Allied Health Pathology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Allied Health Pathology introduces students to the fundamental concepts of human disease processes as they relate to allied health professions. The course covers basic pathological principles, including cellular injury, inflammation, healing, infection, neoplasia, and immune disorders. Students will explore the etiology, development, and progression of common diseases affecting major organ systems, with an emphasis on recognizing clinical manifestations, diagnostic procedures, and the implications for treatment and patient care. By understanding the underlying mechanisms of disease, students are better equipped to collaborate effectively within healthcare teams and support patients throughout the care continuum.
Recommended Textbook
Pathology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Ivan Damjanov MD PhD
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23 Chapters
495 Verified Questions
495 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1009 Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Pathology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20000
Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic hemolysis is characterized by accumulation of an iron-containing brown pigment in the cytoplasm of liver cells.This brown pigment is called:
A) Melanin
B) Tyrosin
C) Hemosiderin
D) Ceruloplasmin
E) Bilirubin
Answer: C
Q2) Hydropic changes are described as:
A) An equal level of water inside and outside the cell
B) A decrease of water in the cytoplasm
C) An increase of water in the cytoplasm
D) A result of irreversible cell injury
E) An increase of cell energy from the mitochondria.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Inflammation
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20001
Sample Questions
Q1) Hypertrophic scars are called:
A) Granuloma
B) Granulation tissue
C) Proud flesh
D) Keloid
E) Dehiscence
Answer: D
Q2) A bacterial throat infection ("strep throat")is associated with a white exudates surrounded by reddened mucosa.This is an example of:
A) Serous inflammation
B) Fibrinous inflammation
C) Abscess
D) Gangrene
E) Ulcerative inflammation
Answer: B
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunopathology
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20002
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of cell is primed to differentiate into immunoglobulin-producing plasma cells?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Monocytes
C) B cells
D) T cells
E) MALT
Answer: C
Q2) These prelymphoid stem cells migrate to the thymus and mature into:
A) Lymphocytes
B) Monocytes
C) B cells
D) T cells
E) MALT
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Neoplasia
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Retinoblastoma gene (RB1)is classified as a(n):
A) Oncogene
B) Tumor suppressor gene
C) Point mutation
D) Gene amplification
E) Viral oncogene inserted into the human genome
Q2) Human papillomavirus (HPV)has been implicated in the pathogenesis of carcinoma of the:
A) Lips
B) Cervix of the uterus
C) Liver
D) Ovaries
E) Pancreas
Q3) Teratomas originate from:
A) Germ cells of the ovary
B) Brain cells
C) Thyroid cells
D) Endocrine cells of the pancreas
E) Fallopian tubes
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Genetic and Developmental Diseases
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis may present in newborns with signs of:
A) Dehydration
B) Meconium peritonitis
C) Malabsorption
D) Diarrhea
E) Bronchiectasis
Q2) Which congenital deficiency occurs when an inborn error of protein metabolism causes the inability to metabolize phenylalanine into tyrosine?
A) Hunter's syndrome
B) Tay-Sachs disease
C) Niemann-Pick disease
D) Gaucher's disease
E) Phenylketonuria
Q3) Which of the following defects associated with TORCH can cause problems in the third trimester?
A) Microcephaly
B) Microphthalmia
C) Congenital heart disease
D) Central nervous system defects
E) Macrocalcifications of the basal ganglia
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Chapter 6: Fluid and Hemodynamic Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20005
Sample Questions
Q1) Most venous emboli that are of clinical significance originate in the veins of the:
A) Lungs
B) Heart
C) Kidney
D) Brain
E) Lower extremities
Q2) Most arterial emboli that cause cerebral infarcts originate from the:
A) Right ventricle
B) Left ventricle
C) Pulmonary artery
D) Abdominal aorta
E) Cerebral veins
Q3) Thrombosis can be initiated by all of the following except:
A) Inflammation
B) Endothelial cell injury
C) Stagnation of blood in varicose veins
D) Hypercoagulability of blood as a result of shock
E) Heparin
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8
Chapter 7: The Cardiovascular System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20006
Sample Questions
Q1) Rheumatic carditis is typically preceded by:
A) Streptococcal throat infection
B) Staphylococcal skin infection
C) Gonococcal arthritis
D) Coxsackie B virus myositis
E) Influenza
Q2) What is the most common congenital heart defect recognized in clinical practice?
A) Interatrial septal defect
B) Interventricular septal defect
C) Tetralogy of Fallot
D) Transposition of great vessels
E) Coarctation of the aorta
Q3) Which of the following represent iatrogenic heart lesions?
A) Alcoholic endocarditis
B) Radiation-induced heart attacks
C) Doxorubicin-induced heart attacks
D) Digitalis toxicity
E) Precardiotomy pericarditis
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9
Chapter 8: The Respiratory System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrin-rich hyaline membranes and protein-rich intra-alveolar edema are features of:
A) Atelectasis
B) Diffuse alveolar damage (DAD) in adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
C) Emphysema
D) Bronchiectasis
E) Aspiration pneumonia
Q2) The major pulmonary complication of congenital alpha -antitrypsin deficiency is:
A) Chronic bronchitis
B) Bronchiectasis
C) Atelectasis
D) Emphysema
E) Mesothelioma
Q3) The most important cause of emphysema is:
A) Cigarette smoking
B) Air pollution in the cities
C) Tuberculosis
D) AIDS
E) Asthma
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Page 10
Chapter 9: The Hematopoietic and Lymphoid System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thalassemia minor is a disease involving the gene that encodes:
A) Globin chains of hemoglobin
B) The heme portion of hemoglobin
C) The iron-binding portion of hemoglobin
D) The porphyrin ring of hemoglobin
E) Bilirubin synthetase
Q2) All of the following findings are typical of secondary polycythemia except:
A) Increased number of red blood cells in circulation
B) Hyperviscosity of the blood
C) Increased number of erythroid precursors in the bone marrow
D) Increased incidence of thrombi
E) Association with myelodysplastic syndromes
Q3) Which virus is a proven cause of leukemia/lymphoma in humans?
A) Epstein-Barr virus
B) HIV
C) HTLV-1
D) HPV
E) CMV
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Chapter 10: The Gastrointestinal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hiatal hernias may be caused by all of the following except:
A) Exogenous acids in food
B) Smoking
C) Caffeine
D) Heartburn in pregnancy
E) Reflux of gastric juice
Q2) Bacteriologically sterile peritonitis is a complication of:
A) Ruptured gastric ulcer
B) Gangrene of the large intestine
C) Gonococcal salpingitis
D) Acute pancreatitis
E) Acute appendicitis
Q3) Most malignant tumors of the esophagus are histologically classified as:
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Transitional cell carcinoma
C) Small-cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
E) Sarcoma
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Chapter 11: The Liver and Biliary System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In spite of preventive treatment,which host cells may damage the function of a transplanted liver?
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) Alpha cells
D) Lymphocytes
E) AFT
Q2) Which serum enzyme is the most reliable marker of extrahepatic biliary obstruction?
A) Alanine aminotransferase
B) Aspartate aminotransferase
C) Creatine kinase
D) Amylase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q3) Complications of cirrhosis include all of the following except:
A) Ascites
B) Splenomegaly
C) Esophageal varices
D) Hypoalbuminemia
E) Hypogammaglobulinemia
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Page 13
Chapter 12: The Pancreas
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25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20011
Sample Questions
Q1) X-ray examination of patients with chronic pancreatitis typically reveals:
A) Edema of the head of the pancreas
B) Swelling of the tail of the pancreas
C) Distention of the papilla of Vater
D) Calcifications of the pancreas
E) Loss of endocrine cells from the pancreas
Q2) Acute pancreatitis can be induced experimentally by what method?
A) Obstruction of the main pancreatic duct
B) Obstruction of the secondary pancreatic duct
C) Physical injury of the pancreatic acinar cells
D) Drugs that stimulate the production of pancreatic acinar cells
E) Removal of bile from the main pancreatic duct
Q3) Fat necrosis typically found in and around the pancreas in acute pancreatitis is caused by a release of:
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Peptidase
D) Pepsin
E) Cholecystokinin
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Page 14
Chapter 13: The Urinary Tract
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most prevalent metabolic disease that affects the kidneys?
A) Diabetes insipidus
B) Lupus
C) Hypertension
D) Heart disease
E) Diabetes mellitus
Q2) Acute "honeymoon" cystitis is caused by:
A) Viruses
B) Bacteria
C) Parasites
D) Fungi
E) Mechanical irritation
Q3) Atherosclerosis of the aorta and renal arterioles causing significantly reduced blood flow through the kidneys is known as:
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Nephroangiosclerosis
D) Acute tubular necrosis
E) Diffuse glomerulosclerosis
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Chapter 14: The Male Reproductive System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20013
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following testicular tumors may cause premature puberty?
A) Seminoma
B) Yolk sac carcinoma
C) Teratoma
D) Leydig cell tumor
E) Sertoli cell tumor
Q2) Most genital infections in males are:
A) Hematogenous
B) Lymphogenous
C) Sexually transmitted
D) Caused by HIV
E) Found before puberty
Q3) Invasive carcinoma of the prostate:
A) Occurs mostly in old age
B) Occurs more often in castrated men
C) Is caused by HPV
D) Is related to HIV infection
E) Is a squamous cell carcinoma
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Chapter 15: The Female Reproductive System
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Eclampsia is characterized by all of the following except:
A) Hypertension
B) Cerebral seizures
C) Edema
D) Proteinuria
E) Hematuria
Q2) Most spontaneous abortions are consequences of:
A) Developmental anomalies of the fetus and/or placenta
B) Internal infections
C) Autoimmune disorders
D) Lack of estrogen in the maternal organism
E) Excess of progesterone during early pregnancy
Q3) Women with carcinoma of the endometrium are at an increased risk of developing carcinoma of the:
A) Ovary
B) Vulva
C) Adrenals
D) Liver
E) Lung
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Page 17
Chapter 16: The Breast
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a woman has a family history of cancer (i.e.,her mother and her sister had cancer of the breast),her chances of developing breast cancer are:
A) The same as for any other woman
B) Somewhat increased (1 to 2 times)
C) Slightly increased (2 to 3 times)
D) Significantly increased (5 to 6 times)
E) Very high and she will inevitably develop breast cancer
Q2) The developmental abnormality that refers to the congenital absence of the breast is known as:
A) Accessory breast tissue
B) Polythelia
C) Polymastia
D) Amastia
E) Anumerary breasts
Q3) Which of the following is the most common histologic type of breast carcinoma?
A) Medullary carcinoma
B) Mucinous carcinoma
C) Invasive duct carcinoma
D) Lobular carcinoma
E) Tubular carcinoma
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20016
Sample Questions
Q1) Which disease causes an inability to meet the body's demands for T and T ?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Thyroidectomy
C) Thyroiditis
D) Congential thyroid aplasia
E) Hypothyroidsim
Q2) The most important clinical finding in patients with pheochromocytomas is:
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypertension
C) Hyperestrinism
D) Hypocalcemia
E) Polyuria
Q3) Prolonged adrenal stimulation with ACTH results in:
A) Adrenal medullary hyperplasia
B) Adrenal cortical hyperplasia
C) Adrenal adenoma formation
D) Adrenal cortical atrophy
E) Adrenal medullary atrophy
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19
Chapter 18: The Skin
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following neoplastic lesions originates in the dermis rather than in the epidermis?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Actinic keratosis
D) Dermatofibroma
E) Seborrheic keratosis
Q2) Tinea lesions are caused by:
A) Worms
B) Parasites
C) Fungi
D) Bacteria
E) Viruses
Q3) Malignant melanoma may originate from:
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Lentigo
D) Urticaria pigmentosa
E) Mycosis fungoides
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Bones and Joints
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/20018
Sample Questions
Q1) Which malignant tumor is composed of neoplastic cartilage cells that are insensitive to chemotherapy?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Paget's disease
D) Legionnaire's disease
E) Chondroma
Q2) In rheumatoid arthritis the synovium of joints is infiltrated with:
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Mast cells
D) Basophils
E) Plasma cells
Q3) If a long-bone fracture has numerous lines and fragments,it is called:
A) Simple
B) Greenstick
C) Comminuted
D) Complete
E) Incomplete
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Muscles and Peripheral Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a typical "upper neuron injury"?
A) Polymyositis
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome
C) Spinal cord injury caused by traffic accident
D) Diabetic neuropathy
E) Lead poisoning
Q2) The most common histologic type of soft tissue sarcoma in adults is:
A) Liposarcoma
B) Polymorphous cell sarcoma
C) Rhabdomyosarcoma
D) Leiomyosarcoma
E) Synovial sarcoma
Q3) Destruction of muscle fibers in polymyositis is characterized by a release of enzymes,of which the most specific for muscle disease is:
A) Lactate dehydrogenase
B) Acid phosphatase
C) Alkaline phosphatase
D) Creatine kinase
E) Alanine aminotransferase
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Chapter 21: The Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tabes dorsalis is characterized by:
A) Atrophy in frontal (motor) cortex
B) Atrophy of basal ganglia
C) Hypertrophy of putamen
D) Atrophy of anterior horns of the spinal cord
E) Atrophy of the posterior columns of the spinal cord
Q2) Which disease can be transmitted by corneal transplantation?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Alzheimer's disease
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Meningococcal meningitis
E) Parkinson's disease
Q3) Highly malignant tumors exclusively found in the cerebellum of children are called:
A) Glioblastoma multiforme
B) Medulloblastoma
C) Ependymoma
D) Oligodendroglioma
E) Meningioma
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23
Chapter 22: The Eye
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is found in all patients with glaucoma?
A) Myopia
B) Mydriasis
C) Hypermetropia
D) Opacities of the lens
E) Increased intraocular pressure
Q2) The innermost sensory layer of the eye,composed of rods and cones,is called:
A) Iris
B) Cornea
C) Sclera
D) Retina
E) Choroid
Q3) Gerry is 45 years old and now needs glasses.The most likely cause of his vision problem is known as:
A) Myopia
B) Hyperopia
C) Astigmatism
D) Presbyopia
E) Cataracts
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Page 24
Chapter 23: The Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jimmy,10 years old,is on the swim team.He practices 4 days a week for 3 hours a day.Jimmy returns from swim practice complaining of ear pain.What is the most likely cause of the pain?
A) Otitis media
B) Otitis externa
C) Cauliflower ear
D) Ménière's disease
E) Vertigo
Q2) The ceruminous glands produce a greasy substance known as earwax and are located in the:
A) External auditory canal
B) Internal auditory canal
C) Middle ear
D) Inner ear
E) Tympanic membrane
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