Allied Health Microbiology
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Allied Health Microbiology provides an in-depth exploration of microorganisms and their impact on human health, with a particular focus on topics relevant to allied health professionals. The course covers the fundamental biology of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, emphasizing their roles in disease transmission, pathogenesis, immunity, and epidemiology. Students learn essential laboratory techniques for microbial identification and gain a thorough understanding of aseptic practices, infection control, and antimicrobial resistance. Practical applications in clinical, diagnostic, and public health settings are discussed, preparing students to recognize, prevent, and manage infectious diseases in diverse healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology with Diseases by Body System 5th Edition by Robert W. Bauman
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1927 Verified Questions
1927 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n) (photosynthetic/algae/plant) organism makes its own food using light energy.
Answer: photosynthetic
Q2) The technique developed by Hans Christian Gram is important for bacterial A) etiology.
B) identification.
C) classification.
D) isolation.
E) epidemiology.
Answer: B
Q3) You are a young scientist who has just learned about one of the hot topics in microbiology, biofilms. One aspect of the interest in biofilms is that the microbes living within biofilms appear to behave and function differently from their counterparts not living in a biofilm. Devise a way to explore the idea. (Do not focus on the technical details of how this might be accomplished.)
Answer: Many answers are possible.A good answer should have a clear statement of hypothesis and an experimental design that reflects the hypothesis and will provide interpretable quantitative results.An excellent answer may include projections of possible outcomes and/or alternative hypotheses.
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?
A) glycogen
B) glucose
C) fructose
D) deoxyribose
E) sucrose
Answer: A
Q2) A nitrogenous base composed of two rings is a (purine/pyrimidine/ribose).
Answer: purine
Q3) Which parts of the atoms interact in a chemical reaction?
A) protons
B) neutrons
C) ions
D) electrons
E) isotopes
Answer: D
Q4) The isotopes of an element vary in the number of (electrons/neutrons/protons) in the atom.
Answer: neutrons
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT a function of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton?
A) anchors organelles
B) gives shape to the cell
C) packages cellular secretions
D) performs endocytosis
E) aids in contraction of the cell
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is paired incorrectly?
A) plants; cellulose cell wall
B) algae; glycocalyx
C) bacteria; peptidoglycan cell wall
D) fungi; polysaccharide cell wall
E) archaea; protein cell wall
Answer: B
Q3) A (capsule/slime layer/matrix) is a type of glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell.
Answer: capsule
Q4) The presence of a cell (wall/membrane) enables bacterial and plant cells to resist the effects of hypotonic solutions.
Answer: wall
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Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the best definition of "empty magnification"?
A) An image is magnified so much resolution and contrast are lost.
B) A specimen is so lacking in color it cannot be observed on a light microscope.
C) A magnified specimen is so small it cannot be resolved on a light microscope.
D) The background on the field is almost totally black.
E) A magnified image has lots of empty space around a small object.
Q2) A serological test that involves the clumping of antigen and antibody is the (agglutination/antigen/ELISA) test.
Q3) Bacteria and many other microbes do not ________ and therefore do not fit Linneaus' definition species.
A) reproduce sexually
B) have nuclei
C) exchange genetic material
D) have cytoplasmic membranes
E) reproduce asexually
Q4) Discuss the ways in which light rays can be manipulated to increase resolution and/or contrast.
Q5) In the Schaffer-Fulton endospore stain, heat is a (fixation/mordant/staining) step.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pentose phosphate pathway generates all the necessary precursors for nucleotide biosynthesis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Another term for a protein catalyst is a(n) (enzyme/ribozyme).
Q3) Accumulation of a metabolic pathway product may result in decreased activity of the pathway enzymes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cells can use (active/allosteric/substrate) sites to regulate enzyme activity and thereby control their metabolism.
Q5) Discuss the interrelationships between anabolic and catabolic pathways. Provide specific examples in your answer.
Q6) Anabolic reactions may be characterized as A) exergonic.
B) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules.
C) forming large molecules from smaller molecules.
D) producing ATP.
E) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules to produce ATP.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Photoheterotrophs use carbon dioxide as their sole carbon source.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Compare and contrast the streak-plate method of isolation with the pour-plate method of isolation.
Q3) Flow cytometry makes use of fluorescence to count microbes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media?
A) transport media
B) reducing media
C) enriched media
D) differential media
E) selective media
Q5) Pure cultures are often obtained by isolating
A) streaks.
B) broths.
C) CFUs (colony forming units).
D) inoculums.
E) specimens.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) You observe a microbiologist examining two plates and notice the pattern of colonies are nearly identical with the exception of a few colonies that are absent on one of them. The plates likely were produced by
A) positive selection culturing.
B) replica plating.
C) pour plating.
D) streak plating.
E) the Ames test.
Q2) DNA, which is negatively charged, wraps around positively charged histones as part of the packaging of eukaryotic chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is both a codon for an amino acid and a start signal?
A) AAA
B) AUG
C) UAG
D) GAU
E) UGA
Q4) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Single-strand DNA molecules are fixed to a glass slide or nylon membrane for the production of A) microarrays.
B) DNA clones.
C) real time PCR probes.
D) FISH assays.
E) templates for Sanger sequencing.
Q2) Compare and contrast the two major categories of restriction enzymes.
Q3) Double strand DNA fragments are separated by size using A) restriction analysis.
B) FISH.
C) PCR.
D) northern blotting.
E) gel electrophoresis.
Q4) The technique called (northern/Southern/western) blotting is useful for using probes to identify specific DNA fragments that have been separated by electrophoresis.
Q5) Small RNAs that bind to an mRNA and alter its expression are known as (antisense/probes/restriction) RNAs.
Q6) Explain what a transgenic organism is, and give two examples.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Long-term storage of milk is made possible by ultra-high-temperature (pasteurization/sanitization/sterilization).
Q2) Which of the following is the most appropriate pairing of microbe and biosafety level?
A) E. coli, BSL-3
B) anthrax, BSL-1
C) Ebola, BSL-2
D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2
E) tuberculosis, BSL-1
Q3) The use of lysozyme during the preparation of cheeses and wines is effective in reducing the numbers of A) fungi.
B) viruses.
C) bacteria.
D) prions.
E) all microbes.
Q4) Ultraviolet light penetrates (more/less) effectively than gamma rays.
Q5) By themselves, soaps have only degerming activity, not antimicrobial activity.
A)True
B)False
Page 11
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Chapter 10:Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A compound is extracted from a microbial culture and is modified in the laboratory for use as an oral medication. This product would be a(n)
A) antibiotic.
B) analog.
C) semisynthetic antimicrobial.
D) synthetic antimicrobial.
E) probiotic.
Q2) Medications which block viral entry into cells include (adhesin/analog/attachment) antagonists.
Q3) Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota?
A) anaphylactic shock
B) black hairy tongue
C) pseudomembranous colitis
D) thrush
E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush
Q4) Any drug that acts against a disease is called a(n) (analog/antibiotic/chemotherapeutic) agent.
Q5) Explain the concept of selective toxicity.
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Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the term "deeply branching bacteria" mean?
A) The bacteria likely branched from other Bacteria very early.
B) The bacteria grow in long filaments with frequent branches.
C) The bacteria grow in environments far below the surface of the Earth.
D) The bacterial cells have a Y or "branched" shape.
E) This group of bacteria have ribosomal RNAs very divergent from the rest of the members of the domain Bacteria.
Q2) Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that protect areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion by pathogens?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Listeria
C) Lactobacillus
D) Mycobacterium
E) Corynebacterium
Q3) Bacteria in the genus Cytophaga are capable of digesting a wide range of complex carbohydrates and are important for degrading raw sewage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a protozoan with two nuclei and no mitochondria?
A) Plasmodium
B) Paramecium
C) Euglena
D) Giardia
E) Trichomonas
Q2) Plasmodium, the cause of malaria, undergoes multiple mitoses before the release of uninucleate daughter cells called (gametocytes/schizonts/coencytes).
Q3) Crossing over between chromosomes occurs during which stage of meiosis?
A) prophase I
B) prophase II
C) metaphase I
D) anaphase I
E) metaphase II
Q4) Which of the following is transmitted by mosquitoes?
A) African sleeping sickness
B) malaria
C) toxoplasmosis
D) tapeworms
E) typhus
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Q1) Prions are composed of a single protein called (plaque/BSE/PrP).
Q2) Budding release of virus may result in long lasting or persistent infection.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanism?
A) +ssRNA viruses
B) dsRNA viruses
C) -ssRNA viruses
D) retroviruses
E) both +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses
Q4) Small circular RNAs called ________ are plant pathogens.
A) plasmids
B) viruses
C) viroids
D) prions
E) phages
Page 15
Q5) A "naked" virus lacks (lipid/nucleic acid/protein).
Q6) Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (capsomeres/nucleocapsids/prions).
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Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reservoir is
A) a source of microbial contamination.
B) an environment that is free of microbes.
C) any microorganism that causes disease.
D) a condition in which organisms remain in the body for a short time.
E) a source of microbes for laboratory testing.
Q2) People in the asymptomatic incubation stage of a disease may be a reservoir of the agent.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Pathogens in droplets of body fluids are spread by (contact/indirect/vehicle) transmission.
Q4) A pathogen is best described as
A) a microorganism that remains with the person throughout life.
B) any microorganism that causes disease.
C) an organism that remains in the body for a short time.
D) a microorganism that may cause a disease under certain circumstances.
E) a source of microbial contamination.
Page 17
Q5) Virions attach to a target host cell by means of (capsules/capsids/ligands).
Q6) The study of the cause of disease is known as (epidemiology/etiology/pathology).
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells is a component of the body's first line defense?
A) monocyte
B) goblet cell
C) NK cell
D) neutrophil
E) microglial cells
Q2) First line of defense may be described as
A) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.
B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth.
C) damage resulting in cell lysis.
D) the coating of a pathogen by complement.
E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
Q3) What are NOD proteins?
A) cytoplasmic receptors of microbial molecules
B) cellular signals triggering inflammation
C) receptors of microbial molecules in phagocyte cell membranes
D) activators of complement
E) chemotactic factors
Q4) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve?
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Class II MHC are found on
A) the skin.
B) red blood cells.
C) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells.
D) muscle cells.
E) professional antigen-presenting cells.
Q2) Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?
A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single epitope.
B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.
C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the epitope for which they are specific.
D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.
E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.
Q3) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes insert (CD95/lectin/perforin) into the membranes of the cells they target as a first step in killing.
Q4) Describe the mechanisms of action of antibodies.
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Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by
A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
B) genetic manipulation.
C) treatment with formaldehyde.
D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.
E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.
Q2) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease. The microbe is grown in the lab. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with a lethal dose of ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?
A) attenuated
B) subunit
C) combination
D) toxoid
E) inactivated whole
Q3) Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (adjuvant/attenuated/inactivated) form of the virus.
Q4) How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include A) tuberculosis.
B) Pneumocystis pneumonia.
C) Kaposi's sarcoma.
D) tuberculosis and shingles.
E) Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma.
Q2) The condition known as graft-versus-host disease may result after
A) a bone marrow allograft.
B) a mismatched blood transfusion.
C) a bone allograft.
D) a plasmapheresis procedure.
E) any type of allograft procedure.
Q3) Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include A) molecular mimicry.
B) genetic factors.
C) overuse of vaccines.
D) molecular mimicry and vaccines.
E) molecular mimicry and genetic factors.
Q4) Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to reaction time, mediators, and cells involved.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds
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Sample Questions
Q1) A reddening of the skin of the face that intensifies when exposed to the sun is characteristic of A) herpes.
B) chickenpox.
C) rubeola.
D) rubella.
E) erythema infectiosum.
Q2) The production of (exotoxin/coagulase/hyaluronidase) enzyme breaks down connections between cells, allowing Streptococcus pyogenes to invade tissue and cause necrotizing fasciitis.
Q3) A man is suffering severe foot pain in the area of what looks like a large wart. He reports he has had the wart for some time, and the pain and swelling have developed slowly. A sample from the lesion shows that the pus contains large cells that stain a golden brown color. The man is likely suffering from A) sporotrichosis.
B) necrotizing fasciitis.
C) chromoblasomycosis.
D) mycetoma.
E) phaeohyphomycosis.
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Chapter 20: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rodents are a major reservoir for rabies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) How does tetanospasmin affect motor control?
A) It blocks the secretion of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.
B) It blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS.
C) It triggers the endocytosis of skeletal muscle cells.
D) It induces nervous system proteins to fold into abnormal shapes.
E) It is a pyrogenic toxin.
Q3) Bacterial agents of meningitis which can survive phagocytosis include
A) Neisseria meningitidis.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Mycobacterium leprae.
D) both Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E) Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae and Mycobacterium leprae.
Q4) The presence of (cocci/diplococci/coccobacilli/streptococci) in the CSF is consistent with infection with Listeria monocytogenes. (Describe the appearance of the cells.)
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Q5) The only natural hosts for infection with the microbe Mycobacterium leprae are humans and (armadillos/birds/pigs).
Chapter 21: Microbial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) It is the (larvae/nymph/adult) stage of the tick genus Ixodes that most often transmits Lyme disease to humans.
Q2) Blood returning from circulation through the body first enters the
A) left ventricle.
B) right atrium.
C) right ventricle.
D) pulmonary vein.
E) left atrium.
Q3) When bacteria in the bloodstream invade the bones, this leads to a painful condition called (endocarditis/osteomyelitis/lymphangitis).
Q4) Cytomegalovirus may be latent for years and reactivate when immunosuppression occurs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The terms "bacteremia" and "septicemia" are synonymous.
A)True
B)False
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Q6) How does the age of the infected individual play a role in the development of Epstein-Barr virus (HHV-4) infections such as infectious mononucleosis?
Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Bordetella pertussis produces
A) dermonecrotic toxin.
B) adenylate cyclase toxin.
C) pyrogenic toxin.
D) dermonecrotic and adenylate cyclase toxins.
E) dermonecrotic, adenylate cyclase, and pyrogenic toxins.
Q2) Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that
A) is part of the microbiome of the lower respiratory system.
B) is part of the microbiota of the nasal cavity which occasionally invades the lungs.
C) survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan.
D) is capable of forming endospores.
E) is a disease of birds transmissible to humans.
Q3) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person-to-person and from rodents to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Pneumocystis jiroveci infects only immunocompromised patients.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) List and describe three virulence factors associated with bacteria that cause gastroenteritis.
Q2) Urease is an important virulence factor of which of the following?
A) Porphyromonas gingivalis
B) Vibrio cholerae
C) Escherichia coli O157:H7
D) Helicobacter pylori
E) Shigella dysenteriae
Q3) The primary treatment for viral gastroenteritis is
A) fever reducers.
B) antiviral medications.
C) antitoxins.
D) rehydration therapy.
E) antidiarrheal medication.
Q4) Which of the following is a fungus that commonly lives in the large intestine?
A) Bacteroides
B) Escherichia
C) Campylobacter
D) Candida
E) Lactobacillus
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding genital herpes?
A) Reappearance of lesions is the result of new infections.
B) It can only be transmitted when lesions are evident.
C) There is an effective vaccine to prevent infection.
D) Acyclovir is effective in reducing the occurrence of lesions, but is not a cure.
E) Herpes can be prevented using vaginal spermicidal creams.
Q2) The risk of developing toxic shock syndrome is increased by the use of super-absorbent tampons.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A distinctive feature of secondary syphilis is
A) a widespread rash that can include the palms and soles.
B) hard, red, painless bumps.
C) rubbery, painful lesions.
D) soft, painful ulcers.
E) blister-like lesions which ulcerate.
Q4) Babies exposed to an intracellular parasite normally transmitted by sexual contact are at risk for (conjunctivitis/trachoma/warts).
Q5) A vaccine is available to prevent infection with (herpes/HIV/HPV).
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Chapter 25: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) The process of preserving foods in brine is called (canning/pickling/salting).
Q2) The enzyme (amylase/hyaluronidase/lipase) can be used in injected medications to enhance their rate of absorbance.
Q3) Which of the following beverages is made from fermented fruit?
A) beer
B) brandy
C) sake
D) vodka
E) both beer and vodka
Q4) The sour flavor in some fermented foods is usually the result of (acetic/benzoic/lactic) acid production.
Q5) Which of these microbial products is needed to produce "gasohol"?
A) citric acid
B) methanol
C) ethanol
D) hyaluronidase
E) aspartame
Q6) Most microbes need an environment that has a water activity of at least 0.90.
A)True
B)False
Page 29
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Chapter 26: Microbial Ecology and Microbiomes
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Q1) A ________ is a single species in an environment.
A) microhabitat
B) population
C) colony
D) biome
E) guild
Q2) The greatest diversity of the human microbiome is found
A) on the skin.
B) in the mouth.
C) in the intestine.
D) in the urinary system.
E) in the respiratory system.
Q3) Which of the following best describes the roles of microorganisms in the carbon cycle?
A) primary producers
B) heterotrophs
C) decomposers
D) heterotrophs and decomposers
E) primary producers, heterotrophs and decomposers
Q4) A biofilm is an example of (antagonism/competition/cooperation) among microbes.
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