Allied Health Pathophysiology
Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Allied Health Pathophysiology provides an in-depth exploration of the physiological processes underlying disease across major body systems, with an emphasis on conditions commonly encountered in allied health settings. Students will learn to distinguish between normal and altered physiological states, understand the etiology and progression of various disorders, and apply this knowledge in evaluating clinical presentations. The course integrates foundational concepts in anatomy and physiology with case-based discussions, preparing students to contribute effectively to interdisciplinary healthcare teams and support patient care through informed analysis of disease mechanisms.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Sue E. Huether
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40 Chapters
1443 Verified Questions
1443 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Characteristics of prokaryotes include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) They contain no organelles.
B) Their nuclear material is not encased by a nuclear membrane.
C) They contain a distinct nucleus.
D) They contain histones.
E) They contain a cellular membrane.
Answer: A,B
Q2) How are potassium and sodium transported across plasma membranes?
A) By passive electrolyte channels
B) By coupled channels
C) By adenosine triphosphate enzyme (ATPase)
D) By diffusion.
Answer: C
Q3) What is the role of cytokines in cell reproduction?
A) Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development
B) Block progress of cell reproduction through the cell cycle
C) Restrain cell growth and development
D) Provide nutrients for cell growth and development
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition in which an extra portion of a chromosome is present in each cell is called:
A) Reciprocal translocation
B) Partial trisomy
C) Inversion
D) Down syndrome
Answer: B
Q2) A 5-year-old male presents with mental retardation and is diagnosed with fragile X syndrome.When the parents ask what caused this,how should the geneticist respond?
This was most probably caused from:
A) Translocation
B) Inversion
C) Nondisjunction
D) Duplication at fragile sites
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Confirmation of somatic death is based on:
A) Presence of algor mortis
B) Presence of livor mortis
C) Complete cessation of respiration and circulation
D) Change in skin color to pale yellow
Answer: C
Q2) A 24-year-old female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding.The physician identified endometrial changes that are due to hormonal imbalances.These cellular changes would be referred to as:
A) Dysplasia
B) Pathologic dysplasia
C) Hyperplasia
D) Pathologic hyperplasia
Answer: D
Q3) Sodium and water accumulation in an injured cell are a direct result of:
A) Decreased ATP production
B) Karyorrhexis
C) Ribosome detachment
D) Dehydration
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids and Bases
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When planning care for a dehydrated patient,the nurse remembers the principle of water balance is closely related to _____ balance.
A) Potassium
B) Chloride
C) Bicarbonate
D) Sodium
Q2) Which of the following buffer pairs is considered the major plasma buffering system?
A) Protein/fat
B) Carbonic acid/bicarbonate
C) Sodium/potassium
D) Amylase/albumin
Q3) For a patient experiencing metabolic acidosis,the body will compensate by:
A) Excreting H<sup>+</sup> through the kidneys
B) Hyperventilating
C) Retaining CO<sub>2</sub> in the lungs
D) Secreting aldosterone
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Chapter 5: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old male is diagnosed with a bacterial infection.Cultures of the bacteria revealed lipopolysaccharides on the bacterial cell surface.Which of the complement pathways would be activated in this case?
A) Classical pathway
B) Lectin pathway
C) Alternative pathway
D) Kinin pathway
Q2) A patient has researched bradykinin on the Internet.Which information indicates the patient understands the functions of bradykinin? Bradykinin is involved in:
A) Increasing vascular permeability
B) Vasoconstricting blood vessels
C) Stimulating the clotting system
D) Increasing degradation of prostaglandins
Q3) Which factor will help the nurse differentiate leukotrienes from histamine?
A) Site of production
B) Vascular effect
C) Chemotactic ability
D) Time of release
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Chapter 6: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) While planning care for an elderly patient,the nurse remembers that increased age is associated with (select all that apply):
A) Increased T cell function
B) Decreased immune function
C) Increased production of antibodies
D) Decreased numbers of circulating immune complexes
E) Decreased ability to fight infection
Q2) A 16-year-old is bitten by a rabid dog while jogging in the park.Upon admission to the emergency department,the nurse will administer which of the following to help prevent infection?
A) Cytotoxic T cells
B) Helper T cells
C) Macrophages
D) Immune globulin
Q3) When the immunoglobulin crosses the placenta,what type of immunity does the fetus receive?
A) Active
B) Passive
C) Innate
D) Cell-mediated
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Chapter 7: Infection and Defects in Mechanisms of Defense
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a(n):
A) Negative response to an immunization
B) Adverse response to a medication
C) Renal failure
D) Genetic defect
Q2) A 30-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting fatigue,excessive sweating,and increased appetite.Physical examination reveals protruding eyes,and laboratory testing reveals hyperthyroidism secondary to autoantibody production.This disorder falls into the category of type _____ hypersensitivity.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q3) A nurse recalls bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by:
A) Proliferation
B) Attenuation
C) Specialization
D) Mutation
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Chapter 8: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old male was physically abused for the previous 4 years.He reports feeling stressed all the time and frequently gets ill.Which of the following hormones is most likely suppressed in this child?
A) Endorphins
B) Growth hormone
C) Prolactin
D) Cortisol
Q2) When teaching about the stress-age syndrome,what information should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
A) Decreased cortisol secretion
B) Increased thyroxine
C) Immunodepression
D) Increased catecholamine secretion
E) Hypercoagulation of the blood
F) Free radical damage
Q3) Which of the following hormones activates adrenergic receptors?
A) Oxytocin
B) Prolactin
C) Epinephrine
D) Somatotropin
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Chapter 9: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors?
A) Grows slowly
B) Has a well-defined capsule
C) Has a high mitotic index
D) Is well-differentiated
Q2) Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer,angiogenic factors stimulate:
A) Release of growth factors
B) Tumor regression
C) Apoptosis
D) New blood vessel growth
Q3) A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker.Which of the following could be a possible marker?
A) Red blood cells
B) Apoptotic cells
C) Enzymes
D) Neurotransmitters
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Chapter 10: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A water test recently revealed arsenic levels above 200 ìg/L.Which of the following cancers would be most likely to develop in those who consistently drank the water?
A) Liver
B) Skin
C) Colon
D) Kidney
Q2) When an oncologist is discussing the degree to which an organism's development is contingent on its environment,which of the following is the oncologist explaining?
A) Transgenerational inheritance
B) Epigenetics
C) Histone modification
D) Developmental plasticity
Q3) When a patient asks what types of cancers are associated with tobacco use,how should the nurse respond?
A) Squamous and small cell adenocarcinomas
B) Sarcoma and adenoma
C) Melanoma and lymphoma
D) Basal cell and lipoma
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12
Chapter 11: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is preparing to teach the most common malignancy in children.Which malignancy should the nurse discuss?
A) Leukemia
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Wilms tumor
D) Retinoblastoma
Q2) A child was recently diagnosed with cancer.The diagnosis suggests it is an embryonic tumor.Which of the following characterizes this type of cancer?
A) Commonly occurring
B) Often seen in adults
C) Composed of mature, differentiated cells
D) Usually manifested around age 5
Q3) The most common tissue type of cancer occurring after adolescence is:
A) Sarcoma
B) Squamous cell
C) Carcinoma
D) Neuromas
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Chapter 12: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A neurologist is teaching the staff about motor neurons.Which information should be included? Motor neurons are structurally classified as _____ neurons.
A) Unipolar
B) Pseudounipolar
C) Bipolar
D) Multipolar
Q2) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)can accumulate around the brain when there is injury to the sites of CSF reabsorption,which are called the:
A) Arachnoid villi
B) Epidural foramina
C) Lateral apertures
D) Choroid plexuses
Q3) A 40-year-old male suffers from head trauma that affects cranial nerve I.Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect?
A) Visual disturbances
B) Loss of sense of smell
C) Loss of ability to taste
D) Hearing disturbances
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Chapter 13: Pain, Temperature, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has researched exogenous pyrogens on the Internet.Which information indicates the patient has a good understanding? Exogenous pyrogens are:
A) Interleukins
B) Endotoxins
C) Prostaglandins
D) Corticotropin-releasing factors
Q2) A 15-year-old female is diagnosed with an outer ear infection.Which of the following is most likely to cause this infection?
A) Haemophilus
B) Streptococcus pneumonia
C) Moraxella catarrhalis
D) Escherichia coli
Q3) A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found.How should the nurse respond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the:
A) Skin
B) Spinal cord
C) Efferent pathways
D) Hypothalamus
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15
Chapter 14: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 65-year-old male recently suffered a cerebral vascular accident.He is now unable to recognize and identify objects by touch because of injury to the sensory cortex.How should the nurse document this finding?
A) Hypomimesis
B) Agnosia
C) Dysphasia
D) Echolalia
Q2) Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a patient with spinal shock? Spinal shock is characterized by:
A) Loss of voluntary motor function with preservation of reflexes
B) Cessation of spinal cord function below the lesion
C) Loss of spinal cord function at the level of the lesion only
D) Temporary loss of spinal cord function above the lesion
Q3) The patient is experiencing an increase in intracranial pressure.This increase results in:
A) Brain tissue hypoxia
B) Intracranial hypotension
C) Ventricular swelling
D) Expansion of the cranial vault
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 23-year-old female begins having problems with tiredness,weakness,and visual changes.Her diagnosis is multiple sclerosis (MS).What is occurring in the patient's body?
A) Depletion of dopamine in the central nervous system (CNS)
B) Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS
C) The development of neurofibril webs in the CNS
D) Reduced amounts of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
Q2) An older adult is admitted to the ER following a fall.The patient complains of pain in the back.The patient has a history of osteoporosis.The nurse would expect the patient's injury and subsequent pain is most likely due to:
A) A fractured hip
B) Spinal stenosis
C) Herniation of a thoracic disk
D) A spinal compression fracture
Q3) Of the following groups,who are at highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
A) Blacks over 65 years of age
B) Whites over 65 years of age
C) Blacks under 65 years of age
D) Whites under 65 years of age
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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31 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The percent of retinoblastomas that are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait is ____%.
Q2) Parents of a 3-month-old infant bring him to the emergency room (ER)after he has had a seizure.He has muscle rigidity,and the parents report they are of Jewish ancestry.For what genetic disease should this infant be screened?
A) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
B) Congenital encephalopathy
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) PKU
Q3) A nurse is teaching the staff about viral meningitis.Which information should the nurse include? Viral meningitis:
A) Is always sudden in onset
B) Often occurs with measles, mumps, or herpes
C) Is effectively treated with antibiotics
D) Causes increased sugar in the CSF
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Chapter 17: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells,an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells occurs.This is an example of a _____ effect by a hormone.
A) Pharmacologic
B) Permissive
C) Biphasic
D) Direct
Q2) A 70-year-old female has brittle bones secondary to osteoporosis.Her primary care provider prescribes calcitonin to:
A) Activate vitamin D
B) Stimulate osteoclastic activity
C) Inhibit calcium resorption from bones
D) Promote thyroid hormone release
Q3) A 39-year-old female is recovering from the birth of her third child.Which hormone would help prevent uterine bleeding?
A) Aldosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Prolactin
D) Oxytocin
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19
Chapter 18: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 45-year-old female with Graves disease underwent surgical removal of her thyroid gland.During the postoperative period,her serum calcium was low.The most probable reason for her low serum calcium is:
A) Hyperparathyroidism secondary to Graves disease
B) Myxedema secondary to surgery
C) Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury to the parathyroid glands
D) Hypothyroidism resulting from lack of thyroid replacement
Q2) A 35-year-old female with Graves disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit.While the nurse is reviewing the lab tests,which results would the nurse expect to find?
A) High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating antibodies
B) Ectopic secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
C) Low circulating levels of thyroid hormones
D) Increased circulation of iodine
Q3) A nurse is caring for a patient with SIADH.What severe complication should the nurse assess for?
A) Stroke
B) Diabetes insipidus
C) Neurologic damage
D) Renal failure
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Chapter 19: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) While reviewing lab results,the nurse recalls the most abundant cells in the blood are: A) Leukocytes
B) Lymphocytes
C) Erythrocytes
D) Thrombocytes
Q2) A hematologist is discussing hematopoiesis.Which information should be included? ________ participate in hematopoiesis.
A) Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils
Q3) A nurse is discussing fibrinolysis.Which information should the nurse share? Fibrinolysis is mediated by:
A) Heparin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Plasmin
D) Albumin
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Alterations of Hematologic Function
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The people from which country have the lowest risk for Hodgkin lymphoma?
A) United States
B) Japan
C) Denmark
D) Great Britain
Q2) A 50-year-old female was diagnosed with sideroblastic anemia.Which of the following assessment findings would most likely occur?
A) Bronze colored skin
B) Decreased iron
C) Normochromic erythrocytes
D) Aplastic bone marrow
Q3) A nurse recalls posthemorrhagic anemia can result in death when a patient's blood loss is in excess of:
A) 20% to 29%
B) 30% to 39%
C) 40% to 49%
D) 50% to 59%
Q4) A 35-year-old male was diagnosed with hepatitis B.Further tests revealed neutropenia characterized by a neutrophil count less than _____ per milliliter.
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Chapter 21: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) If an infant has hydrops fetalis,which type of thalassemia does the nurse suspect?
A) Beta minor
B) Beta major
C) Alpha minor
D) Alpha major
Q2) A 25-year-old female has a child that is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia.She does not have the disease.Which of the following characterizes the genetic makeup of the parents with regard to this trait?
A) Hb S and Hb S
B) Hb S and Hb A
C) Hb S and Hb C
D) Hb A and Hb C
Q3) For which type of sickle cell crisis should the nurse assess for in young children?
A) Hyperhemolytic crisis
B) Vaso-occlusive crisis
C) Aplastic crisis
D) Sequestration crisis
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23
Chapter 22: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Increases in which of the following would cause the nurse to assess for decreased blood flow? (Select all that apply.)
A) Blood viscosity
B) Blood vessel diameter
C) Blood pressure
D) Blood vessel length
Q2) Which principle should the nurse remember while planning care for a cardiac patient? Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in the _____ before the left ventricle can eject blood.
A) Coronary arteries
B) Aorta
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Pulmonary veins
Q3) Within a normal physiologic range,an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume would lead the nurse to monitor for:
A) An increased force of contraction
B) A decrease in cardiac output
C) An increase in heart rate
D) Heart failure
24
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Chapter 23: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a person is in shock,a nurse remembers impairment in cellular metabolism is cause by:
A) Release of toxic substances
B) Free radical formation
C) Inadequate tissue perfusion
D) Lack of nervous or endocrine stimulation
Q2) A 72-year-old female has a history of hypertension and atherosclerosis.An echocardiogram reveals backflow of blood into the left ventricle.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis documented on the chart?
A) Mitral regurgitation
B) Mitral stenosis
C) Aortic regurgitation
D) Aortic stenosis
Q3) A staff member asks a nurse what foam cells are.What is the nurse's best response?
Foam cells in a fatty streak are:
A) Deposited adipose cells
B) Injured neutrophils
C) Macrophages that engulf low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
D) Lipid-laden mast cells
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Page 25
Chapter 24: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a staff member asks what the patent opening between the aorta and pulmonary artery in a fetus is called,how should the nurse reply? It is the:
A) Foramen ovale
B) Sinus venosus
C) Ductus arteriosus
D) Septal defect
Q2) A 22-year-old pregnant woman presents to her OB/GYN for a prenatal checkup.The heartbeat sounds irregular,and a fetal echocardiogram reveals an atrioventricular canal (AVC)defect.This defect is the result of:
A) Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close
B) Fusion of the endocardial cushions
C) A patent foramen ovale
D) A right-to-left shunt
Q3) A 3-year-old male is diagnosed with Kawasaki disease.Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the most likely cause?
A) A genetic defect causing left heart failure
B) Autoimmune injury to the lymphatic vessels
C) Infectious pericarditis
D) Inflammation of the small capillaries, arteries, and veins
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A consequence of alveolar hypoxia is:
A) Reactive vasodilation
B) Local bronchoconstriction
C) Decreased respiratory rate
D) Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction
Q2) An aide asks a nurse how surfactant works.How should the nurse respond?
Surfactant facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by:
A) Decreasing thoracic compliance
B) Attracting water to the alveolar surface
C) Decreasing surface tension in alveoli
D) Increasing diffusion in alveoli
Q3) A patient wants to know how carbon dioxide is transported in the body.How should the nurse respond? Carbon dioxide (CO<sub>2</sub>)is mainly transported in the blood:
A) Attached to oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)
B) Dissolved in red blood cells
C) Combined with albumin
D) In the form of bicarbonate
Q4) ____% of oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)enters the bloodstream bound to hemoglobin
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse remembers a low ventilation-perfusion ratio results in:
A) Increased dead space
B) Shunting
C) Alveolar collapse
D) Bronchoconstriction
Q2) A 60-year-old female with a 25-year history of smoking is diagnosed with emphysema.She has an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter.The nurse attributes this finding to:
A) Air trapping
B) Decreased inspiratory reserve volumes
C) Increased flow rates
D) Alveolar destruction
Q3) A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about asthma.Which information should the nurse include? Airway hyper-responsiveness in asthma is related to:
A) Increased sympathetic nervous system response
B) The release of stress hormones
C) Exposure to an allergen causing mast cell degranulation
D) Hereditary decrease in IgE responsiveness
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Chapter 27: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 10-year-old male was diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea.When the parents ask what treatment comes next,how should the nurse respond? The treatment that will most likely be tried first is:
A) Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A)
B) Weight loss
C) Continuous positive airway pressure
D) Drug therapy
Q2) To prevent sudden infant death syndrome,the nurse should instruct parents to:
A) Place infants on a soft mattress for sleeping.
B) Always lay infants down on their backs to sleep.
C) Breast-feed their infants.
D) Keep the infant's room very warm.
Q3) A 2-year-old male presents with fever and cough.He is diagnosed with pneumonia.While planning treatment for this patient,the nurse recognizes that which of the following is the most likely cause?
A) Bacteria
B) Viruses
C) Mycoplasma species
D) Toxic inhalations
Q4) Asthma affects ____% of children between 5 and 17 years of age.
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a student asks what the components of the nephron are,how should the nurse respond? The components of the nephron include (select all that apply):
A) Loop of Henle
B) Renal corpuscle
C) Proximal tubule
D) Renal pelvis
E) Convoluted tubule
Q2) While reviewing urine lab results,the nurse remembers the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)is directly related to the:
A) Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries
B) Oncotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries
C) Vascular resistance in the glomerular arterioles
D) Hydrostatic pressure in the Bowman capsule
Q3) When a patient asks what role the kidneys play in vitamin D function,how should the nurse reply?
A) Synthesizes vitamin D from cholesterol
B) Activates intestinally absorbed vitamin D
C) Metabolizes and breaks down vitamin D
D) Excretes excess vitamin D
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 42-year-old male is involved in a motor vehicle accident during which he loses a lot of blood.The nurse realizes he is in acute renal failure caused by:
A) Kidney stones
B) Immune complex deposition in the glomerulus
C) Inadequate renal blood flow
D) Obstruction of the proximal tubule
Q2) While turning a patient with chronic renal failure,which principle should the nurse recall? Bone fractures are a risk factor in chronic renal failure because:
A) Calcium is lost in the urine.
B) Osteoblast activity is excessive.
C) The kidneys fail to activate vitamin D.
D) Autoantibodies to calcium molecules develop.
Q3) A 25-year-old male was diagnosed with Goodpasture syndrome.While planning care for this patient,which of the following mechanisms would cause tissue injury?
A) Viral infection of the Bowman capsule
B) Production of antibodies against the glomerular basement membrane
C) Antigen-antibody complex deposition with complement activation
D) Abnormal activation of clotting factors and microclotting in the glomerulus
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11198
Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse observes on the chart that a patient is admitted with Wilms tumors.A nurse knows the tumors are found in the:
A) Kidneys
B) Ureters
C) Bladder
D) Urethra
Q2) A 7-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for incontinence.His mother indicates that he has never been continent.Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis the nurse will observe on the chart?
A) Nocturnal enuresis
B) Diurnal enuresis
C) Primary enuresis
D) Secondary enuresis
Q3) A nurse is preparing to teach about renal agenesis.Which information should the nurse include? Infants who have bilateral renal agenesis:
A) Die within 1 year of birth
B) Can expect to have a normal, healthy life
C) Are stillborn or die within a few hours of birth
D) Have structural abnormalities that can be corrected with surgery
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11199
Sample Questions
Q1) When a teenager asks what makes the breast grow,what is the nurse's best response? The hormone that promotes breast development during puberty is:
A) Progesterone
B) Prolactin
C) Oxytocin
D) Estradiol
Q2) A clinician is preparing to teach about spermatogenesis.Which information should the clinician include? Spermatogenesis occurs in the:
A) Epididymis
B) Inguinal canals
C) Seminiferous tubules
D) Vas deferens
Q3) What term should the nurse use when discussing male sex hormones collectively?
A) Gonadotropins
B) Testosterones
C) Catabolic steroids
D) Androgens
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Alterations of the Reproductive Systems
Including Sexually Transmitted Infections
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11200
Sample Questions
Q1) An 18-year-old male presents with urethral itching and burning and increased frequency and urgency with urination.He reports recently having unprotected sex with a new partner.Which of the following could be the cause of his symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Neisseria gonorrhea
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Herpes infection
D) Escherichia coli
E) Candida albicans
Q2) A 23-year-old sexually active female presents with white copious discharge and itch.She is diagnosed with yeast vaginitis caused by overgrowth of which microorganism?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Lactobacillus acidophilus
C) Candida albicans
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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Chapter 33: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11201
Sample Questions
Q1) The ileum and jejunum are suspended by folds of the peritoneum known as the _____ that contains an extensive vascular and nervous network.
A) Myenteric plexus
B) Mesentery
C) Auerbach fold
D) Meissner plexus
Q2) A new drug is being tested that is known to inhibit parasympathetic nervous system activity.It is expected that the salivary glands will become:
A) Hyperactive
B) Hypoactive
C) Atrophied
D) Enlarged
Q3) The chemist analyzing a sample of normal saliva would expect it to reveal which immunoglobulin?
A) IgG
B) IgD
C) IgE
D) IgA
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Chapter 34: Alterations of Digestive Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
64 Verified Questions
64 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11202
Sample Questions
Q1) A 54-year-old male complains that he has been vomiting blood.Tests reveal portal hypertension.Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?
A) Thrombosis in the spleen
B) Cirrhosis of the liver
C) Left ventricular failure
D) Renal stenosis
Q2) A 10-month-old is brought to the pediatrician by the mother who states the baby has been experiencing colicky pain followed by vomiting,sweating,nausea,and irritability.Testing reveals a condition in which one part of the intestine telescopes into another.From which type of intestinal obstruction is he suffering?
A) Hernia
B) Ileus
C) Torsion
D) Intussusception
Q3) A serious complication of paraesophageal hiatal hernia is:
A) Hemorrhage
B) Strangulation
C) Peritonitis
D) Ascites
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11203
Sample Questions
Q1) Intussusception is treated initially by:
A) Bowel resection
B) An air enema
C) Laxative
D) Doubling fluid intake
Q2) When an infant has increased bilirubin production and impaired hepatic excretion of bilirubin,what does the nurse suspect is occurring in the patient?
A) Biliary hypertrophy
B) Physiologic jaundice
C) Hepatitis A
D) Infantile cirrhosis
Q3) Celiac disease,or sprue,is caused by alterations of the intestinal:
A) Glands
B) Villi
C) Smooth muscle wall
D) Sphincters
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Chapter 36: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11204
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement indicates the nurse has a good understanding of joints? The joints between the teeth and the maxilla or mandible are examples of a:
A) Symphysis
B) Diarthrosis
C) Gomphosis
D) Syndesmosis
Q2) A nurse recalls that when a muscle acts as the prime mover,it is called the:
A) Flexor
B) Recruiter
C) Antagonist
D) Agonist
Q3) A nurse is preparing to teach the staff about bones.Which information should the nurse include? After puberty,the epiphyseal plate calcifies,and the epiphysis and _____ merge.
A) Epiphyseal line
B) Diaphyseal plate
C) Metaphysis
D) Articular cartilage
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Chapter 37: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11205
Sample Questions
Q1) A 21-year-old female presents with low back pain and stiffness that is alleviated by physical activity.She was diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis (AS).The first joint to be affected would be the:
A) Sacroiliac
B) Carpal
C) Shoulder
D) Knee
Q2) Which of the following people is at highest risk for the development of gout?
A) Men aged 40 to 50 years
B) Premenopausal women
C) Male adolescents
D) Female children
Q3) A 35-year-old female suffers a broken clavicle following a motor vehicle accident.X-ray reveals that the bone surfaces in the joint partially lost contact with each other.This condition is called:
A) Dislocation
B) Subluxation
C) Distortion
D) Nonunion
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Chapter 38: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11206
Sample Questions
Q1) A 13-year-old female presents with pain at night,cough,and dyspnea.Testing reveals a metastasizing malignant bone tumor.The most likely type of tumor is:
A) Nonossifying fibroma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Ewing sarcoma
D) Osteosarcoma
Q2) Polyarthritis is a type of juvenile arthritis in which more than _____ joints are affected
Q3) Incidence of Legg-Calvé-Perthes (LCP)disease peaks at age______.
Q4) A 9-month-old male was diagnosed with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)following recurrent fractures and findings of osteopenia.This disease is caused by:
A) Uterine teratogens
B) A genetic defect
C) Malnutrition
D) Trauma
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Chapter 39: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11207
Sample Questions
Q1) A 15-year-old female reports abnormal hair growth on her face and body.This condition is referred to as:
A) Alopecia
B) Areata
C) Hirsutism
D) Paronychia
Q2) A 45-year-old male presents with a chronic blister-forming disease of the skin and oral mucous membranes.The nurse would recognize this condition as:
A) Lupus erythematosus
B) Pemphigus
C) Psoriasis
D) Eczema
Q3) A 10-year-old male is given penicillin for an infection.He has an allergic reaction,during which he develops urticarial lesions.These lesions are mediated by the release of:
A) Beta-adrenergic agonists
B) Histamine
C) Calcium
D) Cortisol
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Chapter 40: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/11208
Sample Questions
Q1) A 3-year-old male develops tinea capitis after playing with the family dog.This infection is caused by a:
A) Fungus
B) Bacterium
C) Virus
D) Parasite
Q2) Rubella,rubeola,and roseola are common communicable diseases caused by _____ infection.
A) Viral
B) Bacterial
C) Yeast
D) Fungal
Q3) Bullous impetigo is caused by a strain of:
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Molluscum contagiosum
C) Escherichia coli
D) Candida albicans
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