Allied Health Anatomy and Physiology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Allied Health Anatomy and Physiology provides an in-depth exploration of human body structure and function, focusing on systems and processes relevant to allied health professions. This course covers the organization of the human body, cellular and tissue biology, and major organ systems such as skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding physiological mechanisms, homeostasis, and the integration of body systems, equipping students with foundational knowledge essential for clinical practice and the delivery of patient care in allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 7th Edition by Saladin
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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negative feedback is a self-amplifying chain of events that tends to produce rapid change in the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) A molecule of water is more complex than a mitochondrion (organelle).
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The hypothetico-deductive method is common in physiology,whereas the inductive method is common in anatomy.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) All functions of the body can be interpreted as the effects of cellular activity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proteoglycans are composed of __________.
A)carbohydrates and fats
B)nucleic acids and fats
C)carbohydrates and proteins
D)proteins and fats
E)nucleic acids and proteins
Answer: C
Q2) The breakdown of glucose to yield carbon dioxide,oxygen,and ATP can be described as __________.
A)anabolic and endergonic
B)catabolic and exergonic
C)anabolic and exergonic
D)catabolic and endergonic
E)anabolic and exothermic
Answer: B
Q3) Potassium,sodium,and chlorine are trace elements.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscle cells contain numerous __________ to serve their high demand for ATP.
A)ribosomes
B)lysosomes
C)mitochondria
D)inclusions
E)Golgi vesicles
Answer: C
Q2) The greater the concentration gradient,the faster the diffusion rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Sodium and glucose are transported together from the intestinal lumen into an intestinal cell.The carrier protein is a(n)__________ and the process is called
A)symport; cotransport
B)symport; countertransport
C)antiport; countertransport
D)antiport; cotransport
E)uniport; facilitated diffusion
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA polymerase is most active during which phase of the cell cycle?
A)S
B)G<sub>1</sub>
C)G<sub>2</sub>
D)M
E)G<sub>0</sub>
Q2) Which of the following is not found in RNA?
A)Thymine
B)Uracil
C)Ribose
D)Guanine
Q3) The stage at which chromosomes aggregate along the equator of a cell is
A)prophase
B)metaphase
C)anaphase
D)telophase
E)interphase
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Scar tissue helps to hold an organ together but does not restore normal function of the damaged tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelia have _________ cells,which produce a protective mucous coating over the mucous membranes.
A)fibrous
B)blood
C)basal
D)keratinized
E)goblet
Q3) Blood functions to __________________.
A)allow for heart contraction and relaxation
B)store energy for the heart
C)provide support to the heart
D)line the heart chambers
E)transport nutrients to the tissues
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "ABCD rule" for recognizing early signs of malignant melanoma refers to the following characteristics of the lesion:
A)asymmetry, border irregularity, color, and diameter
B)asymmetry, brightness, color, and diameter
C)aspect, brightness, color, and distance
D)aspect, border irregularity, color, and distance
E)area, border irregularity, color, and density
Q2) __________ burns involve the epidermis,all of the dermis,and often some deeper tissue.
A)First-degree
B)Second-degree
C)Third-degree
D)Partial-thickness
E)Malignant
Q3) Mitosis in the __________ accounts for growth of the nail.
A)nail plate
B)nail fold
C)eponychium
D)hyponychium
E)nail matrix
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypercalcemia is rare,but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hemopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of __________ of the metaphysis.
A)reserve cartilage
B)cell proliferation
C)cell hypertrophy
D)calcification
E)bone deposition
Q4) The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called __________,and they contain __________.
A)canaliculi; osteoblasts
B)osteons; stem cells
C)lacunae; osteocytes
D)lacunae; osteoclasts
E)central canals; osteocytes
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone.
A)coronal
B)squamous
C)lambdoid
D)sagittal
E)frontal
Q2) All ribs articulate with the sternum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A rounded knob that articulates with another bone is called a(n)__________.
A)condyle
B)sulcus
C)alveolus
D)foramen
E)sinus
Q4) There are three bones in the pollex.
A)True
B)False
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The temporomandibular joint is a(n)__________ joint.
A)osseous
B)cartilaginous
C)bony
D)fibrous
E)synovial
Q2) Which of the following is not an anatomical component of a synovial joint?
A)Articular cartilage
B)The joint cavity
C)The interosseous membrane
D)The fibrous capsule
E)The synovial membrane
Q3) The joint between the L2 and L3 vertebrae is a __________.
A)synostosis
B)gomphosis
C)synchondrosis
D)symphysis
E)syndesmosis
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term best describes the relationship of the deltoid and SITS muscles during shoulder abduction?
A)Prime movers
B)Antagonists
C)Synergists
D)Fixators
E)Adductors
Q2) While sitting at your desk,you drop your pencil onto the floor.You bend over to pick up the pencil.In order to straighten up and continue your exam you must use which of the following muscles?
A)Tibialis anterior
B)Erector spinae
C)Semimembranosus
D)Tibialis anterior and semimembranosus
E)Extensor hallucis longus
Q3) Based on what you know about muscle attachments,which of the following is true?
A)An insertion generally moves towards an origin in contraction.
B)An origin generally moves towards an insertion in contraction.
C)An insertion generally moves towards another insertion in contraction.
D)An origin generally moves towards another origin in contraction.
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Q1) The triads of a muscle fiber consist of __________.
A)two A bands and one I band
B)two T tubules and one terminal cisterna
C)two terminal cisternae and one T tubule
D)two thin myofilaments and one thick myofilament
E)two thick myofilaments and one thin myofilament
Q2) The protein that acts as a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle is __________.
A)F actin
B)tropomyosin
C)troponin
D)titin
E)dystrophin
Q3) Exposure to the bacterium Clostridium tetani causes continuous release of acetylcholine.What effect does this have on smooth muscle?
A)Flaccid paralysis
B)Spastic paralysis
C)Lockjaw
D)No effect
E)Myocardial atrophy
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The __________ division carries signals to the smooth muscle in the large intestine.
A)visceral sensory
B)somatic sensory
C)visceral motor
D)somatic motor
E)afferent
Q2) An action potential never occurs in dendrites.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In PNS nerve fiber regeneration,how is a growing axon directed to its original destination?
A)It grows within a regeneration tube.
B)The axonal terminals grow towards the soma until the two severed fragments are reunited.
C)The axon grows a collateral that is directed by growth factors secreted by the postsynaptic neuron.
D)Injured Schwann cells produce a trail of prostaglandins to the original destination.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Somatic
Reflexes
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Q1) Eyes and ears are innervated by _________ fibers.
A)white
B)visceral
C)somatic
D)special
E)general
Q2) A stretch reflex is often accompanied by reciprocal inhibition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is contained within gray matter?
A)Glial cells, axons of motor neurons, and Schwann cells
B)Glial cells and myelinated fibers
C)Neurosomas, dendrites, and proximal parts of axons of neurons
D)The distal part of axons of lower order motor neurons
E)Glial cells only
Q4) A nerve fiber is enclosed in its own fibrous sleeve called perineurium.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The forebrain consists of the cerebrum and the diencephalon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cerebellum is the largest part of the brain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of CSF?
A)To regulate the chemical environment of the nervous tissue
B)To rinse metabolic wastes from the nervous tissue
C)To provide oxygen and nutrients to the nervous tissue
D)To protect the brain from striking the cranium when the head is jolted
E)To allow the brain to attain considerable size without being impaired by its own weight
Q4) A predominance of which waves in an electroencephalogram (EEG)might indicate that a person is physically and mentally relaxed?
A)Alpha
B)Beta
C)Theta
D)Delta
E)Gamma
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Q1) Preganglionic fibers of the autonomic efferent pathway are _________ and secrete __________.
A)myelinated; norepinephrine (NE)
B)myelinated; acetylcholine (ACh)
C)myelinated; acetylcholine (ACh) and norepinephrine(NE)
D)unmyelinated; acetylcholine (ACh)
E)unmyelinated; norepinephrine(NE)
Q2) Most preganglionic fibers in the sympathetic nervous system synapse with __________.
A)no neurons
B)somatic neurons
C)parasympathetic neurons
D)10-20 postganglionic neurons
E)effectors directly
Q3) Which of the following is more effective in producing bronchodilation?
A)Acetylcholine
B)Nicotine
C)Muscarine
D)Norepinephrine
E)Thyroxine
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Q1) The output energy of all receptors is a type of __________ energy.
A)chemical
B)mechanical
C)thermal
D)electrical
E)nuclear
Q2) The cornea belongs to the tunica fibrosa (fibrous layer)of the eyeball.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following describes the duplicity theory of vision?
A)A single type of receptor system cannot produce both high sensitivity and high resolution.
B)Cones and rods are responsible for both photopic (day) vision as well as trichromatic (color) vision.
C)Cones are responsible for both photopic (day) vision as well as trichromatic (color) vision.
D)Light adaptation and dark adaptation are adjustments in vision to changing light intensities.
E)There are short-wavelength cones and long-wavelength cones.
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypophyseal portal system connects the _________ with the _________.
A)anterior pituitary; hypothalamus
B)posterior pituitary; hypothalamus
C)anterior pituitary; posterior pituitary
D)hypothalamus; thyroid
E)pituitary glands; thyroid
Q2) The hormone called _________ plays an important role in synchronizing physiological function with the cycle of daylight and darkness.
A)calcitonin
B)melanin
C)melatonin
D)hepcidin
E)inhibin
Q3) The resistance stage in the general adaptation syndrome (stress response)is dominated by __________.
A)cortisol
B)epinephrine
C)norepinephrine
D)angiotensin
E)aldosterone
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Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Q1) The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of __________ than to any other factor.
A)fibrin
B)albumin
C)sodium
D)erythrocytes
E)nitrogenous wastes
Q2) The structural framework of a blood clot is formed by __________.
A)soluble fibrinogen
B)soluble fibrin
C)a fibrin polymer
D)a fibrinogen polymer
E)a thrombin polymer
Q3) What is the function of thromboplastin in hemostasis?
A)It initiates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.
B)It initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
C)It converts prothrombin into thrombin.
D)It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to reduce blood loss.
E)It dissolves the clot after the tissue has healed.
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Q1) Which of the following blood vessels receives blood directly from the right ventricle?
A)Pulmonary trunk
B)Ascending aorta
C)Superior vena cava
D)Inferior vena cava
E)Right pulmonary vein
Q2) Which of the following belong to the pulmonary circuit?
A)Aorta and venae cavae
B)Aorta and pulmonary veins
C)Pulmonary arteries and venae cavae
D)Venae cavae and pulmonary veins
E)Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins
Q3) Hypercapnia and acidosis have positive chronotropic effects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Papillary muscles prevent the AV valves from prolapsing (bulging)excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) What causes reactive hyperemia to increase tissue perfusion?
A)Urinary controls
B)Neural controls
C)Hormonal controls
D)Local controls
E)Respiratory controls
Q2) Blood flow to the __________ remains quite stable even when mean arterial pressure (MAP)fluctuates from 60 to 140 mm Hg.
A)hypothalamus
B)adrenal gland
C)stomach
D)skeletal muscles
E)kidneys
Q3) Where is the vasomotor center located?
A)Hypothalamus
B)Medulla oblongata
C)Spinal cord
D)Cerebellum
E)Cerebral cortex
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) When an enemy cell is present,a(n)__________ secrete perforins,which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane.
A)interferon
B)interleukin
C)natural killer cell
D)antibody
E)opsonization
Q2) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)targets mainly __________.
A)helper T cells
B)B cells
C)plasma cells
D)cytotoxic T cells
E)natural killer cells
Q3) Complement C3b protein coats bacteria and stimulates phagocytosis by __________ during a process called __________.
A)lymphocytes and monocytes; opsonization
B)neutrophils and macrophages; cytolysis
C)mast cells and basophils; opsonization
D)mast cells and basophils; cytolysis
E)neutrophils and macrophages; opsonization
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is a lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli?
A)Cor pulmonale
B)Pulmonary hemosiderosis
C)Emphysema
D)Atelectasis
E)Collapsed lung
Q2) Which of the following is a lung disease marked by a reduced number of cilia,reduced motility of the remaining cilia,goblet cell hypertrophy and hypersecretion,and thick sputum?
A)Asthma
B)Oat-cell carcinoma
C)Atelectasis
D)Chronic bronchitis
E)Emphysema
Q3) Gas transport is the process of carrying gases from the alveoli to the systemic tissues and vice versa.
A)True
B)False
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24
Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) The urine is most likely to be hypotonic when the __________.
A)body's water volume is high
B)body's pH is low
C)output of antidiuretic hormone is high
D)output of natriuretic peptides is high
E)person is lost and deprived of drinking water
Q2) Creatinine has a renal clearance of 140 mL/min.Why is this?
A)It is absorbed by the nephron loop.
B)It is secreted by the glomerulus.
C)It is absorbed by the renal tubules.
D)It is secreted by the renal tubules.
E)It is produced in the pulmonary tissue.
Q3) The countercurrent multiplier mechanism for water conservation was discovered by limiting studies to humans and thus hypothesizing how form determines function.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Albuminuria is a common sign of diabetes mellitus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Water,Electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Which of the following occurs when blood volume and pressure become too high?
A)ADH release is inhibited.
B)ADH release is stimulated.
C)The renal tubules reabsorb more water.
D)The renal tubules reabsorb more sodium.
E)The kidneys produce less urine.
Q2) Emphysema can lead to which of the following?
A)Metabolic acidosis
B)Metabolic alkalosis
C)Respiratory alkalosis
D)Respiratory acidosis
E)Digestive alkalosis
Q3) What is the most abundant anion in the ECF?
A)HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>
B)PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup>
C)HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
D)H<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>4</sub><sup>-</sup>
E)Cl<sup>-</sup>
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Page 26
Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) Lipids are transported to the surface of the intestinal absorptive cells by __________,and are then processed into __________.
A)fat droplets; micelles
B)fat droplets; chylomicrons
C)micelles; fat globules
D)micelles; chylomicrons
E)fat globules; micelles
Q2) Which of the following nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine?
A)Triglycerides
B)Amino acids
C)Glucose
D)Minerals
E)Water-soluble vitamins
Q3) Which of the following is not an accessory organ of digestion?
A)Tongue
B)Liver
C)Pancreas
D)Salivary glands
E)Spleen
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following are macronutrients?
A)Sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, and phosphorous
B)Nucleic acids, carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins
C)Sodium, potassium, carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins
D)Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and water
E)Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins, but not water
Q2) Which of the following represents the overall reaction for aerobic respiration?
A)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) 6
CO<sub>2</sub> + 6 O<sub>2</sub>
B)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6 O<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 6 CO<sub>2</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O
C)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6 CO<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\) 6
O<sub>2</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O
D)6 CO<sub>2</sub> + 6 H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\)C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6 O<sub>2</sub>
E)6 O<sub>2</sub>+ 6 H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub> + 6 CO<sub>2</sub>
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The orgasm-emission phase of the male sexual response is stimulated by
A)efferent sympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord
B)efferent sympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord
C)efferent parasympathetic signals from the sacral region of the spinal cord
D)efferent parasympathetic signals from the lumbar region of the spinal cord
E)efferent somatic signals from the thoracic region of the spinal cord
Q2) Which of the following does not play a role in thermoregulation of the testes?
A)The bulbospongiosus muscle
B)The cremaster muscle
C)The pampiniform plexus of veins
D)The countercurrent heat exchanger
E)The dartos muscle
Q3) Which of the following is generally accepted as a secondary sex characteristic?
A)The enlargement of the breasts
B)The presence of testes
C)The prostate gland
D)The uterus
E)The vagina
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the female sexual response?
A)Women do not have a refractory period and may quickly experience additional orgasms.
B)The engorged clitoris can swing upward away from the body like the penis.
C)The vagina has a high concentration of sensory nerve endings.
D)The uterus tilts forward over the urinary bladder during excitement.
Q2) The medial pole of the ovary is attached to the uterus by which ligament?
A)Suspensory ligament
B)Ovarian ligament
C)Mesovarium
D)Broad ligament
Q3) What does the term "menstrual cycle" specifically refer to?
A)The sequence of events from fertilization to giving birth
B)The events that recur every month during pregnancy
C)The cyclic events happening from puberty to menopause
D)The cyclic changes in the uterus determined by shifting hormonal changes
E)The cyclic changes in the ovaries determined by shifting hormonal changes
Q4) Unlike men,women lack a refractory period and may experience successive orgasms.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not have potentially teratogenic effects?
A)Smoking
B)Alcohol
C)Infectious diseases
D)Sunlight
E)X-rays
Q2) Trophoblastic nutrition refers to the nutrition of the conceptus before it implants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In fetal circulation,the __________ bypasses the liver and the __________ bypasses the lungs.
A)ligamentum venosum; ligamentum arteriosum
B)foramen ovale; ductus venosus
C)ductus arteriosus; ductus venosus
D)ductus venosus; ductus arteriosus
E)ligamentum arteriosum; foramen ovale
Q4) The chorion forms the fetal part of the placenta.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: General Orientation to Human Anatomy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/62444
Sample Questions
Q1) The sternum (breastbone)is __________ to the vertebral column.
A)anterior
B)posterior
C)superior
D)inferior
E)medial
Q2) The kidneys,ureters,adrenal glands,aorta,and inferior vena cava are all __________.
A)located within the peritoneal cavity
B)retroperitoneal
C)inside the visceral peritoneum
D)within the pelvic cavity
E)located within the thoracic cavity
Q3) The most superficial wall of the pleural cavity is lined by the __________,whereas the outer surface of the lungs is covered by the __________.
A)mesothelium; endothelium
B)parietal pericardium; visceral pericardium
C)visceral pleura; parietal pleura
D)parietal pleura; visceral pleura
E)visceral peritoneum; parietal peritoneum
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