

Allied Health Pharmacology Exam Practice
Tests

Course Introduction
Allied Health Pharmacology provides students with a foundational understanding of the principles of pharmacology as they relate to the allied health professions. This course explores the mechanisms of action, therapeutic uses, side effects, and administration of major classes of drugs commonly encountered in clinical settings. Emphasis is placed on safe medication practices, legal and ethical considerations, and the role of allied health professionals in medication management and patient education. Case studies and real-world scenarios are incorporated to help students apply pharmacological knowledge to patient care and interdisciplinary teamwork.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Cardiopulmonary Pharmacology 3rd Edition by Bruce J. Colbert
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15 Chapters
833 Verified Questions
833 Flashcards
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Page 2

Chapter 1: General Pharmacologic Principles
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following terms explains why a patient may require an increased amount of a drug after repeated use to produce the same therapeutic effect?
A)Dependence
B)Selectivity
C)Tachyphylaxis
D)Tolerance
Answer: D
Q2) Administration of a drug directly to the lungs is a form of topical delivery.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Liver function tests should be conducted to determine if a patient can metabolize a prescribed drug.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What is the purpose of a "do not use" list of common abbreviations?
Answer: The "do not use" list was designed to eliminate medical errors and misinterpretation when using common abbreviations.
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Chapter 2: The Metric System and Drug Dosage
Calculations
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How can you express the strength of a drug in solution?
Answer: A drug strength can be expressed as a percent solution and as a ratio solution.
Q2) When calculating drug dosages based on a patient's weight in kilograms,a respiratory therapist can use the BSA nomogram to convert from pounds to kilograms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The metric system of measurement is based on the __________________. Answer: powers of 10
Q4) A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances is referred to as: A)Dissolved.
B)A solvent.
C)A solute.
D)A solution.
Answer: D
Q5) To convert from liters to milliliters the decimal point is moved ___________ places to the ___________.
Answer: three/right

4
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Chapter 3: Pharmacology of the Autonomic Nervous System
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of dopamine receptors causes which of the following?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Relaxation of renal arteries
C)Constriction of peripheral blood vessels
D)Bronchodilation
Answer: B
Q2) Nicotinic receptors are found in both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The somatic nervous system involves nerve transmission from a presynaptic neuron to a postsynaptic neuron.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Sympathomimetic drugs are used for ________________ or ________________.
Answer: vasoconstriction/bronchodilation
Answer: brain/spinal cord Page 5
Q5) The CNS is comprised of the ____________ and the ____________.
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Chapter 4: Medicated Aerosol Treatments
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order for nasal sprays to deposit in the nasal cavity,the particle size should be:
A)>10 microns
B)5 to 10 microns
C)1 to 5 microns
D)<1 micron
Q2) Aerosol penetration is defined as:
A)The removal of the particles from suspension.
B)The depth to which the aerosol particles reach within the lungs.
C)The velocity at which the aerosol particles travel.
D)The ability of an aerosol particle to stay in suspension.
Q3) Heated and humidified gas in ventilator circuits cause aerosol particles to ________________ in size.
Q4) A breath-actuated nebulizer is capable of delivering a dose that is____________ times greater than with continuous nebulization.
Q5) Newer propellants used in MDIs are ________________.
Q6) A slow inspiration produces more ____________ flow and improves penetration of aerosol particles.
Q7) Aerosol particles are measured in ________________.
Page 7
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Chapter 5: Bronchodilators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beta<sub>1</sub> receptors stimulate the heart,while beta<sub>2</sub> receptors stimulate the lungs.
A)True B)False
Q2) At the synapse where the neuron meets the muscle,sympathetic fibers release acetylcholine.
A)True B)False
Q3) Stimulation of beta<sub>2</sub> receptors causes smooth muscle ________________ in the lungs,resulting in ________________.
Q4) An increase of cyclic GMP at cellular level causes smooth muscle relaxation,resulting in bronchodilation.
A)True B)False
Q5) Racemic epinephrine would be indicated in all the following situations except: A)Croup.
B)Postextubation edema.
C)Acute bronchospasm.
D)Laryngeal edema.
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Chapter 6: Mucokinetics and Surfactants
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the difference between the modes of action for Mucomyst and Pulmozyme in the treatment of thick,viscous secretions?
Q2) A treatment regime for a patient with thick,retained secretions who is currently receiving oxygen should include all the following except:
A)Bland aerosol with sterile water via a large-volume nebulizer.
B)Administration of an antitussive such as dextromethorphan.
C)Intermittent treatments with Mucomyst and a short-acting bronchodilator.
D)Deep breathing,assisted coughing,and suctioning.
Q3) You are called to the emergency room to administer a bland aerosol treatment to a patient for sputum induction.Which of the following agents would you select for its effect in producing irritation and cough?
A)Sterile water.
B)Normal saline.
C)Hypertonic saline.
D)Hypotonic saline.
Q4) Compare and contrast the two types of exogenous surfactants that are currently available.
Q5) ________________ aerosols dilute mucus by altering its water content.
Q6) The saline solution that is considered to be an expectorant is ________________.
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Chapter 7: Anti-Inflammatory and Antiasthmatic Agents
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is given as an oral medication?
A)Singulair
B)Azmacort
C)Flovent
D)Serevent
Q2) The immune response is not involved in ________________ asthma.
Q3) The lipoxygenase pathway causes the release of ________________,which contributes to the late-phase response in asthma.
Q4) Nasal decongestants are ________________ drugs and cause vasoconstriction that reduces blood flow and swelling of the nasal passages.
Q5) Leukotriene release can be explained by which of the following?
A)The release occurs during the early phase inflammatory response.
B)The lipoxygenase pathways release leukotriene,adding to the late-phase inflammatory response.
C)Arachidonic acid metabolism produces leukotriene through cyclooxygenase pathways.
D)Leukotrienes and prostaglandins are released through cyclooxygenase pathways.
Q6) Explain the mechanism of prostaglandin inhibitors in airway function.
Q7) Histamine smooth muscle contraction is controlled by ________________ receptors.
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Chapter 8: Anti-Infective Agents
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60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is seen in a hospital clinic for chronic cough and fever.The physician suspects community-acquired pneumonia due to Haemophilus influenzae.The patient is prescribed an antibiotic and sent home.Which of the following antibacterial agents would be most appropriate for this patient?
A)Rifampin
B)Cephalexin
C)Penicillin
D)Septra
Q2) Fungal infections develop as a result of all of the following except the:
A)Patient having a depressed immune system.
B)Prolonged use of antibiotics.
C)Patient using inhaled corticosteroids.
D)Immunization against viral infections.
Q3) ________________ are the beta-lactam antibiotics that are active against many organisms resistant to pencillins.
Q4) In all bacteria,the _______________ functions to maintain the integrity of the cell.
Q5) How are bacteria in a sputum sample identified in the laboratory?
Q6) How is anti-infective therapy monitored?
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Cardiac Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digoxin inhibits the sodium/potassium exchange pump in the heart,resulting in increased intracellular ________________ and ________________.
Q2) The ________________ valve separates the right atrium and ventricle,and the ________________ valve separates the left atrium and ventricle.
Q3) Aldosterone antagonists used in the treatment of heart failure for their diuretic effect cause potassium depletion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Statin drugs used in the treatment of high cholesterol block enzymes that produce cholesterol.
A)True B)False
Q5) Intravenous nitroprusside increases afterload and preload.
A)True B)False
Q6) ________________ refers to the force against which the heart must pump.
Q7) ACE inhibitors decrease afterload by inducing ________________.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Blood Pressure and Antithrombotic Agents
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55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diuretics work by not allowing ________________ to be reabsorbed back into the peritubular capillary system.
Q2) ________________ agents used to treat hypertension are also effective for benign prostatic hypertrophy.
Q3) All diuretics increase salt and water excretion,but their effect on other ions depends on the diuretic.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Patients in _______________ blood pressure should be considered for two-drug combination therapy.
Q5) Untreated hypertension can lead to target organ disease that includes all the following except:
A)Left ventricular hypertrophy.
B)Peripheral vascular disease.
C)Prostatic hypertrophy.
D)Retinopathy.
Q6) What is the purpose of using heparin in IV lines or central venous and arterial catheters,and what might occur without heparinized solutions at these sites?
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Chapter 11: Neuromuscular, sedative, anesthetic, and Analgesic Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tolerance is a state of adaptation in which exposure to a drug induces changes that result in diminution of one or more of the drug's effects over time.
A)True B)False
Q2) Agents that inhibit acetylcholinesterase cause increased acetylcholine at the muscle end plate and result in stimulation of the muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cell's ________________ refers to the electrical charge at which the cell becomes depolarized.
Q4) The termination of the effect of an inhaled anesthetic is called the ________________.
Q5) Central-acting skeletal muscle relaxants decrease muscle tone by acting directly on ________________.
Q6) A local anesthetic works by binding to a membrane site and preventing the neurons from ________________.
Q7) What are the different mechanisms of action for analgesic medications?
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Chapter 12: Therapeutic Medical Gases
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56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperbaric oxygen is used to treat all except which of the following conditions?
A)Carbon monoxide poisoning
B)COPD
C)Decompression sickness
D)Air embolism
Q2) Nitric oxide is combined with ________________ in compressed gas cylinders.
Q3) Which of the following devices is most frequently used for emergencies that require a moderate FIO<sub>2</sub>?
A)A nasal cannula
B)A simple mask
C)A nonrebreathing mask
D)A jet-mixing mask
Q4) What does the term "affinity" mean in relation to hemoglobin and oxygen?
Q5) The PaO<sub>2</sub> represents the amount of oxygen that is dissolved in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) ________________ refers to low levels of oxygen to the tissue.
Q7) Inhaled nitric oxide is a selective _______________ vasodilator.
15
Q8) PaO<sub>2</sub> represents the measure of oxygen that is
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Page 16
Chapter 13: Pharmacologic Management of Obstructive
Pulmonary Disease: Asthma, chronic Bronchitis, and Emphysema
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with all categories of ________________ asthma should be on anti-inflammatory medication to prevent their symptoms from occurring.
Q2) Which of the following is a diagnostic marker used to confirm a diagnosis of COPD due to emphysema?
A)A cough,typically in the evening
B)Increased eosinophilia
C)Episodic attacks brought on by exposure to allergens
D)A history of smoking
Q3) Which of the following describes asthma?
A)Presence of productive cough during 3 months of the year for 2 consecutive years
B)Episodes of reversible airway hyperreactivity and inflammation
C)Destruction of alveolar walls and loss of elastic recoil in the lung
D)Chronic sputum production and associated cough
Q4) The National Asthma Education and Prevention Program (NAEPP)recommends that asthmatics maintain normal exercise and physical activity.
A)True
B)False

Page 17
Q5) The major causative factor in chronic bronchitis is ________________.
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Chapter 14: Pharmacologic Treatment of Respiratory
Infectious Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients who are allergic to penicillin should not be prescribed ________________ antibiotics.
Q2) Avian influenza can be treated only with ________________ care.
Q3) Overuse of antibiotics that leads to an increase in organisms that do not respond to therapy is referred to as ________________.
Q4) Respiratory therapists who are caring for mechanically ventilated patients can reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia by practicing all except which of the following measures?
A)Preventing cross-contamination through hand washing
B)Appropriately cleaning and processing respiratory devices
C)Performing 24-hour ventilator circuit changes
D)Taking precautions to prevent the patient from aspirating
Q5) Pneumonias that are acquired due to inhalation of contaminated aerosols are most often contaminated with all except which of the following?
A)Legionella spiritensis
B)Aspergillus spiritensis
C)Respiratory syncytial virus
D)Influenza virus
Q6) What are the causative agents for croup and how is it treated?
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Chapter 15: Medications for Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs would not be used in the treatment of asystole?
A)Epinephrine
B)Vasopressin
C)Atropine
D)Lidocaine
Q2) Pulseless electrical activity is treated pharmacologically with _______________ or _______________.
Q3) The acceptable dosage for vasopressin during resuscitation is:
A)40 units IV or IO given once.
B)20 units IV given every 10 minutes.
C)40 units IV or IO given alternately with epinephrine.
D)20 units IV or IO given alternately with epinephrine.
Q4) A heart rate greater than 130 is usually due to which of the following conditions?
A)Stress
B)Fever
C)Pathologic arrhythmia
D)Hypoxemia
Q5) _______________ is administered for heart failure that is refractory to diuretics,vasodilators,and conventional inotropic agents.
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