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This course provides a comprehensive exploration of human anatomy and physiology, focusing on the structure and function of the body's major systems as they relate to health and disease. Designed for allied health students, the course covers essential concepts including cellular organization, tissue types, and the integrated function of organ systems such as the cardiovascular, respiratory, musculoskeletal, nervous, and digestive systems. Emphasis is placed on the physiological mechanisms that maintain homeostasis and the anatomical features pertinent to clinical practice, preparing students for further studies and careers in various allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology 6th Edition by Valerie C. Scanlon
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66 Chapters
5039 Verified Questions
5039 Flashcards
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11 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of body areas (Select all that apply)?
A)The scapular area is inferior to the gluteal area.
B)The temporal and occipital areas are both part of the cranial area.
C)The sternal area is lateral to the mammary area.
D)The popliteal area is posterior to the patellar area.
E)The most proximal area of the upper limb is the antecubital area.
F)The cervical area is both anterior and posterior.
Answer: B,D,F
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the organ systems (Select all that apply)?
A)The body is supported by the integumentary system.
B)Transport of oxygen is a function of the circulatory system.
C)Secretion of hormones is a function of the endocrine system.
D)The urinary system includes the kidneys and the liver.
E)The complex chemicals of foods are maintained by the digestive system.
F)Parts of the skeletal system protect some parts of the nervous system.
Answer: B,C,F
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vertical boundary between the right and left abdominal quadrants is a line through the _________________.
Answer: umbilicus
Q2) The heat (energy)production of the body is called __________________________.
Answer: metabolic rate
Q3) The horizontal boundary between the upper and lower abdominal quadrants is a line through the _____________________.
Answer: umbilicus
Q4) A transverse section of the femoral area would also be a ________________ section.
Answer: cross
Q5) The most posterior area of the head is the ______________ area. Answer: occipital
Q6) The abdominal cavity is part of the larger ________________ cavity. Answer: ventral
Q7) The dorsal cavity is lined by membranes called the ________________. Answer: meninges
Q8) The study of the layers of a body part is called its ____________________. Answer: anatomy Page 4
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Q1) Which of these is NOT an organ?
A)stomach
B)protein
C)artery
D)lung
Answer: B
Q2) The upper left abdominal quadrant contains the:
A)gallbladder
B)stomach
C)lungs
D)urinary bladder
Answer: B
Q3) The plantar area is ___ to the femoral area.
A)superior
B)distal
C)proximal
D)central
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the functions of organic molecules (Select all that apply)?
A)True fats are an energy storage molecule.
B)Glycogen forms structural components of cells,such as membranes.
C)Pentose sugars are part of polysaccharides.
D)DNA is the genetic code in chromosomes.
E)Phospholipids are part of cell membranes.
F)Cholesterol is the precursor molecule for a hormone such as insulin.
G)Oligosaccharides form antigens on cell membranes.
H)Cellulose is made of glucose,and is a source of energy.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the bicarbonate buffer system (Select all that apply)?
A)This buffer system is found in the blood.
B)Buffers are chemicals that can create large changes in pH when needed.
C)A disadvantage of this system is that it works very slowly.
D)The weak acid part of the system is NaHCO3.
E)H2CO3 ionizes to HCO3- and H2.
F)When this buffer system buffers a strong base,water is formed.
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Q1) The energy-storage molecule in adipose tissue is ____________________________.
Q2) A reaction in which small molecules are bonded to form a larger one is a ___________________ reaction.
Q3) A protein that speeds up a reaction yet remains unchanged is called a(n)________________.
Q4) A solution with a pH of 2 is _________________,and has many _________________ ions.
Q5) Excess glucose is stored as ______________________ in the _________________________.
Q6) The accumulation of carbon dioxide will cause the _____________ of body fluids to decrease.
Q7) The subunits of proteins are molecules called
Q8) Fatty acids and glycerol are the subunits of the energy storage molecules called
Q9) The subunits of DNA and RNA are called _____________________________.
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Q10) The mineral that carries oxygen in red blood cells is ________________________.
Q11) The body as a whole changes temperature slowly because the body is mostly
Q12) A base has more ____________________ ions than does a neutral solution.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these is NOT a disaccharide?
A)sucrose
B)galactose
C)maltose
D)lactose
Q2) Which element is NOT paired with its correct symbol?
A)sodium - S
B)oxygen - O
C)magnesium - Mg
D)chlorine - Cl
Q3) Heat may disrupt the functioning of an enzyme because:
A)human enzymes function only at 98.6°F
B)heat can break peptide bonds
C)water molecules are attracted to the enzyme,and denature it
D)heat can break hydrogen bonds and denature the enzyme
Q4) Plasma is a fluid that is found:
A)in veins
B)in arteries
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and in capillaries

Page 10
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the process of protein synthesis (Select all that apply)?
A)DNA has the original triplet code in its sequence of bases.
B)A tRNA molecule transfers a triplet from the DNA to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm of a cell.
C)The triplet code specifies three amino acids for each base in the DNA.
D)An mRNA molecule takes a copy of the triplet code to an amino acid.
E)The ribosomes in the cytoplasm form ionic bonds between the amino acids.
F)The DNA base sequence for one protein is called a gene.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of solutions (Select all that apply)?
A)Any substance that dissolves in water is called a solute.
B)Compared to human cells,hypertonic solutions have a greater percentage of water.
C)Compared to human cells,hypotonic solutions have a smaller percentage of water.
D)Human cells placed in a hypotonic solution will shrivel.
E)Human cells placed in a hypertonic solution will swell and burst.
F)Blood plasma is isotonic to red blood cells.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most human cells have _________ chromosomes,which contain _____________ as the hereditary material.
Q2) Lysosomes are cell organelles that contain ____________________ to destroy pathogens or damaged cellular parts.
Q3) Channels in a cell membrane are made of _________________________.
Q4) The cell organelles that sweep materials across a cell surface are ______________________.
Q5) The kidneys reabsorb water by the process of _________________________.
Q6) In mitosis,each chromosome becomes visible as a pair of _______________ during __________________________.
Q7) In mitosis,the pairs of chromatids line up on the equator of the cell during ______________.
Q8) The process of meiosis in the testes is called _______________________________.
Q9) In the process of protein synthesis,the original genetic code for a protein is found in the ____________________.
Q10) Some cells of the kidney tubules reabsorb small proteins by the process of ____________________________.
Q11) In mitosis,the chromatids become separate chromosomes during ____________________. Page 12
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Sample Questions
Q1) The organic molecule in cell membranes that forms receptor sites for hormones is:
A)pentose sugar
B)protein
C)phospholipids
D)cholesterol
Q2) A solution with a greater salt concentration than cells is said to be:
A)hypertonic
B)hypotonic
C)isotonic
D)ginantonic
Q3) Cells of the kidney tubules are able to reabsorb small proteins by the process of:
A)facilitated diffusion
B)phagocytosis
C)active transport
D)pinocytosis
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of serous membranes (Select all that appl
A)The parietal pleura lines the lungs.
B)Serous fluid permits diffusion of gases around the lungs.
C)The mesentery lines the abdominal organs.
D)The parietal pericardium lines the visceral pericardium.
E)Serous membranes are found in all open body cavities.
F)The thoracic counterpart of the peritoneum is the visceral pleura.
G)None of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of bone,cartilage,and fibrous connective tissue (Select all that apply)?
A)Bone tissue is hard,strong,and flexible.
B)Cartilage provides cushioning between vertebrae.
C)Fibrous connective tissue forms tendons,which connect bone to bone.
D)Bone tissue is an important storage site for excess calcium.
E)Cartilage supports the inner ear and upper jaw.
F)Fibrous connective tissue is made primarily of the protein collagen.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of a neuron that carries impulses away from the cell body is the
Q2) The type of muscle tissue that constricts the pupil of the eye is
Q3) The most important physical characteristic of collagen is that it is __________________.
Q4) Collagen and elastin are __________________ molecules made by cells called
Q5) The transporting fluid of blood is called ___________________.
Q6) The type of muscle tissue that MUST receive nerve impulses to contract is ___________________________.
Q7) The specific tissue that produces a large amount of body heat is
Q8) The membrane modifications of cardiac muscle cells that ensure rapid impulse transmission are called ____________________________.
Q9) All of the kinds of blood cells are produced in the ____________________________.
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Q10) The unicellular glands that secrete mucus in the respiratory tract are called

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Q1) The serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity is the:
A)pleura
B)peritoneum
C)mesentery
D)pericardium
Q2) The functions of nerve tissue include:
A)sensation
B)movement
C)learning
D)all of these
Q3) The cells that carry oxygen in the blood are:
A)WBCs
B)platelets
C)fibroblasts
D)RBCs
Q4) Salivary glands secrete saliva into ducts,therefore,they are called ___ glands.
A)serous
B)unicellular
C)endocrine
D)exocrine
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of human hair and nails (Select all that apply)?
A)Hair on the scalp provides thermal insulation.
B)A fingernail is made of a very strong form of collagen.
C)Each hair has a small muscle that flattens the hair to protect the skin from cold.
D)Nails protect the proximal ends of the fingers and toes from mechanical injury.
E)Eyelashes help keep dust out of the eyes.
F)Fingernails are useful for picking up small objects.
G)Hairs in the upper nasal cavities protect the nasal sinuses.
H)A nail root or hair root is a site of mitosis.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of vitamin D (Select all that apply)?
A)The stimulus for cutaneous production of vitamin D is the ultraviolet rays of the sun.
B)Cutaneous vitamin D is made from phospholipids stored in the skin.
C)Vitamin D promotes the absorption of calcium by the liver.
D)Vitamin D contributes to efficient immune responses.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sunlight on the skin stimulates production of vitamin __________________,which is important for the absorption of ________________________ from food.
Q2) The purpose of sweating is to increase the loss of _____________________,but it has the disadvantage of leading to __________________________.
Q3) Drying of the eardrum is prevented by _________________ .
Q4) Prevention of water loss or entry is a function of the stratum _______________ of the epidermis.
Q5) The process of mitosis in the ___________________________ produces new cells for the epidermis.
Q6) The ends of fingers and toes are protected from mechanical injury by ________________.
Q7) The glands that secrete sebum are called
Q8) Human hair helps keep dust out of the ________________________.
Q9) Most cutaneous receptors are found in the ___________________ of the skin.
Q10) In the superficial fascia,the tissue that contains many white blood cells is _________________________________.
Q11) A cold environment stimulates ____________________________ in the dermis in order to ______________________ heat. Page 19
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vasoconstriction in the dermis is important to:
A)increase heat loss in a warm environment
B)conserve heat in a warm environment
C)increase heat loss in a cold environment
D)conserve heat in a cold environment
Q2) Defensive cells in the integumentary system include subcutaneous WBCs and:
A)Langerhans cells in the epidermis
B)adipocytes in the dermis
C)melanocytes in the epidermis
D)keratinocytes in the dermis
Q3) Collagen and elastin are the major proteins of the:
A)epidermis
B)dermis
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and the subcutaneous tissue
Q4) The function of melanin is to protect living skin layers from more:
A)pressure
B)friction
C)UV rays
D)color

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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the embryonic growth of long bones (Select all that apply)?
A)Long bones are first made of cartilage.
B)The first center of ossification in a long bone is in the distal epiphysis.
C)Bone matrix formation proceeds from the distal end of the bone to the proximal end,and is completed at birth.
D)An epiphyseal disc is on the articular surface of a long bone.
E)On the diaphysis side of an epiphyseal disc,cartilage replaces bone.
F)When a bone stops growing,all of the cartilage in an epiphyseal disc has been replaced by bone.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of synovial joints (Select all that apply)?
A)Synovial fluid prevents friction.
B)The joint capsule is made of elastic connective tissue.
C)Ligaments are bands of fibrous connective tissue that connect bone to bone.
D)Sutures are not synovial joints.
E)The synovial membrane lines the joint capsule. f.Bursae cushion the articular cartilages in a joint.
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Q1) The shafts of long bones are made primarily of ______________________ bone.
Q2) The vertebrae posterior to the lungs are called ___________________ vertebrae,and there are _____ of them.
Q3) The rib cage with its muscles is directly involved in the functioning of the ___________________ system.
Q4) The bone that protects the receptors for hearing is the ___________________________.
Q5) The vertebrae are separated and cushioned by _______________ made of _________________.
Q6) The femur and tibia form a(n)_____________________ joint.
Q7) Preventing friction in a joint cavity is the function of _____________________________.
Q8) The two pubic bones form a(n)________________________ joint.
Q9) The glenoid fossa and the acetabulum are both part of ________________________ joints.
Q10) On the diaphysis side of an epiphyseal disc,the process taking place is ______________________________________________________.
Q11) The air cavities in the maxillae and frontal bones are called _________________________. Page 23
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Sample Questions
Q1) The part of a synovial joint that provides a smooth surface on bones is the:
A)synovial membrane
B)articular cartilage
C)joint capsule
D)synovial fluid
Q2) The manubrium of the ___ articulates with the ___.
A)sternum/clavicles
B)clavicle/sternum
C)clavicle/ribs
D)ribs/sternum
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of synovial joints?
A)Synovial fluid prevents friction.
B)The joint capsule is made of elastic connective tissue.
C)Bursae permit tendons to slide across a joint.
D)Hinge joints are synovial joints.
Q4) The hormone that increases energy production from all food types is:
A)insulin
B)thyroxine
C)GH
D)PTH

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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of electrical changes at the sarcolemma (Select all that apply)
A)A polarized muscle fiber has more Na+ ions inside that outside.
B)Depolarization is the movement of K+ ions into the cell.
C)Repolarization is the movement of Na+ ions out of the cell.
D)A polarized muscle fiber has a positive charge inside and a negative charge outside.
E)Depolarization is a reversal of charges; the cell has a positive charge outside and a negative charge inside.
F)An action potential is depolarization followed by repolarization.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the body's responses to exercise.(Select all that apply)?
A)Respiration increases to take in more O2 and exhale more CO2.
B)Heart rate increases to circulate more oxygenated blood to muscles.
C)Sweating increases because more heat is produced as the rate of cell respiration decreases.
D)The arteries to muscles dilate to carry more blood.
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Q1) The units of contraction within a muscle fiber are called _________________________.
Q2) The contraction of skeletal muscles is initiated by the __________________ lobes of the ___________________________.
Q3) In the neuromuscular junction,cholinesterase is contained within the _________________.
Q4) The muscle attached to the mandible that raises the lower jaw is the __________________.
Q5) The muscle on the ventral side of the trunk that flexes the vertebral column is the _____________________________.
Q6) Muscles with opposite functions are called ____________________________.
Q7) The fibers of a tendon merge with the _________________ of a muscle and the ________________________ of a bone.
Q8) The organ system that transmits impulses for contraction to muscles is the _______________ system.
Q9) In the neuromuscular junction,the _______________________ is the space.
Q10) The muscle on the upper back that raises or lowers the shoulder is the __________________.
Q11) During exercise,excess heat is given off as ___________________ increases. Page 27
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Q1) Tendons are made of ___ tissue,and are attached to the ___ of a muscle.
A)fibrous connective/fascia
B)elastic connective/fascia
C)fibrous connective/periosteum
D)elastic connective/periosteum
Q2) Tendons are attached to the ___ of a muscle and the ___ of a bone.
A)fascia/diaphysis
B)fascia/periosteum
C)origin/diaphysis
D)origin/periosteum
Q3) The muscle on the medial side of the thigh that adducts the thigh is the:
A)quadriceps femoris
B)hamstring group
C)gluteus medius
D)adductor group
Q4) The effect of acetylcholine on the sarcolemma is to make it:
A)more permeable to potassium ions
B)less permeable to potassium ions
C)less permeable to sodium ions
D)more permeable to sodium ions
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Q1) A nerve impulse changes from electrical to chemical at a(n)______________________.
Q2) The meninges,in order from the surface of the brain outward,are the __________________,the ___________________________,and the ____________________________.
Q3) The __________________ root of a spinal nerve contains motor neurons,and the ________________ root contains sensory neurons.
Q4) The part of a reflex arc that carries impulses away from the CNS is the ________________.
Q5) There are _________ pairs of thoracic spinal nerves,and they supply the ___________________________.
Q6) Cerebrospinal fluid is made from _______________________ by choroid plexuses in the ____________________ of the brain.
Q7) Between the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane is the __________________________,which contains
Q8) The cranial nerve pairs that are sensory for taste are the ______________________ and the ________________________________.
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Q9) The myelin sheath provides ___________________________ for neurons.

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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the spinal cord (Select all that apply)?
A)The white matter consists of ganglia.
B)The gray matter is shaped like the letter A.
C)It extends from the foramen magnum to the next to last thoracic vertebra.
D)The central canal contains cerebrospinal fluid.
E)Both the meninges and the backbone provide protection from mechanical injury.
F)The ventral horns of the gray matter consist of the cell bodies of motor neurons.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the cranial nerves (Select all that apply)?
A)Dilation of the bronchioles is a function of the vagus nerves.
B)Equilibrium is a function of the acoustic nerves.
C)The abducens nerves are motor for movement of the eyeball.
D)The sensory nerves for the teeth are the facial nerves.
E)The hypoglossal nerves are sensory for taste.
F)The trigeminal nerves are motor to the masseter muscles,for chewing.
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Q1) Which statement is NOT true of the structure of the sympathetic nervous system?
A)The ganglia are in two chains outside the backbone.
B)The preganglionic neurons emerge from the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord.
C)The neurotransmitters are acetylcholine and norepinephrine.
D)The structure of the synapses permits localized responses.
Q2) The cell bodies of sensory neurons are located in the:
A)ventral root ganglia
B)gray matter of the spinal cord
C)white matter of the spinal cord
D)dorsal root ganglia
Q3) The part of a neuron that contains the nucleus is the:
A)dendrite
B)cell body
C)axon
D)myelin sheath
Q4) The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system dominates during:
A)stressful situations,and increases heart rate
B)non-stressful situations,and causes the liver to change glycogen to glucose
C)stressful situations,and dilates the bronchioles
D)non-stressful situations,and increases peristalsis
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the senses of taste and smell (Select all that apply)?
A)The cranial nerves for taste are the glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal.
B)The cranial nerves for smell are the olfactory nerves.
C)The receptors for taste and smell are chemoreceptors.
D)Each olfactory receptor can detect many different vapors.
E)The sensory areas for taste and smell are in the frontal lobes.
F)The sense of smell is largely dependent on the sense of taste.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the ear (Select all that apply)?
A)The cochlea contains the receptors for hearing.
B)The auditory bones,in the order they vibrate,are the malleus,incus,and stapes.
C)The nerves for hearing and equilibrium are the ninth cranial nerves.
D)The receptors that detect movement of the head are hair cells in the organ of Corti.
E)The four semicircular canals have hair cells that respond to gravity.
F)Air pressure in the middle ear cavity is regulated by the mastoid sinus.
G)The auditory areas are in the temporal lobes,and both the cerebrum and cerebellum are concerned with equilibrium.
H)The utricle and saccule have accessory receptors for hearing low-pitch sounds.
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Q1) The lens of the eye bulges for near vision when the ________________________ contracts.
Q2) Arterial pressoreceptors detect changes in ___________________________.
Q3) The cranial nerve pair for the sense of smell is the ___________________________.
Q4) In the retina,colors are detected by the _________________,and the presence of light is detected by the ____________________.
Q5) The cells of the retina that form the optic nerve are the __________________________.
Q6) The cutaneous receptors for pain,itch,heat,and cold are ______________________ endings.
Q7) The cochlea has receptors called _______________________ in the
Q8) Many of the sensory areas are located in the cerebral
Q9) The receptors for smell and taste have the general name
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Q10) The only part of the eye that adjusts to focus light rays is the ________________________.
Q11) The photoreceptors that detect the presence of light are the
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Q1) The site of reabsorption of aqueous humor is the:
A)fovea
B)ciliary muscle
C)canal of Schlemm
D)suspensory ligament
Q2) The cutaneous receptors for touch and pressure are called ___,and are found mainly in the ___.
A)free nerve endings/dermis
B)free nerve endings/epidermis
C)encapsulated nerve endings/dermis
D)encapsulated nerve endings/epidermis
Q3) Being aware of a sensation even after the stimulus has stopped is called:
A)adaptation
B)projection
C)contrast
D)after-image
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of prostaglandins (Select all that apply)?
A)They are made from the proteins of cell membranes.
B)Like hormones,they are carried in the blood to distant target organs.
C)Some are important for the process of blood clotting.
D)Some are important in pain mechanisms.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of cortisol (Select all that apply)?
A)It is secreted by the adrenal medulla.
B)It limits the damage that the process of inflammation can cause.
C)Hunger or physical injury will increase secretion of cortisol.
D)It stimulates conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver.
E)It stimulates protein synthesis in muscles for "fight or flight."
F)It helps raise blood pressure and lower heart rate.
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Q1) The hormone that initiates the development of egg cells in the ovary is _______________,which is produced by the _________________________ gland.
Q2) Insulin enables cells to take in amino acids and use them for ________________________.
Q3) The secretion of hormones of the anterior pituitary is regulated by _____________________________ produced by the ___________________________.
Q4) The hormone that causes vasodilation in skeletal muscle and vasoconstriction in the viscera is _______________________________.
Q5) Some prostaglandins are necessary for the ___________________ of blood.
Q6) In women,the hormone that stimulates ovulation is ___________________ from the ________________________ gland.
Q7) Cortisol is secreted by the adrenal ____________________,which is the _______________ portion of this gland.
Q8) The effect of oxytocin on the uterus is to cause ________________________ for __________________________.
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Q9) The hormones necessary for growth of the endometrium are _____________________ and _________________________.

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Q1) The hormone that causes ovulation is:
A)GH
B)LH
C)FSH
D)ACTH
Q2) The hormone that has an anti-inflammatory effect is:
A)glucagon
B)cortisol
C)thyroxine
D)insulin
Q3) Iodine is necessary for the production of:
A)PTH by the parathyroid glands
B)calcitonin by the thyroid gland
C)TSH by the anterior pituitary gland
D)thyroxine by the thyroid gland
Q4) The hormones directly necessary for development of egg cells in the ovary are:
A)LH and estrogen
B)FSH and estrogen
C)FSH and progesterone
D)LH and progesterone
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of chemical blood clotting (Select all that apply)?
A)Many of the clotting factors are produced by the liver,but some are produced by the spleen.
B)Fibrinogen is changed to fibrin in stage 1 of clotting.
C)Calcium ions are needed for all three stages of clotting.
D)Prothrombin activator changes thrombin to prothrombin.
E)The actual clot is made of fibrin.
F)The purpose of clot retraction is to create a smaller area to be repaired.
G)The purpose of fibrinolysis is to strengthen a newly formed clot.
H)The endothelium of blood vessels is smooth and helps prevent abnormal clotting.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of blood viscosity and pH (Select all that apply)?
A)Plasma proteins decrease blood viscosity,so that blood flows smoothly.
B)The normal pH range of blood is 7.35 to 7.45.
C)Blood viscosity contributes to normal blood pressure.
D)Oxygen has a greater effect on blood pH than does carbon dioxide.
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Sample Questions
Q1) When old RBCs are destroyed,the heme portion is converted to ________________ by the _________________________.
Q2) In the process of chemical clotting,the result of the first stage is __________________________________.
Q3) A count of 8600 cells per microliter of blood is within the normal range for __________________.
Q4) In RBC development,the last immature stage is called a(n)___________________________.
Q5) Plasma proteins called alpha and beta globulins are produced by the __________________,and they function as ____________________.
Q6) The pH of the blood will increase if the amount of carbon dioxide it carries _____________.
Q7) If more carbon dioxide is carried by the blood,the pH of the blood will
Q8) A type AB person has ___________________________________________ on the RBCs and ______________________________________________ in the plasma.
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Q9) In the process of chemical clotting,the result of the second stage is

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Sample Questions
Q1) Platelet plugs are the only effective mechanism of hemostasis for breaks in:
A)capillaries
B)large arteries
C)large veins
D)medium-sized arteries
Q2) If necessary,type AB positive blood may be considered the universal recipient because:
A)it has no antibodies to destroy the donated RBCs
B)the positive Rh factor is not a problem for a recipient
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and the recipient's antigens will be diluted
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of a person with type AB negative blood?
A)The RBCs have no Rh antigen.
B)The plasma contains anti-Rh antibodies.
C)The RBCs have A antigens and B antigens.
D)The plasma has neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies.
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the reflex arc for heart rate and blood pressure (Select all that apply)?
A)A drop in blood pressure is the stimulus to increase heart rate.
B)The receptors for this reflex are pressoreceptors located in the femoral artery.
C)The CNS center for this reflex is in the spinal cord.
D)The effector of this reflex is the myocardium.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the location and layers of the heart (Select all that apply)?
A)The heart is medial to the lungs and inferior to the diaphragm.
B)The fibrous pericardium is the thickest and outermost pericardial membrane.
C)The parietal and visceral pericardia are mucous membranes.
D)The endocardium lines the heart and prevents friction as the heart beats.
E)The apex of the heart is at the upper right of the mediastinum.
F)The myocardium is the thickest layer of the wall of the heart,and is responsible for contraction.
Q3)
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Q1) The part of the heart that initiates each beat is the ________________________,which is located in the
Q2) The right and left AV valves prevent backflow of blood from the _________________ to the _____________________ when the ____________________ contract.
Q3) Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in ___________________.
Q4) The cardiac cycle is the sequence of events in _____________________________.
Q5) The function of ANP is to increase excretion of _____________ and _____________ by the __________________________.
Q6) The heart is directly superior to the ________________________ and is medial to the _______________________.
Q7) The difference between the resting cardiac output and the maximum cardiac output is called the ___________________________.
Q8) The layer of the heart wall that pumps blood is the ____________________________.
Q9) The lining of the chambers of the heart is the ____________________________.
Q10) For the myocardium,the most important substance in the blood is ____________________.
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Q1) The pericardial membranes,in order beginning with the outermost,are the:
A)visceral,fibrous,parietal
B)fibrous,parietal,visceral
C)parietal,visceral,fibrous
D)fibrous,visceral,parietal
Q2) The heart is ___ to the lungs and ___ to the diaphragm.
A)medial/superior
B)lateral/superior
C)medial/inferior
D)lateral/inferior
Q3) A sensation of pain in the heart is caused by:
A)lack of glucose
B)lack of oxygen
C)lack of carbon dioxide
D)all of these
Q4) The part of the heart that initiates each beat is the:
A)AV node
B)SA node
C)AV bundle
D)bundle of His

46
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the nervous regulation of blood pressure (BP)(Select all that apply)?
A)The vasomotor center is in the hypothalamus of the brain.
B)Pressoreceptors throughout the length of the aorta detect changes in BP.
C)The vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves are sensory for BP changes.
D)Increased vasoconstriction,to raise BP,is brought about by an increase in sympathetic impulses to the walls of arteries.
E)Nervous regulation of BP is a negative feedback mechanism.
F)If BP is high and must be brought back to normal,heart rate will decrease and vasodilation will occur.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the locations of arteries and veins (Select all that apply)?
A)The femoral artery and vein are in the thigh.
B)The common iliac veins empty into the superior vena cava.
C)The celiac artery branches into the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries.
D)The right and left common carotid arteries are branches of the ascending aorta.
E)The jugular veins drain blood from the shoulders and arms.
F)The renal arteries are branches of the thoracic aorta.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In capillaries,colloid osmotic pressure is created by the presence of __________________ in the blood.
Q2) One purpose of hepatic portal circulation is to enable the liver to receive alcohol absorbed by the stomach and _____________________ it before blood reaches the ____________________.
Q3) The nerves to the smooth muscle of all arteries and veins are ________________________ nerves.
Q4) The hormone that raises blood pressure by increasing sodium and water reabsorption by the kidneys is ___________________________.
Q5) A venous anastomosis provides an alternate pathway for blood to flow back to the __________________.
Q6) In capillaries,tissue fluid is brought back into the blood by the process of _______________.
Q7) Two hormones that affect blood pressure because they affect blood volume are _____________________ and ______________________.
Q8) In capillaries,albumin creates __________________ pressure,a pulling pressure.
Q9) Smooth muscle tissue forms the _______________________ layer of an artery,and its function is to ___________________________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone that raises blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction throughout the body is:
A)ADH
B)norepinephrine
C)ANP
D)aldosterone
Q2) Starling's law of the heart says that when cardiac muscle fibers are stretched,they will:
A)contract more forcefully
B)contract less forcefully
C)contract more rapidly
D)contract more slowly
Q3) Following a small loss of blood,the heart will:
A)decrease rate to conserve energy
B)decrease rate to prevent greater loss
C)increase rate to pump blood faster
D)be unaffected
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of foreign antigens and immunity (Select all that apply)?
A)An antigen will be recognized as foreign if it is different from our "self" antigens.
B)Bacteria and viruses are foreign antigens,but a person's own cancer cells are not considered foreign.
C)Innate immunity does not have memory for foreign antigens,but adaptive immunity does have memory.
D)Innate immunity stimulates antibody production only against viruses.
E)Adaptive immunity becomes more efficient with repeated exposures to an antigen,but innate immunity does not.
F)The responses of innate immunity are always the same,but the adaptive immune response is different for each pathogen.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lymphatic tissue is the site of ________________________ of lymphocytes.
Q2) A vaccine stimulates production of _________________ and ___________________.
Q3) Recovery from a disease provides ____________________ acquired ___________________ immunity.
Q4) In adaptive immunity,cytotoxic T cells use _______________________ to destroy foreign antigens.
Q5) In adaptive immunity,the ___________________ T cells activate B cells.
Q6) The component of immunity that does not become more efficient with repeated exposures is _____________________ immunity.
Q7) In the embryo,B cells are produced in the _____________________________.
Q8) Examples of foreign antigens are bacteria,___________________ and ___________________.
Q9) Lymph nodules destroy pathogens that have entered the body by way of _________________________.
Q10) When the spleen destroys old RBCs,_________________________ is formed from the heme portion of the _________________________.
Q11) In any form of active immunity,the antibodies have come from
Q12) As a person reaches adulthood,the thymus gland ___________________ in size.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The thoracic duct empties lymph into the:
A)left subclavian vein
B)superior vena cava
C)right subclavian vein
D)inferior vena cava
Q2) Which statement is NOT true of innate immunity and adaptive immunity?
A)Innate immune responses are triggered by damage of any kind.
B)T and B lymphocytes are specific for particular foreign antigens.
C)Macrophages are part of both components of immunity.
D)Only innate immunity creates memory.
Q3) In the abdominal cavity,the spleen is located:
A)behind the stomach
B)behind the liver
C)above the diaphragm
D)behind the sternum
Q4) When the spleen destroys old RBCs,it:
A)forms bilirubin,which will be excreted by the liver
B)makes new hemoglobin
C)makes new RBCs
D)stores the iron from old hemoglobin

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the upper respiratory tract (Select all that apply)?
A)The stratified squamous epithelium of the nasal mucosa is a good barrier to pathogens.
B)The nasopharynx and oropharynx are air passages only.
C)The tonsils are the lymphatic tissue of the pharynx.
D)The nasal mucosa warms and moistens inhaled air.
E)The conchae increase the surface area of the nasopharynx.
F)The laryngopharynx opens into the larynx and the esophagus.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the chemical regulation of respiration (Select all that apply)?
A)The strongest stimulus to increase breathing is a decrease in CO2 in the body fluids.
B)The carotid bodies and jugular body contain receptors that detect decreased oxygen.
C)Central chemoreceptors that are very sensitive to decreased CO2 are located in the cerebrum.
D)Severe hypoxia will stimulate an increase in breathing rate and depth.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diaphragm is made of _____________________ muscle,and during inhalation it moves ____________________________________.
Q2) The CNS respiratory centers are located in the ___________________ and __________________.
Q3) During breathing,the pleural membranes are kept together by the presence of ___________________.
Q4) The muscles that bring about inhalation are the _________________________ and the _____________________.
Q5) The ribs are pulled up and out by the _____________________________ muscles during ________________________________.
Q6) The air pressure outside the body is called __________________________ pressure
Q7) The bones that increase the surface of the nasal mucosa are the _______________________.
Q8) The serous membrane that covers the lungs is the _______________________________.
Q9) To compensate for a metabolic alkalosis,the respiratory rate will __________________ in order to ____________________ more carbon dioxide and ________________ the blood pH.
Q10) During swallowing,the nasopharynx is covered by the Page 55
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Sample Questions
Q1) A breathing rate that could help compensate for metabolic alkalosis would be ___ per minute.
A)8
B)14
C)18
D)36
Q2) Vital capacity is the pulmonary volume that includes:
A)tidal volume and inspiratory reserve
B)tidal volume and expiratory reserve
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and the vital residual last gasp reserve
Q3) The strongest stimulus for breathing is blood with a:
A)high level of oxygen
B)low level of oxygen
C)low level of carbon dioxide
D)high level of carbon dioxide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the pharynx and esophagus (Select all that apply)?
A)Peristalsis of the esophagus is part of the swallowing reflex.
B)The oropharynx and laryngopharynx are passageways for both food and air (at different times).
C)The lower esophageal sphincter (LES)is usually contracted,except when something is swallowed.
D)No digestion takes place in the pharynx or esophagus.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the digestive processes (Select all that apply)?
A)Chewing and the churning of the stomach are the only forms of mechanical digestion.
B)Chemical digestion requires enzymes,each of which is specific for one type of food.
C)An enzyme that requires a pH of 2 usually will not work at a pH of 8.
D)Mechanical digestion is helpful because it increases the surface area of food for enzymes to function efficiently.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The changing of food to simpler molecules is ________________________ digestion,and these simpler molecules can be ____________________ by the small intestine.
Q2) The layer of the alimentary tube that produces digestive enzymes is the ____________________.
Q3) The layer of the alimentary tube that contains Meissner's plexus is the _____________________.
Q4) The portion of the digestive system that extends from the mouth to the anus is the ___________________________________.
Q5) The part of gastric juice that begins the digestion of protein is _______________________.
Q6) The colon absorbs a great deal of _______________,and also absorbs _______________ and __________________________.
Q7) Fatty acids are broken down in the process of __________________________ to a form that is usable for energy production.
Q8) In the process of transamination,the liver synthesizes the _________________________.
Q9) In gastric juice,pepsin is activated by __________________________.
Q10) The end products of carbohydrate digestion are _____________________________. Page 59
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the villi of the small intestine,fatty acids are absorbed into the:
A)lacteals in combination with bile salts
B)capillary networks by active transport
C)capillary networks by osmosis
D)lacteals by osmosis
Q2) Which digestive enzyme is NOT paired with the food it helps digest?
A)peptidases - proteins
B)lactase - lactose
C)amylase - glucose
D)lipase - fats
Q3) Which food is NOT paired with the proper end products of digestion?
A)fats - fatty acids and glycerol
B)carbohydrates - polysaccharides
C)proteins - amino acids
D)All of these pairs are correct.
Q4) The external muscle layer of the stomach has:
A)three layers,and sympathetic impulses decrease contractions
B)two layers,and sympathetic impulses increase contractions
C)three layers,and parasympathetic impulses decrease contractions
D)two layers,and parasympathetic impulses increase contractions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the use of food molecules other than glucose in cell respiration (Select all that apply)?
A)An amino acid may be changed to pyruvic acid to enter the Krebs cycle.
B)Glycerol is a small molecule that can go directly to the cytochromes.
C)An amino acid may be changed to an acetyl group to enter the Krebs cycle.
D)Fatty acids are changed to pyruvic acid in the process of beta-oxidation.
E)The process of beta-oxidation takes place primarily in the pancreas.
F)Both fatty acids and amino acids may be changed to ketones.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of a fever (Select all that apply)?
A)A substance or pathogen that causes a fever is a pyrogen.
B)A low fever may be beneficial in that WBCs become more active.
C)A pyrogen activates the heat gain mechanisms regulated by the thalamus.
D)A very high fever may cause brain damage because carbohydrates become denatured.
E)Some chemicals produced as part of inflammation are endogenous pyrogens.
F)A fever may be beneficial in that a higher temperature inhibits some bacteria.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In cell respiration,the molecule that enters glycolysis is _________________________,and the molecule formed is
Q2) The normal range of human body temperature in degrees Celsius is __________ to ___________.
Q3) A "protein bar" consists of 20 grams of carbohydrates,25 grams of protein,and 5 grams of fat,which is _________________ total calories.
Q4) A high fever may cause brain damage because _____________________ become denatured.
Q5) A breeze takes warm air away from the skin surface; this is cooling of the body by the process of _______________________________.
Q6) The processes of heat radiation and conduction from the skin are decreased when the arterioles in the dermis ____________________________.
Q7) Vasoconstriction in the dermis will _______________________ the flow of blood near the body surface and thereby __________________ the loss of heat.
Q8) A high fever may cause brain damage because proteins become _____________________.
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Q9) Vasoconstriction in the dermis will ______________________ the loss of heat.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In synthesis reactions,proteins are synthesized from:
A)glucose
B)amino acids
C)fatty acids and glycerol
D)excess glucose
Q2) The stages of cell respiration that take place in the mitochondria of cells are:
A)glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
B)the Krebs cycle and the cytochrome transport system
C)the cytochrome transport system and glycolysis
D)all three stages
Q3) The difference in kilocalories between 10 grams of carbohydrates and 10 grams of fat is:
A)30 kcal
B)40 kcal
C)50 kcal
D)60 kcal
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of the locations of the organs of the urinary system (Select all that apply)?
A)Each ureter extends from the real cortex to the urinary bladder.
B)The urethra in men is posterior to the rectum.
C)The kidneys are lateral to the backbone and anterior to the peritoneum.
D)The urinary bladder is behind the pubic bones.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the ureter,urinary bladder,and urethra (Select all that apply)?
A)Peristalsis of the ureters is the function of their smooth muscle.
B)The spherical detrusor muscle is smooth muscle that forms the wall of the bladder.
C)In men,the urethra passes through the prostate gland and penis.
D)The internal urethral sphincter is striated muscle at the junction of the bladder and urethra.
E)The transitional epithelium of the bladder absorbs water to concentrate the urine. f.The external urethral sphincter is striated muscle that is under parasympathetic control.
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the kidney,the renal tubules are surrounded by the
Q2) The renal fascia is made of ____________________ tissue and its function is to ____________________.
Q3) The kidneys respond to increased acidity of the blood by excreting _________________ ions.
Q4) In tubular reabsorption,negative ions are reabsorbed by the process of __________________.
Q5) The functions of angiotensin II are to cause ________________________ and to increase the secretion of __________________________.
Q6) In the kidneys,the hormone that increases the reabsorption of sodium ions and water is ___________________________.
Q7) The general purpose of tubular reabsorption is to return _________________________ to the __________________________.
Q8) The nitrogenous waste product that comes from the metabolism of nucleic acids is __________________.
Q9) The normal pH range of urine is _________ to _________ with an average of
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the kidneys,pinocytosis is the process of reabsorption for:
A)small proteins
B)amino acids
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and large amounts of glucose
Q2) In the kidneys,the process by which small proteins are reabsorbed is:
A)passive transport
B)active transport
C)osmosis
D)pinocytosis
Q3) The renal artery takes blood from the:
A)abdominal aorta to the kidney
B)inferior vena cava to the kidney
C)kidney to the abdominal aorta
D)kidney to the inferior vena cava
Q4) The effector of the urination reflex is the:
A)trigone area
B)rugae
C)external urethral sphincter
D)detrusor muscle

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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements are true of electrolytes (Select all that apply)?
A)The major cation in tissue fluid is sodium,and the major anion is chloride.
B)Potassium is the major cation in intracellular fluid,and phosphate and proteins are the major anions.
C)The major anion in plasma is chloride,and the major cation is sodium.
D)Calcium and magnesium are anions needed for normal bone growth.
E)Osmotic pressure in body fluids is created mainly by sodium,potassium,chloride,and phosphate ions.
F)The presence of electrolytes in a water compartment determines whether that compartment will gain or lose water.
G)Sulfate cations are an essential part of some proteins.
H)Calcium ions are essential for blood clotting.
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Sample Questions
Q1) By the process of filtration,blood plasma becomes
Q2) The specialized fluid ______________________ prevents friction between the pleural membranes.
Q3) The electrolyte that is part of ATP is __________________________.
Q4) The specialized fluid _________________________ is the tissue fluid of the eye.
Q5) If the kidneys are excreting fewer hydrogen ions,the pH of body fluids will probably __________________________.
Q6) The phosphate buffer system is important for pH regulation by the __________________ (organ).
Q7) An amino acid acts as a base in body fluids when the _____________________ group picks up a(n)_____________________________.
Q8) With respect to the kidneys,the two hormones that increase the reabsorption of water are ____________________________ and _______________________.
Q9) An amino acid acts as an acid in body fluids when the _____________________ group gives off a
Q10) The pH-regulating mechanism that works most rapidly is the Page 69
Blood plasma becomes tissue fluid by the process of ___________________________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) To compensate for alkalosis,the kidneys will:
A)excrete hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions in urine
B)return hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions to the blood
C)excrete hydrogen ions in urine and return bicarbonate ions to the blood
D)return hydrogen ions to the blood and excrete bicarbonate ions in urine
Q2) The major electrolytes in intracellular fluid are:
A)sodium and chloride
B)potassium and chloride
C)phosphate,chloride,and proteins
D)potassium,phosphate,and proteins
Q3) The major electrolytes in tissue fluid are:
A)sodium and proteins
B)sodium and chloride
C)sodium,potassium,and chloride
D)potassium,phosphate,and proteins
Q4) Water found between cells is called:
A)lymph
B)intracellular fluid
C)tissue fluid
D)plasma
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of sperm (Select all that apply)?
A)The chromosomes are with the mitochondria because they require ATP in order to divide.
B)The flagellum provides for movement,and is most efficient in a moderately acidic environment.
C)The acrosome contains enzymes to digest the membrane of an ovum.
D)Millions of sperm are contained in 1 mL of semen.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the menstrual cycle (Select all that apply)?
A)Menstruation is the loss of the functional layer of the endometrium.
B)The average menstrual cycle is 28 days,but may be shorter or longer.
C)The endometrium continues to grow during the luteal phase.
D)The permanent layer of the endometrium is the foundational layer.
E)The loss of the endometrium is stimulated by a decrease in FSh.
F)During the follicular phase,several ovarian follicles begin to develop.
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Q1) The part of a sperm cell that provides motility is the ________________________.
Q2) The ________________ of a sperm cell contains the chromosomes,the ____________________ provide ATP,and the _________________________ provides motility.
Q3) An average menstrual cycle is approximately ___________ days.
Q4) The lowermost part of the uterus is the _____________________,which opens into the _________________________.
Q5) The openings in the female perineum are for the _______________________ and the __________________________.
Q6) The menstrual cycle requires the hormones _______________ and ______________ from the anterior pituitary gland,and ____________________ and ____________________ from the ovary.
Q7) In the menstrual cycle,the ruptured ovarian follicle becomes the __________________,when stimulated by the hormone __________________.
Q8) The hormone that promotes the growth of the corpus luteum from the ruptured ovarian follicle is _______________________.
Q9) The function of the flagellum of a sperm cell is _________________________.
Q10) The hormone that stimulates secretion of progesterone is
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Q1) An average menstrual cycle lasts approximately:
A)22 days
B)28 days
C)32 days
D)38 days
Q2) Which statement is NOT true of spermatogenesis?
A)The process takes place in the testes.
B)Four functional sperm are produced for each cell that undergoes meiosis.
C)The process is continuous from day to day.
D)The process begins at puberty and ends around the age of 50 to 60.
Q3) Secretion of fructose for the nourishment of sperm is a function of the:
A)prostate gland
B)seminal vesicles
C)bulbourethral glands
D)epididymis
Q4) The ovaries are located ___ to the uterus in the ___ cavity.
A)medial/pelvic
B)inferior/abdominal
C)medial/abdominal
D)lateral/pelvic
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of genes and chromosomes (Select all that apply)?
A)Chromosomes are made of DNA and protein; genes are made of DNA.
B)A homologous pair of chromosomes consists of maternal and paternal chromosomes with genes for the same traits.
C)A human diploid body cell has 23 pairs of autosomes.
D)The sex chromosomes are XX for women and YY for men.
E)The DNA for a gene is the sequence of bases in the triplets for the amino acids that make up the protein that the gene is the code for.
F)The genome of a species is the number of chromosomes in one cell.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of the primary germ layers of the embryo (Select all that apply)?
A)The ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system.
B)Mesoderm forms most of the liver and pancreas.
C)Bones come primarily from endoderm.
D)The lungs are epithelial tissue from the ectoderm.
E)The stomach lining is an inside surface,and is of endodermal origin.
F)Most organs have tissues from all three germ layers.
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Q1) The part of a blastocyst that secretes enzymes to permit implantation is the
Q2) For people,curly hair is dominant and straight hair is recessive. Genetics problem: Mom is heterozygous for curly hair and Dad has straight hair.The percent chance that a child of theirs will have curly hair is ______________.
Q3) When the gene for a trait is found only on the X chromosome,the trait is said to be _____________________________.
Q4) The genes a person has for a particular trait are called the _______________________.
Q5) After birth,the baby's ductus venosus _______________________,because the umbilical cord has been cut and blood no longer enters the baby from the _________________________.
Q6) After birth,the baby's ductus arteriosus ______________________,which allows more blood to flow to the ___________________,which increases _____________________ circulation.
Q7) A person who has two similar genes for a particular trait is said to be ______________________ for that trait.
Q8) The genetic code for one protein is called a(n)______________________.
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Q1) The site of exchanges between maternal blood and fetal blood is the:
A)umbilical arteries
B)umbilical vein
C)placenta
D)myometrium
Q2) The sex chromosomes in women are called:
A)XX
B)YY
C)XY
D)XZ
Q3) Which statement is NOT true of human chromosomes?
A)The diploid number is 46.
B)Chromosome pairs number 2 and 13 are autosomes.
C)The sex chromosomes for women are XX.
D)A homologous pair is either maternal or paternal.
Q4) In the early embryo,the liver and pancreas are derived from the:
A)ectoderm
B)mesoderm
C)endoderm
D)intraderm
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Q1) A potential source of infection for some diseases is:
A)an animal reservoir
B)a human carrier
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and a person with a subclinical infection
Q2) Mosquitoes are the vectors of:
A)malaria
B)yellow fever
C)both A and B
D)both A and B,and encephalitis
Q3) The vector of Rocky Mountain spotted fever is a:
A)mosquito
B)flea
C)tick
D)louse
Q4) Bacterial chemicals that are harmful to host cells are called:
A)antibodies
B)antigens
C)toxins
D)minerals
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Q1) A superficial mycosis is a(n)___________________ infection of the _________________ or the ___________________________.
Q2) A(n)_________________________ antibiotic is considered effective against just a few kinds of bacteria.
Q3) An important trigger for some mucosal yeast infections is the use of a(n)__________________ for a previous infection.
Q4) Mosquitoes are vectors of ___________________ and ____________________.
Q5) Worms are endoparasites,which means they affect the ______________________________.
Q6) Sources of infection for people are,in general,called ___________________________.
Q7) To prevent hospital-acquired infections,the staff should make _____________________ a first priority.
Q8) The vector of malaria is a(n)__________________________.
Q10) An acute infection is one that ______________________________. Page 80
Q9) For viruses spread by vectors,the portal of entry is the __________________________.
Q11) A bacterial spore is a resistant form,which means that it can survive extremes of __________________________.
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Q1) Which of the following statements are true of infections and disease (Select all that apply)?
A)When the number of cases of a disease rises sharply,the disease is called endemic.
B)Subclinical is a synonym for asymptomatic or inapparent.
C)Fomites are objects that may be a source of pathogens.
D)An acute infection is always localized,and a chronic infection is always widespread.
E)A communicable disease is not always contagious,and a contagious disease is not always communicable.
F)A post-op infection of abdominal skin sutures is an example of a nosocomial infection.
Q2) Which of the following statements are true of viruses (Select all that apply)?
A)A virus has either DNA or RNA surrounding its protein core.
B)To reproduce,a virus must be within a living cell.
C)Viruses spread from person to person only by direct contact.
D)Viruses cause disease by killing the cells they reproduce within.
E)The enzymes secreted by viruses are needed for them to obtain food.
F)Some viruses require insect vectors to spread from host to host.
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