C) Potassium 3.6 mEq/L

D) Hematocrit 32%

Q2) Which teaching point should you stress when a patient is prescribed terbinafine (Lamisil)?

A) Avoid citrus fruits while taking this drug.

B) Do not drive until you know how the drug affects you.

C) Stay away from crowds or people who are ill.

D) Get lots of extra rest while you are taking this drug.

Q3) A patient who is prescribed ethambutol (EMB,Myambutol)reports trouble distinguishing colors.What is your best action?

A) Document the report as the only action.

B) Hold the dose and notify the prescriber immediately.

C) Caution the patient to wear sunglasses and a hat when outside.

D) Reassure the patient that this is a common side effect of the drug.

Page 12

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Chapter 11: Drugs That Affect the Immune System

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31 Verified Questions

31 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which statement regarding artificially acquired active immunity is true?

A) It requires "boosting" on a regular schedule.

B) It is present in only children and not in adults.

C) It can be used for vaccinations but not for immunizations.

D) It has the shortest duration of effectiveness of any type of immunity.

Q2) A patient whose foot was cut deeply by a rusty tin can last received a tetanus toxoid vaccination 8 years ago.He is prescribed to now receive a tetanus toxoid injection.What type of immunity does this vaccination help provide?

A) Boosting of artificially acquired active immunity

B) Initiation of artificially acquired active immunity

C) Boosting of naturally acquired active immunity

D) Initiation of naturally acquired active immunity

Q3) What would be the expected response in an Rh-positive infant who was accidentally injected with RhoGAM?

A) The infant would rapidly develop antibodies to Rh-positive red blood cells.

B) The infant would rapidly develop antibodies to Rh-negative red blood cells.

C) Some of the infant's Rh-positive red blood cells would be destroyed.

D) The infant's blood type would change from Rh-positive to Rh-negative.

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Chapter 12: Anticancer Drugs

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33 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with breast cancer asks why her hair is falling out while receiving chemotherapy when the cancer is in her breast.What is your best response?

A) "Breast cells and hair cells are similar.Any drug that affects one can be expected to affect the other."

B) "The chemotherapy is interfering with your nutritional status.Eating more protein will help stop the hair loss."

C) "It is possible that some cancer cells have escaped from your breast.Chemotherapy will kill cancer cells wherever they are."

D) "Chemotherapy is delivered to all tissues and exerts the same damaging effects on some normal cells as well as on cancer cells."

Q2) Which side effect of chemotherapy puts patients at increased risk for infection?

A) Anemia

B) Hypoxemia

C) Neutropenia

D) Thrombocytopenia

Q3) An infant with cancer is to receive vincristine (Oncovin)0.05 mg/kg intravenously.The infant weighs 18 lb.What is the appropriate dose,in mg?

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Chapter 13: Drug Therapy for Diabetes

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60 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of insulin has the shortest duration of action?

A) Rapid-acting insulin

B) Short-acting insulin

C) Intermediate-acting insulin

D) Long-acting insulin

Q2) Which condition is the most dangerous adverse effect of insulin?

A) Hypoglycemia

B) Hyperglycemia

C) Severe hypotension

D) Development of insulin allergy

Q3) A patient newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes who is prescribed rosiglitazone (Avandia)has all the following health problems.For which problem do you check with the prescriber to make certain rosiglitazone is an appropriate drug choice?

A) Severe asthma for the last 3 years

B) Myocardial infarction 1 year ago

C) Uncontrolled hypertension

D) Glaucoma

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15

Chapter 14: Drug Therapy for Thyroid and Adrenal Gland

Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) What does a goiter indicate?

A) Hypothyroidism

B) Hyperthyroidism

C) Thyroid problem

D) Premature menopause

Q2) A patient who is prescribed liothyronine (Cytomel)also takes warfarin (Coumadin).Which laboratory blood test result indicates a possible drug interaction?

A) Hematocrit 42%

B) Hemoglobin 14.2 g/dL

C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)12 mg/dL

D) International normalized ratio (INR)4.5

Q3) A 6-year-old child is being started on levothyroxine (Synthroid)intravenously and is prescribed 5 mcg/kg.The child weighs 32lb.The drug vial contains 100 mcg/mL.How many milliliters should you draw up for a correct dose?

Q4) With which patient should you question the order for methimazole (Tapazole)?

A) 10-year-old girl who has new onset hyperthyroidism

B) 30-year-old woman who also takes oral contraceptives

C) 50-year-old man who has active hepatitis B

D) 60-year-old man who has an enlarged prostate gland

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Chapter 15: Drugs That Affect Urine Output

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which class of drugs can increase the blood potassium level when taken with triamterene (Dyrenium)?

A) High-ceiling "loop" diuretics

B) Metabolism inhibiting antibacterials

C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

D) Nonnucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Q2) Which side effect is associated only with loop diuretics?

A) Dizziness

B) Hearing loss

C) Urinary frequency

D) Increased sun sensitivity

Q3) A patient who has been taking a diuretic for the past 2 weeks now experiences all of the following changes.Which change indicates that the diuretic is effective?

A) Weight loss of 7 lb

B) Heart rate increased from 72 to 80 beats/min

C) Respiratory rate decreased from 20 to 16 breaths/min

D) Morning blood glucose decreased from 142 to 110 mg/dL

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Chapter 16: Drug Therapy for Hypertension

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who is taking nicardipine (Cardene)develops skin lesions,itching,fever,and achy joints.What is your best first action?

A) Hold the drug and notify the prescriber.

B) Document the finding as expected with this drug.

C) Administer a dose of oral diphenhydramine (Benadryl).

D) Apply a thin coat of hydrocortisone ointment to the lesions.

Q2) A hospitalized patient prescribed nifedipine XL (Procardia)60 mg once a day informs you that at home he was taking nicardipine (Cardene)20 mg three times a day and thinks this is the wrong drug.What is your best action?

A) Give the dose as ordered after informing the patient that this is a new medication the prescriber wants him or her to take.

B) Hold the drug and contact the prescriber to clarify the order because of the patient's concern before administering the dose.

C) Contact the pharmacy to ask what the prescriber ordered and if there was a mistake when the prescription was filled.

D) Administer the dose because nifedipine and nicardipine are from the same class of drugs and may be substituted for each other.

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Chapter 17: Drug Therapy for Heart Failure

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Sample Questions

Q1) For which drug order would you contact the prescriber to verify it is correct?

A) Furosemide (Lasix)40 mg orally each day

B) Fosinopril (Monopril)20 mg orally each day

C) Digoxin (Lanoxin)2.5 mg orally each day

D) Amiloride (Midamor)5 mg orally each day

Q2) A patient with heart failure reports a 5 lb weight gain during the past week and episodes of feeling more short of breath.What is your best response?

A) "These changes are to be expected because you have heart failure."

B) "You will probably need a decreased dose of your diuretic drug."

C) "I will ask the dietitian to discuss a weight loss diet with you."

D) "Your prescriber must be notified because your heart failure is getting worse."

Q3) A patient has been prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin.Which key points will you teach the patient about this drug? (select all that apply)

A) Keep the tablet in place until it is dissolved.

B) Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.

C) A tingling sensation means that the drug is potent.

D) Do not eat anything until after the tablet is dissolved.

E) Call your prescriber if chest pain persists after one tablet.

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Chapter 18: Drug Therapy for Dysrhythmias

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who weighs 126 lb is prescribed to receive an intramuscular dose of procainamide (Pronestyl)of 12.5 mg/kg immediately.The available parenteral form of procainamide is a solution with a concentration of 500 mg/mL.How many milliliters will you prepare for the correct dose?

Q2) Which person is likely to have the lowest resting heart rate?

A) Newborn infant

B) Exercising child

C) Young adult athlete

D) Older adult female

Q3) Which statement by a patient who has been prescribed quinidine (Quinaglute)indicates the need for additional teaching?

A) "I use over-the-counter St.John's wort to help with my memory."

B) "I am careful not to eat too much food that is high in alkaline ash."

C) "I check my heart rate and blood pressure at least once a day."

D) "I take a multivitamin and calcium supplement daily."

Q4) What is the most common side effect of adenosine (Adenocard)?

A) Nightmares

B) Constipation

C) Facial flushing

D) Leg and ankle swelling

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Drug Therapy for High Blood Lipids

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which health problems should you teach a patient can be caused by chronic hyperlipidemia? (select all that apply)

A) Hypertension

B) Pancreatitis

C) Peptic ulcer disease

D) Xanthoma

E) Diabetes mellitus

Q2) A patient who is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor)asks why liver function tests must be drawn every 6 months.What is your best response?

A) "The tests are important because early liver problems do not cause symptoms."

B) "The tests help your prescriber decide what your dose of simvastatin should be."

C) "The tests tell your prescriber how well your body is responding to the therapy."

D) "The tests indicate how much cholesterol is being produced by your liver."

Q3) A patient is prescribed to receive simvastatin (Zocor)60 mg orally.The drug on hand is simvastatin 40 mg/scored tablet.How many tablets should you give for the correct dose?

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Chapter 20: Drugs That Affect Blood Clotting

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has been receiving heparin subcutaneously for 3 weeks has all of the following laboratory blood test values.Which value should you report immediately to the prescriber?

A) Activated partial thromboplastin time 1.5

B) International normalized ratio (INR)1.7

C) Red blood cells 4.2 million/mm<sup>3</sup>

D) Platelets 20,000/mm<sup>3</sup>

Q2) Which factors are absolute contraindications for thrombolytic therapy? (select all that apply)

A) Active peptic ulcer disease

B) Active internal bleeding

C) Recent head trauma

D) Endocarditis

E) Suspected aortic aneurysm

Q3) Which condition occurs as a result of a thrombus developing in a coronary artery?

A) Cerebrovascular accident

B) Deep vein thrombosis

C) Pulmonary embolus

D) Myocardial infarction

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Drug Therapy for Asthma and Other Respiratory Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Drugs from which classes are considered the mainstays of therapy for pulmonary fibrosis?

A) Amiodarone and ambrisentan

B) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories and opiates

C) Corticosteroids and immunosuppressants

D) Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs and aspirin

Q2) A patient is prescribed to receive 90 mcg of levalbuterol (Xopenex)every 4 hours by oral inhalation.The available drug is levalbuterol 45 mcg/puff.How many total puffs will you tell this patient to take daily?

A) 4 puffs

B) 8 puffs

C) 12 puffs

D) 16 puffs

Q3) Why are long-acting beta-adrenergic agonists not useful during an actual acute asthma attack?

A) They are likely to cause allergies.

B) They need time to build up an effect.

C) They take too long to be absorbed by the intestinal tract.

D) They reduce inflammation rather than relax bronchial smooth muscle.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: Drug Therapy for Gastrointestinal Problems

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which drug used to treat diarrhea is an antimotility drug?

A) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

B) Calcium polycarbophil (FiberCon)

C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)

D) Loperamide (Imodium)

Q2) Which statement about normal bowel function is true?

A) Bowel movements should occur once a day every day.

B) Bowel movement frequency is more important than their consistency.

C) Bowel movements are very simple processes.

D) Bowel movements should be soft and easily pass out of the bowel.

Q3) You are instructing a patient who is experiencing chronic nausea/vomiting,about antiemetic therapy.What is the most important precaution you must teach the patient?

A) "Rinse your mouth frequently to reduce the unpleasant sensation of dry mouth."

B) "Report any constipation lasting 2 days or longer to your prescriber."

C) "Wear sunscreen and protective clothing when going outdoors."

D) "Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages while taking this drug."

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Chapter 23: Drug Therapy for Gastric Ulcers and Reflux

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which antibiotic should be prescribed for H.pylori infection?

A) Penicillin (Pen V)

B) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

C) Erythromycin (Erythrocin)

D) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)

Q2) Which drug forms a protective coating over an ulcer but does not coat normal stomach mucosa?

A) Sucralfate (Carafate)

B) Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

C) Metoclopramide (Reglan)

D) Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)

Q3) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed an antacid?

A) "Avoid using extra pepper on your food while taking this drug."

B) "If you become constipated,stop taking the antacid completely."

C) "Take this drug at least 2 hours before or after taking any other drug."

D) "Notify your prescriber if heartburn continues after you have taken the drug for 3 days."

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25

Chapter 24: Drug Therapy With Nutritional Supplements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which type of supplemental feeding makes use of the gastrointestinal tract?

A) TPN (total parenteral nutrition)

B) Intravenous feedings

C) Intraosseous feedings

D) Enteral feedings

Q2) Which substance should a patient avoid when prescribed a potassium supplement?

A) Table salt

B) Salt substitutes

C) Garlic salt

D) Onion salt

Q3) Which mineral helps maintain water balance in the body?

A) Calcium

B) Sodium

C) Sulfur

D) Fluoride

Q4) A patient with COPD is to receive Pulmocare at 40 mL/h.How many milliliters would you hang to cover 4 hours?

Q5) A patient is prescribed to receive 240 mL of the supplemental feeding,Jevity,over 2 hours.At what rate in milliliters per hour will you set the feeding pump?

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Chapter 25: Drug Therapy for Seizures

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Q1) A pediatric patient is prescribed valproic acid (Depacon)340 mg intravenously.The available drug solution is 500 mg in 5 mL.How many milliliters should you give?

A) 1.4

B) 2.4

C) 3.4

D) 4.4

Q2) Which type of seizure has a sudden loss of muscle tone for a few seconds followed by confusion?

A) Partial seizures

B) Atonic seizures

C) Myoclonic seizures

D) Tonic-clonic seizures

Q3) Which side effect is most common among people taking first-line drugs for absence seizures?

A) Weight loss

B) Weight gain

C) Low blood pressure

D) High blood pressure

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Chapter 26: Drug Therapy for Alzheimers and Parkinsons Diseases

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Q1) Which blood laboratory test result is most important to check before administering the first prescribed dose of carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet)to a patient?

A) International normalized ratio (INR)

B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)level

C) White blood cell (WBC)count

D) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

Q2) For which common side effects should you monitor after administering any anti-Parkinson's drug to a patient?

A) Dizziness and hypotension

B) Diarrhea and nausea

C) Hypertension and headache

D) Body rash and elevated temperature

Q3) A patient is prescribed entacapone (Comtan)800 mg/day.The drug is available in 200 mg tablets.How many tablets should you give?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

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Chapter 27: Drug Therapy for Psychiatric Problems

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Q1) A patient who has been prescribed diazepam (Valium)reports taking the as-needed (PRN)drug more often to keep anxiety symptoms under control and does not want the prescriber to stop prescribing it.What is your best interpretation of this information?

A) The patient may be developing signs of drug dependence.

B) The patient may be developing signs of drug tolerance.

C) The patient's anxiety is becoming more severe.

D) The patient should stop taking the drug immediately.

Q2) Which precaution is most important to teach a patient who is prescribed any antidepressant drug?

A) "Avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking this drug."

B) "Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages while taking this drug."

C) "Be sure to wear sunscreen and a hat when going outdoors."

D) "Drink at least 3 L of fluid every day while taking this drug."

Q3) Which statement about depression is true?

A) Depression does not affect the way an individual interacts with others.

B) Men are twice as likely to experience depression as women.

C) Many older adults with depression are undiagnosed and untreated.

D) Women are less likely than men to seek treatment for depression.

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29

Chapter 28: Drug Therapy for Insomnia

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Q1) In which drug category for insomnia does zaleplon (Sonata)belong?

A) Antihistamines

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Sedating antidepressants

D) Benzodiazepine receptor agonists

Q2) Why is more than one dose of Flumazenil (Romazicon)often needed to reverse a benzodiazepine overdose?

A) It must be administered only by the intravenous route.

B) It depresses the drug metabolizing effects of the liver.

C) It has a shorter duration of action than most benzodiazepines.

D) It must be given in low doses to avoid respiratory depression.

Q3) What adjustment should you expect to be made for an 82-year-old patient who is newly prescribed chloral hydrate for insomnia?

A) Seizure precautions should be implemented.

B) The first dose should be given with a meal or a substantial snack.

C) The initial dose should be lower than that for a younger adult.

D) The patient should have continuous electrocardiography monitoring.

Q4) An adult patient is prescribed 0.5 mg of triazolam (Halcion)as a one-time order.The available drug is triazolam 0.125 mg/tablet.How many tablets should be given?

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Chapter 29: Drug Therapy for Eye Problems

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Q1) Which term means constriction of the pupil of the eye?

A) Miosis

B) Punctum

C) Glaucoma

D) Mydriasis

Q2) Which question is most important to ask a patient who is prescribed acetazolamide (Diamox)before administering the first dose?

A) "Do you have diabetes?"

B) "Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?"

C) "How long have you had glaucoma?"

D) "Do you eat grapefruit or drink grapefruit juice?"

Q3) What is the most important assessment question to ask a patient who is newly prescribed apraclonidine (Iopidine)for glaucoma?

A) "How long have you had glaucoma?"

B) "What other medications are you currently taking?"

C) "Have you had any difficulty with retaining urine?"

D) "Do you have asthma or any chronic respiratory problem?"

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Chapter

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Q1) Which action by a skeletal muscle relaxant is the major mechanism of action?

A) Dilating blood vessels in skeletal muscles and reducing the need for contraction.

B) Binding to opioid and serotonin receptors in the brain to induce sleep.

C) Reducing motor nerve impulse transmission to the skeletal muscles.

D) Inhibiting glucose uptake in skeletal muscles.

Q2) Why is it necessary to slow or prevent osteoporosis?

A) To reduce the incidence of bone fractures.

B) To reduce the need for calcium supplementation.

C) To increase skeletal muscle strength and flexibility.

D) To prevent excessive weight gain after menopause.

Q3) Which drugs belong to the estrogen agonist/antagonist class? (select all that apply)

A) Alendronate (Fosamax)

B) Densosumab (Prolia)

C) Estrogen/bazedoxifene (Duavee)

D) Ibandronate (Boniva)

E) Raloxifene (Evista)

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Page 32

Chapter 31: Drug Therapy for Male Reproductive Problems

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Q1) An 82-year-old-man is prescribed a dihydrotestosterone (DHT)inhibitor to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).Which health promotion activity is most important to teach this patient?

A) Have vision and glaucoma checks yearly.

B) Participate in yearly prostate cancer screening.

C) Avoid both alcohol and caffeine while on the drug.

D) Avoid donating blood when taking the drug and for at least 6 months after drug therapy.

Q2) A patient taking tamsulosin (Flomax)asks how the drug works.What is your best response?

A) "This drug works on your prostate gland to decrease its size."

B) "This drug signals the cells in your prostate gland not to grow."

C) "This drug works by relaxing the detrusor muscle of your bladder."

D) "This drug relaxes muscle around your urethra to improve urine flow."

Q3) A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis).The pharmacy sends vardenafil (Levitra).What is your best action?

A) Give the drug because these drugs can be used interchangeably.

B) Notify the prescriber to clarify the order.

C) Ask the patient which drug he would prefer to take.

D) Contact the pharmacy and request the correct drug.

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Chapter 32: Drug Therapy for Female Reproductive Issues

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Q1) Which hormone levels in the blood are reduced as a result of taking hormone replacement therapy for menopause?

A) Estrogen and progesterone

B) Estrogen and follicle stimulating hormone

C) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone and progesterone

D) Follicle stimulating hormone and gonadotrophin releasing hormone

Q2) What is the most serious adverse effect of hormone replacement therapy for menopause?

A) Pregnancy

B) Blood clots

C) Miscarriage

D) Decreased mental concentration

Q3) A woman who wants to use the oral contraceptive drospirenone ethinyl estradiol (Yasmin)is prescribed to take these other drug types daily.Which drug makes Yasmin a poor choice for her?

A) A corticosteroid inhaler

B) A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

C) An angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

D) A combination opioid receptor agonist/antagonist agent

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