Allied Health Anatomy and Physiology
Exam Bank
Course Introduction
This course provides a comprehensive introduction to the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing concepts relevant to allied health professions. Students will explore the major anatomical systems, including the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, urinary, endocrine, and reproductive systems. The course highlights the interrelationships between structure and function, as well as the physiological processes that maintain homeostasis. Laboratory sessions complement theoretical instruction, offering hands-on experience with anatomical models and basic physiological measurements. This foundational knowledge equips students with an essential understanding of human anatomy and physiology necessary for success in allied health fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Elaine N. Marie
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29 Chapters
3446 Verified Questions
3446 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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118 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the functional characteristics of life is excitability or responsiveness.This refers to ________.
A) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce
B) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
C) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system
D) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger
Answer: B
Q2) What type of homeostatic feedback reflex is the withdrawal reflex?
Answer: negative
Q3) Why must a normal body temperature be maintained in order for chemical reactions to be continued at life-sustaining rates?
Answer: If body temperature is too low,chemical reactions slow and eventually stop.If body temperature is too high,chemical reactions speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape,resulting in loss of function.
Q4) What is the action of all of the negative feedback mechanisms of the body?
Answer: They prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
Q5) What is a dynamic equilibrium of your internal environment termed?
Answer: homeostasis
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) Energy that travels in waves.Part of the electromagnetic spectrum.
A)Mechanical energy
B)Chemical energy
C)Electrical energy
D)Radiant energy
Answer: D
Q2) What advantages does ATP have in being the energy currency molecule?
Answer: Its energy is easy to capture and store; it releases just the right amount of energy for the cell's needs so it is protected from excessive energy release.A universal energy currency is efficient because a single system can be used by all the cells in the body.
Q3) Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy.
Answer: Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work.Kinetic energy is energy in action.
Q4) Glycogen,the storage form of glucose,is primarily stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) If cells are placed in a hypertonic solution containing a solute to which the membrane is impermeable,what could happen?
A) The cells will lose water and shrink.
B) The cells will show no change due to diffusion of both solute and solvent.
C) The cells will swell and ultimately burst.
D) The cells will shrink at first, but will later reach equilibrium with the surrounding solution and return to their original condition.
Answer: A
Q2) What are nucleolar organizer regions?
Answer: nuclear regions containing the DNA that issues genetic instructions for synthesizing ribosomal RNA
Q3) The metabolic or growth phase of a cell life cycle is called ________. Answer: interphase
Q4) ________ is the division of the cytoplasmic mass into two parts. Answer: Cytokinesis
Q5) Why can we say that a cell without a nucleus will ultimately die?
Answer: Without a nucleus,a cell cannot make proteins,nor can it replace any enzymes or other cell structures (which are continuously recycled).Additionally,such a cell could not replicate.
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Macrophage-like cells are found in many different tissues,and may have specific names that reflect their location or specializations.What is the one functional characteristic common to all macrophage-like cells?
Q2) Chondroblasts ________.
A) remain in compact bone even after the epiphyseal plate closes B) within the cartilage divide and secrete new matrix
C) never lose their ability to divide
D) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue?
A) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.
B) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.
C) Collagen fibers provides high tensile strength.
D) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back.
Q4) Salivary glands exhibit simple tubuloalveolar glandular arrangement.
A)True B)False
Q5) Tendons and ligaments are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Betty,an 83 year old woman,is bedfast due to a severely broken hip.Unfortunately,she has developed a decubitus ulcer.What is a decubitus ulcer and what may have caused it to occur?
Q2) Sudoriferous (sweat)glands are categorized as two distinct types.Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?
A) eccrine and apocrine
B) mammary and ceruminous
C) holocrine and mammary
D) sebaceous and merocrine
Q3) The most abundant cells of the epidermis.
A)Keratinocytes
B)Keratin
C)Cornified keratinocytes
D)Dendritic cells
E)Merkel disc
Q4) The single most important risk for skin cancer is ________.
A) genetics
B) use of farm chemicals
C) race
D) overexposure to UV radiation
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements best describes interstitial growth of cartilage?
A) Unspecialized cells from mesenchyme develop into chondrocytes, which divide and form cartilage.
B) Chondrocytes in the lacunae divide and secrete matrix, allowing the cartilage to grow from within.
C) Growth occurs in the lining of the long bones.
D) Fibroblasts give rise to chondrocytes that differentiate and form cartilage.
Q2) Layers of bone matrix.
A)Lamellae
B)Osteoblasts
C)Endosteum
D)Canaliculi
E)Osteoclasts
Q3) List in order the four major healing stages of a simple fracture.
Q4) People who live in northern latitudes may require supplemental calcium with vitamin D.Explain why.
Q5) Cartilage has a flexible matrix that can accommodate mitosis of chondrocytes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The bones in the skull have many different names but what are the boundaries of each bone? Where do they start and stop?
A) Bones of the skull are separated by immobile joints called sutures.
B) Bones of the skull are continuous but named for their specific markings.
C) The boundaries are indistinct and are simply vague generalized regions.
D) Boundaries for skull bones are seen only in the infant skull.
Q2) Occipitomastoid suture.
A)Connects temporal and parietal bones.
B)Connects right and left parietal bones.
C)Connects occipital and parietal bones.
D)Connects parietal and frontal bones.
E)Connects occipital and temporal bones.
Q3) The ________ is the bone confined to the septum of the nose.
Q4) What is the major function of the axial skeleton?
A) provide central support for the body and protect internal organs
B) provide a space for the major digestive organs
C) provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement
D) give the body resilience
Q5) Only the ________ vertebrae have transverse foramina.
Q6) Describe the composition of the intervertebral discs.
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Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are factors that influence synovial joint stability EXCEPT?
A) structure and shape of the articulating bone
B) strength and tension of joint ligaments
C) arrangement and tension of the muscles
D) number of bones in the joint
Q2) Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints.Which of the following statements is true about this fluid?
A) It contains hyaluronic acid.
B) It contains hydrochloric acid.
C) It contains lactic acid.
D) It contains enzymes only.
Q3) Bones united by fibrocartilage.
A)Syndesmosis
B)Gomphosis
C)Symphysis
D)Suture
Q4) A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
A)True
B)False
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connective tissue surrounding muscle fiber bundles.
A)A
B)E
C)D
D)C
E)B
Q2) What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?
A) a myofibril
B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) a sarcomere
D) a myofilament
Q3) Smooth muscles relax when intracellular Ca<sup>2+ </sup>levels drop but may not cease contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe two ways in which the lack of ATP production results in rigor mortis.
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscles of facial expression insert into skin or other muscles,not bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?
A) a prime mover
B) an agonist
C) a synergist
D) an antagonist
Q3) Which of the following muscles inserts to the posterior calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon?
A) the semitendinosus
B) the tibialis anterior
C) the gastrocnemius
D) the sartorius
Q4) Most superficial thorax muscles are extrinsic shoulder muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Tom has been told that he has an inguinal hernia.What is an inguinal hernia and what is its possible cause?
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?
A) size of action potentials
B) origin of the stimulus
C) type of stimulus receptor
D) frequency of action potentials
Q2) Different types of sensory input can have the same ultimate effect.
A)Parallel after-discharge circuit
B)Reverberating circuit
C)Diverging circuit
D)Converging circuit
Q3) Immediately after an action potential has peaked,which of the following channels will open?
A) voltage gated calcium channels
B) chemically gated chloride channels
C) voltage gated potassium channels
D) voltage gated sodium channels
Q4) When information is delivered within the CNS simultaneously by different parts of the neural pathway,the process is called ________ processing.
Q5) What is the role of microglial cells and why are they so important in the CNS?
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate clearly between short-term and long-term memory.
Q2) Unipolar neurons are found here.
A)D
B)A
C)C
D)B
E)E
Q3) What type of cells line the ventricles of the brain?
A) ependymal cells
B) neurons
C) astrocytes
D) epithelial cells
Q4) Meningitis is the most accurate term for inflammation of neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the importance of the fact that the outer portion of the cerebral hemispheres is convoluted?
Q6) Which brain areas lack a blood-brain barrier,and what purpose does this absence serve?
Q7) List seven homeostatic roles of the hypothalamus.
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Irritation of the phrenic nerve may cause diaphragm spasms called hiccups.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Longest cranial nerve.
A)E
B)B
C)C
D)D
Q3) As a cook chops red onions he begins to tear up due to activation of the lacrimal gland.Which of the following nerves provided the stimulus?
A) the vagus nerve (X)
B) the optic nerve (II)
C) the facial nerve (VII)
D) the olfactory nerve (I)
Q4) The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?
A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
B) pudendal and common fibular
C) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial
D) common fibular and tibial
Page 15
Q5) Body movement receptors are called ________.
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Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following adrenergic neurotransmitter receptors plays the major role in heart activity?
A) alpha 1
B) beta 1
C) beta 2
D) beta 3
Q2) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) preganglionic fibers are short
B) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
C) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
D) preganglionic fibers are long
Q3) The mushroom poison muscarine can bind to receptors on ________.
A) cell bodies and dendrites of parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
B) cell bodies and dendrites of sympathetic postganglionic neurons
C) the hormone producing cells of the adrenal medulla
D) all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic fibers
Q4) -adrenergic receptors are the only receptors found on the heart.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) An inflammation of the lining of the middle ear.
A)Conduction deafness
B)Otitis media
C)Night blindness
D)Glaucoma
Q2) The middle ossicle in the ear is the ________.
Q3) Semicircular canals.
A)C
B)B
C)A
D)D
E)E
Q4) Precision of eye movement is due to the fact that extrinsic eye muscle motor units contain only 8 to 12 muscle cells and in some cases as few as 2 or 3 muscle cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ling,a 75-year-old grandmother,complained that her vision was becoming obscured.Upon examination by an ophthalmologist she was told she had cataracts.What are they,how do they occur,and how are they treated?
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Chapter 16: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release corticosteroid hormones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Produces hormones that regulate glucose levels in the body.
A)Thyroid gland
B)Pancreas
C)Pituitary gland (hypophysis)
D)Adrenal medulla
E)Parathyroid glands
Q3) Produces aldosterone.
A)D
B)A
C)B
D)C
Q4) Growth hormone.
A)B
B)A
C)C
D)D
E)E
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Chapter 17: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus; granules stain very dark; releases histamine and heparin.
A)Basophil
B)Eosinophil
C)Neutrophil
D)Monocyte
E)Erythrocyte
Q3) Lacking in hemophilia type A.
A)Hemoglobin
B)Factor VIII
C)Agglutination
D)Monocyte
E)Neutrophil
Q4) White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Difference between resting and maximal cardiac output.
A)Bradycardia
B)Cardiac reserve
C)Tachycardia
D)Vagal tone
Q2) Tricuspid valve.
A)A
B)C
C)D
D)B
E)E
Q3) Atrial depolarization.
A)A
B)D
C)E
Q4) Point that represents the "dup" sound made by the heart.
A)A
B)D
C)E
Q5) What is the difference between the auricles and the atria?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following processes provides a long-term response to changes in blood pressure?
A) chemoreceptor-initiated reflexes
B) neural controls
C) renal regulation
D) baroreceptor-initiated reflexes
Q2) Receives blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm,except the heart wall.
A)External jugular vein
B)Pulmonary trunk
C)Superior vena cava
D)Subclavian vein
E)Axillary artery
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true of the precapillary sphincters?
A) They decrease the osmotic pressure in the thoroughfare channel.
B) They increase or decrease rates of perfusion to the tissues served by the true capillaries.
C) They allow blood to bypass the true capillaries that are fed by the metarteriole.
D) They regulate the flow of blood to tissues served by the true capillaries.
Q4) The abdominal aorta divides into three arteries at its terminus; what are they?
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Chapter 20: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the spleen,red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the spleen?
A) Clusters of white pulp look like islands in a sea of red pulp.
B) The splenic artery and vein enter and exit the spleen at the hilum.
C) Red pulp is where immune functions take place.
D) The spleen is the largest lymphoid organ.
Q3) Thoracic duct.
A)D
B)B
C)A
D)C
E)E
Q4) Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system.
A)True
B)False
Page 22
Q5) Where are the lymph node aggregations most dense?
Q6) What is the consequence of obstruction of the lymphatics?
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Chapter 21: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body
Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Without the positive selection process in lymphocyte maturation ________.
A) NK cells would be non-functional
B) monocytes would not be able to migrate into infected tissue and differentiate into macrophages
C) T-cells would not be able to properly bind to APC's and therefore not be activated by them
D) autoimmune diseases would be likely to result
Q2) Allergens differ from antigens because ________.
A) allergens are primarily plant derived while antigens are bacterial or viral in nature
B) allergens are only active seasonally and are generally harmless to the body
C) allergens do not involve the leucocytes, they simply stimulate the inflammatory response
D) allergens produce an abnormally large immune response to what is an otherwise harmless particle
Q3) Inflammation ________.
A) is caused by bacterial activity to enhance the spread of disease
B) brings more leukocytes to the sight of infection
C) is caused by viral activity to enhance the spread of the disease
D) slows the healing process with swelling that can impair bodily function
Page 24
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tidal volume.
A)B
B)D
C)C
D)A
Q2) Which of the following is an appropriate response to carbon monoxide (CO)poisoning?
A) hyperventilation to exhale CO from the body
B) hyperbaric oxygen chamber to increase PO<sub>2</sub> and clear CO from the body
C) slow breathing into a paper bag
D) immediate application of bicarbonate ions to facilitate removal of CO from Hb
Q3) In the plasma,the quantity of oxygen in solution is ________.
A) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in blood
B) not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules
C) about equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
D) greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
Q4) John has undergone surgery and has developed pneumonia.He also has a history of emphysema.Which symptoms and signs would the nurse expect to find?
Q5) How is alveolar gas exchange affected by emphysema and pneumonia?
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Chapter 23: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mucosa.
A)A
B)D
C)B
D)C
Q2) What are chylomicrons?
Q3) In the enteric nervous system,a long reflexive pathway has an advantage over a short reflexive pathway in the fact that ________.
A) long reflexive pathways last much longer than short reflexive pathways
B) long reflexive pathways can respond throughout the entire length of the GI tract while short reflexive pathways can only respond in the proximal end
C) long reflexive pathways are quicker to respond than short reflexive pathways
D) long reflexive pathways can be stimulated by things outside of the GI tract
Q4) Dentin anchors the tooth in place.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Gastric accommodation is an example of smooth muscle plasticity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Nutrition,metabolism,and Body Temperature Regulation
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Q1) What are the four mechanisms of heat exchange and how are they defined?
Q2) The term essential nutrient refers to the chemicals that can be interconverted in the liver so that the body can maintain life and good health.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________.
A) glucose
B) protein
C) fat
D) acetyl CoA
Q4) Processes that break down complex molecules into simpler ones are anabolic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following is NOT a function of low-density-lipoproteins (LDLs)?
A) transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver
B) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for membrane formation
C) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for hormone synthesis
D) assist in the storage of cholesterol when supply exceeds demand
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Chapter 25: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 58-year-old woman complains of loss of urine when coughing and sneezing,and during exercise.She has had three children.Describe the possible causes of urinary incontinence in this patient.
Q2) Which of the hormones below is responsible for facultative water reabsorption?
A) thyroxine
B) atrial natriuretic peptide
C) ADH
D) aldosterone
Q3) Collecting duct cells.
A)E
B)C
C)D
D)B
E)A
Q4) The trigone is so named because of the shape of the urinary bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The area between the ureters and urethra is that is often the location of infection is called the ________ in a bladder.
Q6) Explain the role of aldosterone in sodium and water balance.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Fluid,electrolyte,and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Annie has just eaten a large order of heavily salted French fries,some pickled eggs,and some cheese.How will consuming this much salt affect her physiology?
A) There will be a temporary increase in blood volume.
B) There will be a shift in the pH of her body fluids to the higher side of the pH scale.
C) It will cause a prolonged increase in the osmolality of the blood.
D) She will experience hypotension.
Q2) Prolonged hyperventilation can cause alkalosis.
A)True B)False
Q3) Most acidic substances (hydrogen ions)originate as by-products of cellular metabolism. A)True B)False
Q4) Carotid artery and aortic baroreceptors are involved in long term adjustment to total body sodium ion content. A)True B)False
Q5) List and describe three stimuli that activate the hypothalamic thirst center.
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Chapter 27: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ovulation occurs when the oocyte is released into the peritoneal cavity.By what means does it usually enter the uterine tube?
Q2) Location of nucleus.
A)C
B)B
C)A
D)D
Q3) Occurs in two stages.
A)Meiosis
B)meiosis
C)Mitosis
D)mitosis
Q4) Effects of estrogen include ________.
A) growth of the larynx
B) deepening of the voice
C) growth of the breasts at puberty
D) increased oiliness of the skin
Q5) A follicle with only a small antrum in it would be classified as a(n)________ follicle.
Q6) The ________ plexus of testicular veins assists in cooling the testis.
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Chapter 28: Pregnancy and Human Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) A zygote is usually formed within the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the choices below occurs if implantation is successful?
A) The ovarian cycle begins.
B) The corpus luteum is maintained until the placenta takes over its hormone-producing functions.
C) The corpus luteum degenerates and becomes the corpus albicans.
D) Increased levels of FSH will be produced.
Q3) A solid sphere of undifferentiated cells.
A)Trophoblast
B)Decidua basalis
C)Decidua capsularis
D)Inner cell mass
E)Morula
Q4) The decidua basalis is ________.
A) the tissue that surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo
B) destined to remain in the uterus after the birth of the infant
C) the part of the endometrium that lies beneath the embryo
D) not a maternal contribution to the placenta
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Chapter 29: Heredity
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
120 Verified Questions
120 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/74918
Sample Questions
Q1) Hereditary characteristics are transmitted to offspring by genes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A cross of two second-generation,straight-shorthaired individuals would yield what phenotype?
Q3) Genes for the same trait that have different expressions.
A)Allele
B)Dominant
C)Heterozygous
D)Autosomes
Q4) Means by which genes trade places,some maternal and some paternal on each chromosome.
A)Independent assortment
B)Chromosome segregation
C)Chromosome crossover
D)Gene recombination
Q5) Define karyotype.
Q6) Define phenocopy.
Q7) The second-generation types would have what phenotypes?
Q8) Identify,by numbers,any known carriers.
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